Biotechnology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary field that harnesses biological systems, living organisms, or components thereof to develop innovative products and technologies for various sectors including healthcare, agriculture, and industry. This course provides an overview of fundamental concepts in molecular biology, genetics, and bioprocessing, exploring techniques such as genetic engineering, cloning, and the use of recombinant DNA technology. Students will examine the ethical, legal, and social implications of biotechnological advancements, and analyze real-world applications like genetic diagnostics, pharmaceuticals, biofuels, and genetically modified crops.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition by Harvey Lodish
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Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations
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Q1) A 1-mL solution of 0.1 M NaOH is diluted to 1 L at 25°C.What is the pH of the resulting solution?
A)1
B)7
C)10
D)13
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the ways RNA differs from DNA?
A)Ribonucleotides have a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon of their sugar subunit.
B)Ribonucleotides can have enzymatic activity.
C)Ribonucleotides contain a phosphate group.
D)Ribonucleotides can contain the base uracil.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a monosaccharide?
A)fructose
B)galactose
C)glucose
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Molecular Genetic Techniques
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Q1) Describe how genetic complementation can be used in yeast to determine whether two different recessive mutations are in the same or different genes.
Answer: Yeasts are normally a haploid organism but can be made to form a diploid organism by mating.Genetic complementation is a phenomenon whereby the wild-type phenotype can be restored after mating two recessive mutants.If two recessive mutations are in the same gene then a diploid organism containing both mutations will show a mutant phenotype because neither allele provides a functional copy of the gene.If two recessive mutations are in different genes then the diploid yeast will show a wild-type phenotype because a wild-type allele of each gene will be present.
Q2) Linkage studies can map disease genes with a resolution of about one centimorgan.Typically,the physical distance of a DNA region this size is approximately:
A)7.5 × 10² base pairs
B)7.5 × 10³ base pairs
C)7.5 × 10 base pairs
D)7.5 × 10 base pairs
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) All the following statements about molecular chaperones are true EXCEPT:
A)they play a role in the proper folding of proteins.
B)they are located in every cellular compartment.
C)they are found only in mammals.
D)they bind a wide range of proteins.
Answer: C
Q2) Proteases that attack selected peptide bonds within a polypeptide chain are synthesized and secreted as inactive forms called:
A)carboxypeptidases.
B)aminopeptidases.
C)zymogens.
D)none of the above
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following methods can separate proteins based on their mass?
A)centrifugation
B)ion exchange chromatography
C)SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
D)centrifugation and SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Culturing and Visualizing Cells
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Q1) Which of the following could be used to visualize subcellular structure in living cells?
A)transmission electron microscopy
B)scanning electron microscopy
C)bright-field microscopy
D)differential interference light microscopy
Q2) A small tumor is excised from a patient's body.The pathologist wants to examine the number,size,and arrangement of cells within the tumor.The best technique to use would be:
A)DIC microscopy.
B)phase contrast microscopy.
C)bright-field microscopy after fixation,sectioning,and staining.
D)fluorescence microscopy.
Q3) Describe how a Förster resonance energy-transfer (FRET)biosensor like cameleon,which consists of CFP linked to YFP by the protein calmodulin,can detect local changes in calcium ion concentration.For your information,CFP excites at 440 nm and emits at 480 nm,whereas YFP emits at 535 nm.
Q4) Rough endoplasmic reticulum can be separated from smooth endoplasmic reticulum by differential centrifugation.What is the basis for this fractionation?
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Chapter 5: Fundamental Molecular Genetic Mechanisms
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Q1) In the laboratory,which of the following two factors are most useful in manipulating DNA?
A)magnesium ions and sugar concentrations
B)UV light and calcium ions
C)formaldehyde and iron ions
D)temperature and pH
Q2) Approximately what percent of all human genes are expressed as alternatively spliced mRNAs?
A)2
B)25
C)50
D)90
Q3) In which of these polymers are the monomers added one at a time?
A)DNA
B)rRNA
C)protein
D)all of the above
Q4) What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Q5) What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic bacteriophages?
