Blood Bank Technology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Blood Bank Technology is a specialized course that explores the principles and advanced practices involved in the collection, testing, processing, storage, and transfusion of blood and its components. The curriculum covers essential topics such as blood group serology, compatibility testing, donor selection, component preparation, quality assurance, and transfusion-transmitted infections. Students also learn the regulatory standards and safety protocols required to ensure the adequacy and safety of blood supplies. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical knowledge and hands-on laboratory techniques, preparing students for technical roles in clinical laboratories, transfusion services, and blood banks.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns
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21 Chapters
420 Verified Questions
420 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction
Between Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the principal isotype found in mucosal secretions?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgM
Answer: A
Q2) Approximately how many serum proteins are found in the complement system?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)40
Answer: C
Q3) Optimal pH has not been determined for immunohematologic testing,but it is generally believed that testing should be performed within what pH range?
A)4.2-5.8
B)5.8-7.5
C)6.8-7.2
D)7.0-8.8
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true except
A)The null phenotype is the inheritance of genes that code for no expression of the usual blood group antigens for that system.
B)An amorphic gene expresses a phenotype and can be called the silent gene.
C)Interaction among alleles or the products of different genes may modify the expression of a trait.
D)The HLA genes are linked and are inherited as haplotypes.
Answer: B
Q2) DNA is defined as
A)Deoxyribonucleic acid
B)Deoxyribonucleic alkali
C)Digoxin neural assessment
D)Diploid nucleotide analysis
Answer: A
Q3) What is the term for sexual cell division?
A)Meiosis
B)Mitosis
C)Mutation
D)Replication
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody
Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For tube testing,the most commonly used plasma-to-cell ratio is
A)One drop of plasma and one drop of 5% suspension of red blood cells
B)One drop of plasma and two drops 5% suspension of red blood cells
C)Two drops of plasma and one drop of 5% suspension of red blood cells
D)Two drops of plasma and two drops of 5% suspension of red blood cells
Answer: C
Q2) ______ is the first immunoglobulin class produced in a primary immune response.
A)IgD
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: D
Q3) Antihuman globulin (AHG)reagent must contain anti-_____ when used for antibody detection.
A)C3d
B)IgA
C)IgG
D)IgM
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gene is an amorph,meaning no functional gene product is produced from this sequence of DNA?
A)A
B)B
C)H
D)O
Q2) The red blood cells of the Bombay phenotype appear to be group ____ in routine ABO testing.
A)A
B)B
C)AB
D)O
Q3) Possible causes of a missing or weak reaction in the forward group include all of the following except
A)Disease that alters the ABO antigen expression
B)Excessive soLu le ABO antigens in patient/donor's plasma
C)Hypogammaglobulinemia
D)Transfusion or transplantation
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Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a purified concentrate of human anti-D?
A)HBIg
B)RhIg
C)Rhmod
D)Rhvariable
Q2) What animal was the Rhesus blood group system named after?
A)Guinea pig
B)Monkey
C)Rabbit
D)Squirrel
Q3) Rh antibodies may develop in response to transfusion of which of the following blood products?
A)Cryoprecipitate
B)Platelets
C)Rh-immune globulin
D)Thawed plasma
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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Q1) Within the Knops blood group system,all of the following are high-incidence antigens except A)Kna
B)McCa
C)McCb
D)Yka
Q2) How many antigens are in the Cartwright blood group system?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
Q3) Which antigen is one of the antigens in the ISBT classification called Series 901?
A)Bga
B)Knb
C)Sda
D)Tcc
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another term for the electronic crossmatch is
A)computer-aided crossmatch
B)computer-assisted crossmatch
C)computer-enhanced crossmatch
D)computer-generated crossmatch
Q2) Which statement is false?
A)Downtime procedures are vital in a laboratory that performs electronic crossmatches.
B)Downtime procedures encompass back entry of results once the LIS is functioning again.
C)During downtime,antiglobulin crossmatch should be performed on all specimens if recipients requiring an antiglobulin crossmatch cannot be identified.
