Brain and Behavior
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Brain and Behavior explores the intricate relationship between the nervous system and various aspects of human behavior. This course examines how brain structure and function influence cognition, emotion, perception, and actions. Students will investigate the biological foundations of psychological processes, study neural pathways involved in learning and memory, and discuss the impact of brain injuries and neurological disorders on behavior. Through a combination of lectures and case studies, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of how the brain shapes both normal and abnormal behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W. Kalat
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Chapter 1: The Major Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Color vision deficiency is more common in males than in females because it is controlled by a:
A) sex-limited gene.
B) Y-linked gene.
C) dominant X-linked gene.
D) recessive X-linked gene.
Answer: D
Q2) Abolitionists maintain that no animals have the same rights as humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following specialists is MOST likely to hold a medical degree?
A) behavioral neuroscientist
B) neurologist
C) biopsychologist
D) neuropsychologist
Answer: B
Q4) List the two major categories of careers related to biological psychology. Answer: research and therapy
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Chapter 2: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a dendrite?
A) It tapers as it gets further from the cell body.
B) It is in contact with the dendrites of other neurons.
C) Its surface may be lined with synaptic receptors.
D) It receives information from other neurons or the environment.
Answer: B
Q2) Why does the brain need thiamine?
A) to enable glucose to cross the blood-brain barrier
B) as a source of fuel in case there is not enough glucose
C) as a building block for making proteins
D) to enable it to metabolize glucose
Answer: D
Q3) A drug that decreases the flow of potassium through the potassium gates of the membrane would:
A) block action potentials.
B) increase the threshold of the membrane.
C) slow the return of the membrane to its resting potential.
D) cause the membrane to be hyperpolarized.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Synapses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some neurotransmitters are monoamines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Many neurons release neuropeptides mostly from the:
A) vesicles
B) nodes
C) axons
D) dendrites
Answer: D
Q3) Ionotropic effects are characterized by:
A) rapid, short-lived effects.
B) rapid, long lasting effects.
C) excitatory only.
D) inhibitory only.
Answer: A
Q4) Briefly describe autoreceptors.
Answer: These are receptors at the presynaptic terminals that are sensitive to the same transmitter they release.
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Chapter 4: Anatomy of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do the corpus callosum and anterior commissure have in common?
A) They both produce CSF.
B) They both connect the two hemispheres.
C) They are made up of gray matter.
D) They each have six laminae.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sympathetic system?
A) Is found in the thoracic and lumbar cord
B) Has long post-ganglionic fibers
C) Releases ACh at the ganglion
D) Releases DA at the ganglion
Q3) Although relatively small, the hypothalamus is very important for a large range of motivated behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research indicates that the behavioral effects of the cerebellum may be due to its role in:
A) coordinating information from left and right hemispheres.
B) focusing and shifting attention and organizing sensory inputs.
C) interpreting visual stimuli.
D) coordinating the release of hormones.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) One effective method to overcome diaschisis after brain damage is to administer stimulant drugs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would most likely interfere with migration of neurons during development?
A) altering the chemical paths
B) damaging dendrites
C) loss of myelin
D) increased differentiation
Q3) As the neural tube sinks under the surface of the skin, the forward end enlarges and differentiates into the:
A) spine, midbrain, and forebrain.
B) hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain.
C) hindbrain, midbrain.
D) midbrain, forebrain.
Q4) Axons are usually formed before the dendrites.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the relationship of sensory representation and phantom limb sensation.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once information is sent to the secondary visual cortex, it:
A) has reached its final processing destination.
B) may return to the primary visual cortex.
C) goes mostly to the primary motor cortex.
D) is sent back to the retina.
Q2) How do the retinas of predatory birds, such as hawks, differ from the retinas of prey species, such as rats?
A) Hawks have one fovea; rats have two.
B) Hawks have greater density of receptors on the top half of their retinas than do rats.
C) Hawks do not have bipolar cells in the retina; rats have an abundance of bipolar cells in the retina.
D) Hawks have mostly rods, whereas rats have mostly cones.
Q3) In comparison to cones, rods:
A) are more common toward the center of the retina.
B) are more sensitive to detail.
C) are more sensitive to dim light.
D) reach their peak firing levels slowly.
Q4) Describe what a kitten would be able to see if both eyes were kept shut for the first two weeks?
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Chapter 7: The Other Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sound shadow refers to:
A) out of phase sound waves.
B) in phase sound waves.
C) the time it takes sound waves to reach the ears.
D) how much louder a high-frequency sound is for the ear closest to the sound.
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about taste receptors?
A) Their dendrites extend outside the taste buds.
B) They are located mainly along the outside edge of the tongue.
C) Each taste bud contains only one receptor cell.
D) Humans have hundreds of types of taste receptors, each sensitive to a different set of chemicals.
Q3) One hypothesis of synesthesia is:
A) that all of the axons from one cortical area have more branches into that cortical area.
B) that all of the axons from one cortical area have branches into another cortical area.
C) that some of the axons from one cortical area have branches into another cortical area.
D) that some of the axons from one cortical area have more branches into that cortical area.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A saccade is initiated by impulses from the:
A) spinal cord.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) hippocampus.
Q2) Mirror neurons are active both during preparation for a movement and while watching someone else perform the same or a similar movement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The greater the number of Purkinje cells activated, the:
A) less the collective duration of the response.