Q6) Why is the enzyme reverse transcriptase found within retroviral virions?
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Chapter 6: Bio-membrane Structure
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Q1) What experimental evidence supports the fluid mosaic model of biomembranes?
Q2) What are the primary functions of the plasma membrane in all cells?
Q3) Describe how you would prepare liposomes from a biological membrane.
Q4) The enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis subject to feedback inhibition is A)ABCB4.
B)desaturase.
C)fatty acid synthase.
D)HMG CoA reductase.
Q5) Movement of phospholipids from one leaflet to the other A)occurs routinely.
B)requires cholesterol.
C)requires flippases.
D)is impossible.
Q6) Which two organelles are responsible for producing phospholipids and sphingolipids?
A)mitochondria and proteasome
B)endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
C)Golgi complex and persoxisome
D)endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi complex
Q7) How are cholesterol and phospholipids transported between organelles?
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Chapter 7: Genes Genomics and Chromosomes
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Q1) How many genes are estimated to be in the human genome?
A)21,000
B)35,000
C)75,000
D)100,000
Q2) SINES (short interspersed elements)
A)are approximately 300 base pairs long.
B)are LTRs containing retrotransposons.
C)are present in over 1 million copies in the human genome.
D)a and c
Q3) To examine the folding and compaction of chromatin during mitosis,you will need to isolate and stain chromosomes at a particular stage using a special spreading preparation technique.For the best analysis,the chromosomes must be at which one of the following stages?
A)metaphase
B)interphase
C)telophase
D)anaphase
Q4) Why is there a need for a specialized structure at the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes and for the enzyme telomerase?
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Chapter 8: Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Operator constitutive mutants of the lac operon would
A)express the lac repressor constitutively.
B)block the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
C)express -galactosidase constitutively.
D)prevent the inducer from binding to the repressor.
Q2) The TATA box
A)serves as a promoter sequence for genes transcribed by RNA polymerase III.
B)is located approximately 100 base pairs upstream of the start site for mRNAs.
C)is present in all eukaryotic genes.
D)acts to position RNA polymerase II for transcription initiation.
Q3) Transcriptionally inactive genes
A)are always located within euchromatin.
B)are not located within nucleosomes.
C)often are methylated.
D)are not resistant to DNase I.
Q4) All the following elements can function as eukaryotic promoters except A)a TATA box.
B)an initiator element.
C)CpG islands.
D)an enhancer.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Post-Transcriptional Gene Control
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Q1) Components of the spliceosome include
A)a pre-mRNA
B)proteins that react immunologically with the sera of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus.
C)U1 snRNA,which interacts with the 5´ splice site in pre-mRNA.
D)all of the above
Q2) Splicing joins
A)two intron sequences.
B)two polypeptides.
C)two DNA molecules.
D)two exon sequences.
Q3) The spliceosomal splicing cycle involves ordered interactions among a pre-mRNA and several U snRNPs.According to the current model of spliceosomal splicing,which intermediate(s)in the splicing of a pre-mRNA containing one intron should be immunoprecipitated by anti-U2 snRNP? Which additional intermediate(s)should be immunoprecipitated by anti-U2AF?
Q4) How does HIV bypass the normal restriction that prevents unspliced mRNAs from being transported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
Q5) What are hnRNP proteins? How were they identified?
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Chapter 10: Transmembrane Transport of Ions and Small
Molecules
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Q1) A mutant channel protein is expressed in an oocyte.Compared to patch clamping experiments in oocytes expressing the normal channel,the length of downward deviations is diminished by half.This indicates:
A)the mutant channel doesn't make a functional channel.
B)the mutant channel doesn't stay open as long.
C)the mutant channel opens more frequently.
D)the mutant channel behaves the same as the wild-type channel.
Q2) In which of the following cases is energy NOT needed for transmembrane transport?
A)Lysine moves into the cell against its concentration gradient via the Na /lysine symporter.
B)Potassium ions (K )move out of the cell down the K concentration gradient via potassium channels.