D)During downtime,immediate spin crossmatches will be rarely performed instead of electronic crossmatches.
Q3) Issue of uncrossmatched red blood cells is defined as
A)ABO group has not been determined
B)Antibody identification has not been completed
C)Rh type has not been determined
D)Some or all required testing has not been completed
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Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rabbit erythrocyte stroma removes ____ and antibodies in the P blood group system.
A)Anti-A
B)Anti-B
C)Anti-Le
D)Anti-Le
Q2) What test is used to determine the phenotype of red blood cells?
A)Antigen typing
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Molecular typing
D)Reflex test
Q3) The chance of finding a ____ antibody screening cell is very small.
A)dCe/dCe
B)C/e/E/e
C)cis-AB
D)DCe/dce
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) If platelets are to be manufactured,the whole blood donation should be placed in a container that will cool the blood down to what temperature?
A)33.8-50° F (1-10° C)
B)50-59° F (10-15° C)
C)68-75.2° F (20-24° C)
D)75.2-89.6° F (24-32° C)
Q2) Except for automated double red blood cell donations,the hematocrit must be at least ____ for all allogeneic donations.
A)33% (0.33)
B)38% (0.38)
C)40% (0.40)
D)42% (0.42)
Q3) Which type of deferral means the prospective donor is unable to give blood to someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirements?
A)Flexible
B)Indefinite
C)Permanent
D)Temporary
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Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment
of Blood Components
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about platelet storage containers except A)Are made from nonpolyvinylchloride plastic
B)Contain plasticizers that stabilize the platelet membrane
C)Decrease carbon dioxide buildup
D)Have high gas permeability
Q2) For irradiated red blood cells,what is the storage temperature and expiry period?
A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 4 hours
B)68-75.2° F (20-24° C)for up to 4 hours
C)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 24 hours or to the original component expiry date
D)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 28 days or to the original component expiry date
Q3) To produce cryoprecipitated antihemophiliac factor,fresh frozen plasma is thawed at what temperature?
A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)
B)33.8-50° F (1-10° C)
C)64.4-71.6° F (18-22° C)
D)95-100.4° F (35-38° C)
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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following do hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)donors routinely receive prior to donation?
A)Desmopressin
B)G-CSF
C)Recombinant EPO
D)Recombinant TPO
Q2) What gauge of needle is typically used for blood transfusions?
A)18
B)21
C)23
D)25
Q3) A platelet count of less than _____ is often used as a trigger to initiate prophylactic platelet transfusions to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
A)10 × 10³ / µL (10 x 10 /L)
B)20 × 10³ / µL (20 x 10 /L)
C)30 × 10³ / µL (30 x 10 /L)
D)40 × 10³ / µL (40 x 10 /L)
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Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements about anaphylactoid transfusion reactions are true except
A)They are serious and life-threatening
B)They are triggered by IgE class antibodies that reLease mediators from mast cells
C)They can be caused by reaction between a protein allergen and its corresponding antibody
D)They can be caused by IgA in the transfused blood product reacting with anti-IgA in the patient's plasma
Q2) According to the 2005 UK SHOT data,the risk of a patient receiving an incorrect blood component is 1 in ____ blood components transfused.
A)100
B)5,000
C)15,000
D)100,000
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Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic infection is most common with which of the following types of viral hepatitis?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Q2) Which type of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is endemic in western Africa?
A)HIV-I
B)HIV-II
C)HIV-IV
D)HIV-VI
Q3) Which of the following is a fatal neurological disease whose causative agent may be transmitted by transfusion of human blood?
A)CJD
B)vCJD
C)CWD
D)FSE
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Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can pregnancy cause a woman to make an antibody to a red blood cell antigen?
A)Fetal cells carrying an antigen inherited from the mother and foreign to the father cross the placenta
B)Fetal cells carrying an antigen inherited from the father and foreign to the mother cross the placenta
C)Fetal cells carrying a homozygous dose of an antigen cross the placenta
D)Fetal cells carrying a heterozygous dose of an antigen cross the placenta
Q2) Which term refers to delivery of a live infant?