B) greater the collective duration of the response.
C) greater the strength of the response.
D) less the strength of the response.
Q4) Exercising at a high altitude where there is less oxygen is most likely to affect:
A) intermediate fibers.
B) anaerobic contraction.
C) fast-twitch fibers.
D) slow-twitch fibers.
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Chapter 9: Wakefulness and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the role of the locus coeruleus in arousal and attention.
Q2) During REM sleep, neuronal activity decreases in the:
A) entire brain.
B) pons.
C) limbic system.
D) primary visual cortex and the motor cortex.
Q3) Huntington's disease may also affect orexin-containing neurons in the hypothalamus, leading to symptoms similar to:
A) sleep apnea.
B) periodic limb movement disorder.
C) REM behavior disorder.
D) narcolepsy.
Q4) High levels of 'Per' and 'Tim' are associated with sleepiness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Research suggests that REM is:
A) important for all types of memory.
B) most important for strengthening memories of motor skills.
C) most important for strengthening memories of lists of words.
D) not important for strengthening memories of any kind.
11
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Chapter 10: Internal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronically high insulin levels lead to increased appetite by:
A) lowering body temperature, increasing the need for nutrition.
B) preventing glucose from entering the cells.
C) causing a high percentage of available glucose to be stored as fat.
D) directly altering the responses of the taste buds.
Q2) The increasing prevalence of obesity obviously relates to the increased availability of our diet and ____.
A) depression
B) psychological distress
C) increased activity
D) sedentary lifestyle
Q3) Tryptophan enters the brain by an active-transport protein that it shares with ____ and other large amino acids.
A) phenylalanine
B) melatonin
C) lactose
D) glucose
Q4) Chronically high insulin levels decrease appetite.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Reproductive Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a female rat is exposed to highly stressful experiences late in pregnancy, what happens to the sexual development of her offspring?
A) The genetic males become responsive to male partners.
B) The genetic females become responsive to female partners.
C) Both male and female offspring become unresponsive to all sexual partners.
D) Both male and female offspring become highly aggressive in their sexual behaviors.
Q2) What hormone more than triples in concentration in the blood of human males during orgasm, and has been tentatively linked to sexual pleasure?
A) insulin
B) aldosterone
C) melatonin
D) oxytocin
Q3) The most widely used and most effective birth control pill is one that contains which hormone(s)?
A) luteinizing hormone
B) androgen, but not estrogen
C) both estrogen and androgen
D) both estrogen and progesterone
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13
Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to research, the human amygdala responds most strongly when people are looking at:
A) scenes that depict or imply movement.
B) emotional expressions.
C) familiar, recognizable faces.
D) pictures than can be interpreted in more than one way.
Q2) In a study of serotonin turnover in male monkeys, it was found that those with:
A) low levels were most submissive.
B) high levels had the most scars.
C) high levels were the most aggressive.
D) low levels were usually dead by age six.
Q3) A search for the happiness center in the brain is unlikely to be successful because:
A) brain areas associated with particular emotions vary considerably.
B) happiness is only an epiphenomenon.
C) fear activates the identical brain areas as happiness does.
D) no one has been able to define happiness.
Q4) The insula is strongly activated if you see a disgusting picture.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a series of electrical shocks, a person becomes overresponsive to lights and noises. This exemplifies:
A) habituation.
B) sensitization.
C) operant conditioning.
D) classical conditioning.
Q2) A diet low in calcium could possible interfere with learning by preventing:
A) the sodium potassium pump from working.
B) dendrite migration.
C) NMDA receptor production.
D) activation of CaMKII.
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes H.M.'s memory problems?
A) impaired short-term memory, but not long-term memory
B) impaired procedural memory, but not declarative memory
C) impaired explicit memory, but not implicit memory
D) impaired personal memories, but not impersonal memories
Q4) A distinctive symptom of Korsakoff's syndrome is confabulation, in which patients guess to fill in memory gaps.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Cognitive Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A loss of language ability, in general, is referred to as:
A) apraxia.
B) dyslexia.
C) aphasia.
D) anomia.
Q2) Wernicke's aphasia is to ____ as Broca's aphasia is to ____.
A) parietal lobe; temporal lobe
B) nouns; verbs
C) spoken language; sign language
D) understanding; speaking
Q3) Discuss some of the research conducted in split-brain patients.
Q4) Deaf children who do not learn any language by the time they enter school:
A) can still learn English, but not sign language.
B) can still learn sign language, but not English.
C) will never develop much skill at any language.
D) can master any language at any time.
Q5) A child born without a corpus callosum can name something felt with the left hand, but an adult who suffered damage to the corpus callosum cannot. What are two likely explanations?
Q6) What is Broca's apahsia?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antidepressant drug operates by blocking reuptake of serotonin and catecholamines, but also blocks histamine receptors, acetylcholine receptors, and certain sodium channels. This drug would most likely be classified as a(n):
A) tricyclic.
B) MAOI.
C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
D) atypical antidepressant.
Q2) St. John's wort appears to act in the same way as:
A) SSRIs.
B) atypical antidepressants.
C) tricyclics.
D) antipsychotics.
Q3) ____ was originally called dementia praecox.
A) bipolar disorder
B) schizophrenia
C) dissociative identity disorder
D) Huntington's disease
Q4) St. John's wort acts by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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