C)Glucose moves into the cell down its concentration gradient via a glucose uniporter.
D)The second and third answers are correct.
E)all of the above
Q3) Propose a rationale for why the import of sucrose into the plant vacuole is coupled to the export of H ion into the plant cytosol.
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Chapter 11: Cellular Energetics
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Q1) _____ is the carbon-containing compound produced by glycolysis.
A)Pyruvate
B)Glucose
C)CO
D)Acetyl CoA
Q2) The enzymes that catalyze the Calvin cycle are found in the:
A)thylakoid lumen.
B)phloem.
C)cytosol.
D)stromal space.
Q3) During ATP synthesis,protons move "down" their electrochemical gradient through:
A)the F complex of ATP synthase.
B)the F complex of ATP synthase.
C)a proton channel protein.
D)CoQH -cytochrome c reductase.
Q4) What is the role of substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis?
Q5) What molecule acts as an electron donor during photosynthesis in chloroplasts? What alternative is used by some photosynthetic bacteria (e.g. ,purple bacteria)?
Q6) Which components of PSII are responsible for producing the proton-motive force?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Moving Proteins Into Membranes and Organelles
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Q1) Why are bacteria often a poor choice for the production of proteins for therapeutic purposes?
Q2) What is the meaning of "quality control in the ER?"
Q3) In the absence of targeting information,what is the default location of proteins synthesized on cytosolic ribosomes?
Q4) Sorting of proteins to mitochondria and chloroplasts is:
A)cotranslational.
B)post-translational.
C)pretranslational.
D)quasitranslational.
Q5) Protein sequences for targeting to mitochondria or chloroplasts are located at:
A)the C-terminus of the precursor protein.
B)amino acid position 173 in most mitochondrial and chloroplast proteins.
C)the N-terminus of the precursor protein.
D)the second and third answers are correct
Q6) Many peroxisomal matrix proteins are imported as:
A)folded proteins.
B)nascent chains in the process of completing their elongation.
Page 14
C)protein fragments that are spliced together within the peroxisome.
D)unfolded proteins.
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Chapter 13: Vesicular Traffic, Secretion, and Endocytosis
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Q1) An important molecule for generating fatty acids in the cell enters via receptor-mediated endocytosis.The complex formed between the receptor on the plasma membrane and the important molecule is stable only at neutral pH.Based on this knowledge,you would predict:
A)a COPII-coated vesicle will be required for import.
B)the important molecule enters the cell via a protein channel.
C)both the molecule and the receptor are degraded to release the molecule from the receptor.
D)the molecule is released from the receptor in the endosome.
Q2) How are different coat proteins recruited to different sites within the cell?
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE about lysosomes?
A)They contain enzymes only capable of breaking down nucleic acids.
B)They are bound by a single membrane but can engulf organelles containing double membranes.
C)Proteins targeted to the lysosome are glycosylated in the ER and a specific mannose is phosphorylated.
D)The final,functional state of lysosomal enzymes contains mannose-6-phosphate.
Q4) What is autophagy?
Q5) How are clathrin-coated vesicles pinched off?
Q6) How are SNARE proteins thought to bring about specific membrane fusion?
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction and G-Protein Coupled Receptors
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Q1) All the following statement(s)about cholera toxin are TRUE,except:
A)it chemically modifies the G s protein.
B)it is a G protein-coupled receptor.
C)it prevents hydrolysis of bound GTP to GDP.
D)it leads to continuous activation of adenylyl cyclase.
Q2) One form of receptor desensitization can be mediated by negative feedback involving phosphorylation of the receptor itself by a kinase activated downstream of a second messenger.The phosphorylated receptor likely:
A)would be resensitized by a kinase.
B)would activate heterotrimeric G proteins at a faster rate.
C)would be unable to bind ligand.
D)could be resistant to desensitization if Ser/Thr phosphatases were acting on the same receptor,
Q3) Which of the following general statement(s)about a G protein-coupled receptor is (are)TRUE?
A)It contains 12 transmembrane domains.
B)It is positioned with the N-terminus on the cytoplasmic face of the membrane.