A)Gravid
B)Gravida
C)Para
D)Peri
Q3) The most common cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn is incompatibility between the mother and the infant in which blood group system?
A)ABO
B)Kell
C)MNS
D)Rh
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Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune
Hemolytic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typical antihuman globulin reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test (DAT)may be directed against all of the following except
A)IgG only
B)IgM only
C)C3b and C3d
D)IgG,C3b,and C3d
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)is associated with which of the following?
A)DAT-negative autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B)Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia (DIIHA)
C)Mixed autoimmune hemolytic anemia (MAIHA)
D)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)
Q3) Red blood cell phenotyping by serologic methods can only be performed on specimens from patients who have
A)been transfused in the last 6 months
B)been transfused in the last year
C)not been transfused in the last month
D)not been transfused in the last 3 months
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibody is the most common cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia?
A)Anti-HLA-DQ1
B)Anti-HLA-Dq²
C)Anti-HPA-1a
D)Anti-HPA-1b
Q2) Accumulation of ultra-large multimers of von WilLe rand factor causes which of the following conditions?
A)Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B)Graft versus host disease (GVHD)
C)Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
D)Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP)
Q3) What is the match called when one human leukocyte antigen (HLA)is mismatched?
A)A
B)BU
C)C
D)D
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Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient
Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia B is due to deficiency in what coagulation factor?
A)VII
B)VIII
C)IX
D)X
Q2) Which of the following is a self-limited process that subsides with donor lymphocyte death?
A)Graft versus host disease
B)Hyperacute rejection
C)Iron overload
D)Passenger lymphocyte syndrome
Q3) Which of the following best describes an exchange transfusion?
A)Removal of patient's plasma and replacement with normal saline
B)Removal of patient's red blood cells and replacement with donor red blood cells
C)Transfusion of phenotype-matched donor red blood cells
D)Transfusion of irradiated donor red blood cells
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Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility
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Sample Questions
Q1) When matching a recipient and donor for hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant,how many alleles should be identified in the donor and recipient?
A)8
B)10
C)12
D)16
Q2) What is the best description of a CREG?
A)Group of alleles on the same chromosome that are often inherited together
B)Group of antigens that all react with an antibody directed against a common epitope
C)Group of antigens resulting from alleles that are independently segregated
D)Group of HLA antibodies that react with a particular epitope common to multiple bacteria
Q3) Which type of transplant is frequently used to treat genetic and acquired dysfunction of the bone marrow?
A)Bone
B)B lymphocyte cell
C)Hematopoeitic progenitor cell
D)Liver
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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what year were DNA typing procedures incorporated into parentage testing standards?
A)1953
B)1967
C)1985
D)1992
Q2) Which standards are commonly followed by laboratories seeking accreditation for parentage testing?
A)AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services
B)AABB Standards for Relationship Testing Laboratories
C)ABA Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services
D)ABA Standards for Parentage Testing Laboratories
Q3) Which of the following is typically referred to as the parentage index?
A)DR
B)LI
C)LR
D)PEx
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21
Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues
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Q1) Most laboratory tests performed in blood banks and transfusion services are _________ tests.
A)nonwaived
B)waived
C)centralized
D)point-of-collection
Q2) A full inspection of all systems is designated as what level of inspection?
A)Level I
B)Level II
C)Level III
D)Level IV
Q3) When was the first license for a blood bank issued?
A)1902
B)1934
C)1946
D)1962
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Quality Assurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AABB Standards for Blood Banks and Transfusion Services are divided into how many quality system essentials?
A)10
B)13
C)21
D)23
Q2) Process control is defined as
A)a system that standardizes facility documents
B)activities used to create a controlled environment for processes and procedures
C)documented evidence that provides a high degree of assurance that a specific process will consistently produce a product meeting predetermined specifications
D)standardization of an analytic instrument
Q3) The definition for policy would be which of the following?
A)Document used to record data
B)Information that provides objective evidence that an activity was completed
C)Principle that guides decision making
D)Set of related steps that achieve a goal
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