C)It is positioned with the C-terminus on the cytoplasmic face of the membrane.
D)all of the above
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Signaling Pathways That Control Gene Activity
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Q1) Latent TGF is converted to mature TGF by:
A)dephosphorylation.
B)phosphorylation.
C)proteolysis.
D)translocation.
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following explains why Ras is activated quickly by RTKs?
A)RTKs phosphorylate Ras.
B)Ras changes conformation upon ligand binding to prepare for activation.
C)Ras binds phosphotyrosine residues on RTKs.
D)Ras is maintained at the plasma membrane through a lipid-mediated attachment.
Q3) In the NF-B signaling pathway,which of the following molecules is downstream of I-B kinase?
A)NF-B
B)TAK1
C)TNF-
D)NF-B and TAK1
E)all of the above
Q4) What feature distinguishes the ligand Delta from other ligands such as EGF,TGF ,and erythropoietin that bind transmembrane receptors?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Cell Organization and Movement I: Microfilaments
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Q1) The correct order of events in cell locomotion is:
A)rear focal adhesion,membrane protrusion,front focal adhesion,cell body translocation,de-adhesion.
B)membrane protrusion,front focal adhesion,cell body translocation,de-adhesion,rear focal adhesion.
C)front focal adhesion,cell body translocation,de-adhesion,rear focal adhesion,membrane protrusion.
D)cell body translocation,de-adhesion,rear focal adhesion,membrane protrusion,front focal adhesion.
Q2) What is the function of thymosin ?
Q3) All of the following statements about actin assembly are correct EXCEPT:
A)ATP-actin can assemble into filaments.
B)actin subunits can treadmill through an actin filament.
C)actin assembly can produce force for movement.
D)actin ( )ends assemble more rapidly than actin (+)ends.
Q4) The plasma membrane of eukaryotic cells is supported by:
A)actin filaments.
B)microtubules.
C)lamins.
D)intermediate filaments.
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Chapter 17: Cell Organization and Movement II:
Microtubules and Intermediate Filaments
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Q1) In studies of wound healing,it was noticed that when the cells at the edge are induced to polarize and move to fill the wound,the Golgi complex moves to the front of the nucleus toward the cell front.What is the purpose of this reorientation and how is it accomplished?
Q2) The region of a motor protein that interacts with the motor's cellular cargo is the: A)head domain.
B)tail domain.
C)rod domain.
D)light chains.
Q3) Which of the following is true about intermediate filaments?
A)They are named based on their location in cells between actin microfilaments and microtubules.
B)All cells express the same class II cytoplasmic intermediate filament proteins.
C)Staggered,antiparallel tetramers give intermediate filaments strength.
D)Acidic and basic keratins provide dynamic paths on which organelles may travel.
Q4) In most cells,where do all microtubules originate?
Q5) What is the role of the basal body in generating axoneme structure?
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Chapter 18: Regulating the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
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Q1) The stable attachment of sister kinetochores to microtubules emanating from opposite spindle poles is called:
A)merotelic attachment.
B)syntelic attachment.
C)amphitelic attachment.
D)monotelic attachment.
Q2) You perform an experiment where you prevent Cdc20 from binding to APC In a cell line that usually completes the cell cycle in 60 minutes.Your experiment prevents Cdc20 from binding to APC for 120 minutes,and then you fix and stain the DNA,securin,separase and cohesin proteins.Which of the following would NOT be found in the observed cell?
A)The cell would contain condensed chromosomes aligned at the metaphase plate.
B)Cohesins will be localized around the sister chromatids.
C)Securin would be bound to separase (appear to co-localize).
D)The DNA will be decondensed because the cell is in interphase.
Q3) Which of the following inhibit(s)cyclin A/Cdk2 activity?
A)INK4
B)p21
C)Rb
D)INK4 and Rb
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Chapter 19: Integrating Cells Into Tissues
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Q1) In a classic experiment,H.V.Wilson studied aggregation of mechanically dissociated individual sponge cells from two different species.He found that the cells of each species would adhere to one another but not to cells of the other species.Describe the factors involved in this species-specific aggregation.
Q2) Syndecans are cell-surface proteoglycans that:
A)bind to collagens.
B)bind to multi-adhesive matrix proteins.
C)anchor cells to the extracellular matrix.
D)all of the above
Q3) Basal lamina include all of the following,except:
A)type I collagen.
B)type IV collagen.
C)laminin.
D)nidogen.
Q4) What are the three unusually abundant amino acids in collagen?
Q5) What are the cytoskeletal proteins associated with hemidesmosomes?
Q6) EDTA is a divalent cation chelator.Propose an explanation for how EDTA promotes the dissociation of animal cell tissue?
Q7) What is a polarized epithelial cell?
Page 22
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Chapter 30: Cell Birth, Lineage, and Death
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Q1) Which of the following forms a dimer that gets displaced from the surface of the mitochondria by EGL-1?
A)CED-3
B)CED-4
C)CED-9
D)CED-8
Q2) Which of the following triggers apoptosis?
A)Fas ligand
B)NGF
C)TNF
D)Fas ligand and TNF
Q3) Which of the following is a feature that defines a cell dying in response to tissue damage (necrosis)?
A)The nucleus condenses and then fragments.
B)Small membrane bodies are released and then engulfed by other cells.
C)The cell shrinks.
D)none of the above
Q4) Describe how Cre recombinase is used in lineage-tracing studies to follow the fate of Lgr5 -expressing intestinal stem cells.
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Chapter 21: Nerve Cells
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Q1) Evidence that synaptotagmin is the Ca² sensor for exocytosis of neurotransmitters includes:
A)Ca² binding by synaptotagmin.
B)partial loss-of-function mutations of synaptotagmin in Drosophila and C.elegans that result in neurons that are defective in Ca² -stimulated vesicle exocytosis.
C)uncoordinated embryonic muscle contractions in Drosophila and c.elegans mutants that lack synaptotagmin.
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following represents a correct structure-function relationship for neurons?
A)cell body - sends signal to another cell
B)axon - contains the nucleus of the cell
C)dendrite - forms synapses with other neurons
D)axon termini - receive incoming signals
Q3) How are neurotransmitters packaged at synaptic endings for quantal release?
Q4) How do researchers measure ion movements through single channels?
Q5) How does opening and closing of voltage-gated cation channels occur?
Q6) What starts an action potential in a post-synaptic neuron?
Q7) Why do chili peppers seem hot?
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Immunology
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Q1) Explain why Bence-Jones proteins are different for different B-cell tumors from different patients but identical when isolated from a single tumor.
Q2) What roles do natural killer cells play in the innate immune response?
Q3) Cancer cells should be recognized by the immune system and destroyed.Which of the following cell and receptors combinations are often dysregulated in tumors?
A)colon cancer epithelial cells - CTLA-4
B)macrophages - class I MHC
C)Tregs - CD40
D)T cells - PD-1
Q4) Tear fluids and other secretions are rich in:
A)IgA.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
Q5) Activated CD4 T cells recognize an antigen-experienced B cell by means of:
A)the class I MHC-peptide complexes displayed by the B cell.
B)the class II MHC-peptide complexes displayed by the B cell.
C)both the class I and class II MHC-peptide complexes displayed by the B cells.
D)none of the above
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following is(are)a tumor suppressor gene?
A)APC
B)ras
C)Rb
D)APC and Rb
Q2) Nearly all malignant tumors possess a loss-of-function mutation in one or more cell cycle checkpoints.However,a loss of checkpoints is not a requisite characteristic of cancer cells per se.Explain this paradox.
Q3) The human papillomavirus E7 protein inhibits the function of:
A)p53.
B)Rb.
C)PDGF receptor.
D)all of the above
Q4) Which of the following is a proto-oncogene?
A)APC
B)myc
C)ptc1
D)Rb
Q5) Describe the differences between direct-acting and indirect-acting carcinogens.
26
Q6) How can DNA microarrays be used to detect gene amplifications in cancer cells?
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