Biotechnology Laboratory Techniques
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course provides hands-on training in fundamental and advanced laboratory techniques widely used in biotechnology. Students will develop practical skills in areas such as sterile technique, solution preparation, molecular cloning, DNA/RNA extraction, gel electrophoresis, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), protein isolation, and bioinformatics tools. Emphasis is placed on experimental design, accurate data collection, troubleshooting methods, and safe laboratory practices. Through a series of interactive experiments and projects, students gain experience in applying biotechnological methods to solve real-world problems in research, medicine, agriculture, and industry.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 14th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) The taxon that is composed of similar species that have several important features in common but differ sufficiently to still maintain their status as individual species is which one of the following?
A)Class
B)Order
C)Family
D)Genus
Answer: D
Q2) The difference between a subspecies and biotype is:
A)a subspecies has the same genetic makeup.
B)a subspecies has a differential expression of the same genes.
C)a subspecies is genetically different than the type species.
D)a biotype and subspecies are the same.
Answer: A
Q3) Taxonomy can be described as a system that:
A)classifies,names,and identifies microorganisms in a consistent manner.
B)classifies microorganisms,based on their genetic makeup.
C)classifies microorganisms,based on their phenotypic makeup.
D)classifies microorganisms,based on their cellular and colonial traits.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, metabolism, and Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pathway that generates ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation that does not require oxygen and produces various end products,including alcohols,acids,carbon dioxide,and hydrogen,is:
A)substrate-level phosphorylation.
B)fermentative metabolism.
C)oxidative phosphorylation.
D)aerobic respiration.
Answer: B
Q2) If a bacterial cell encounters unfavorable environmental conditions,then its metabolism will begin to slow until it eventually transforms into an inactive,dormant state.This survival mechanism is known as:
A)polymerization.
B)oxidation.
C)respiration.
D)sporulation.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) The major cells that function in the nonspecific immune response for the defense against microorganisms are:
A)dendritic cells.
B)macrophages.
C)lymphcytes.
D)polymorphonuclear cells.
Answer: D
Q2) Infectious processes that quickly develop are referred to as _________ infections.
A)chronic
B)latent
C)acute
D)nosocomial
Answer: C
Q3) Any microorganism capable of causing infection is considered: A)microbiota.
B)opportunistic.
C)pathogenic.
D)commensal.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary action in hand washing that prevents the distribution or transmission of microorganisms is:
A)the amount of soap used.
B)the temperature of the water.
C)the mechanical action of rubbing.
D)the chemical activities in the soap.
Q2) Class III biological safety cabinets:
A)sterilize the air as it passes over the material in the cabinet.
B)protect the environment from contamination by biological agents by filtering the air as it is exhausted from the cabinet.
C)are completely enclosed and have gloves that enable the worker to manipulate the material in the cabinet.
D)are often called laminar flow hoods.
Q3) The agency that has published guidelines regarding the packaging of biohazardous specimens is known as:
A)DHEC.
B)International Air Transport Association (IATA).
C)CDC.
D)EPA.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae appear -hemolytic on blood agar media.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The lot of blood agar may be expired.
B)Something may be wrong with the strain of S.pneumoniae since it should be -hemolytic on blood agar.
C)Something may be wrong with the strain of S.pneumoniae;it should be -hemolytic on blood agar.
D)No discrepancy is present.S.pneumoniae should be -hemolytic on blood agar.
Q2) An example of a selective medium for gram-positive organisms is:
A)MacConkey agar.
B)blood agar.
C)colistin and nalidixic acid.
D)thioglycollate broth.
Q3) Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose?
A)To determine the organism's genetic makeup
B)To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
C)To determine the type of flora in the throat and stool specimens
D)To determine the organism's colonial morphologic features
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The value of indirect Gram staining from a broth culture in comparison to a agar plate culture is:
A)there is no significant difference in the results of the indirect smear technique.
B)organisms tend to demonstrate natural cell shape and arrangement in liquid medium.
C)organisms tend to demonstrate more growth and easier visualization from agar plates.
D)none of the answers are correct.
Q2) When assessing the quality of a direct Gram stain,neutrophils should appear as:
A)cells with pink cytoplasm and darker more purplish nuclear lobes.
B)cells with pink cytoplasm and pink nuclear lobes.
C)cells with purple cytoplasm and pink nuclear lobes.
D)cells with purple cytoplasm and purple nuclear lobes.
Q3) The acid-fast stain is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain:
A)teichoic acids.
B)mycolic acids.
C)peptidoglycan.
D)disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which category of media would MacConkey agar best fit?
A)Selective
B)Differential
C)Selective and differential
D)Supportive only
Q2) Which medium can be described as containing hemoglobin,hemin (X factor),and the co-enzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)(V factor)?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA blood
C)BHI
D)Thioglycollate broth
Q3) Media prepared in the laboratory should be tested for quality using all of the following except:
A)check test organism viability for expected growth.
B)confirm identify of organism using Gram stain.
C)check the pH of the media.
D)record lot number.
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Which of the following steps are crucial for the success of a nucleic acid amplification test,such as PCR?
A)Nucleic acid purification
B)Fluorescent resonance energy transfer (FRET)
C)Melting temperature analysis
D)Nucleic acid sequencing
Q2) Isothermal amplification techniques,such as NASBA,utilize a single temperature for nucleic acid amplification thereby eliminating the need for thermal cycling instruments to precisely and quickly alter the reaction temperature.This often reduces the cost associated with molecular testing and infrastructure requirements.In what settings could this be advantageous?
A)Developing countries with limited health care facilities
B)Field clinics during military operations
C)Small clinics or hospitals without centralized laboratory facilities
D)Urgent care clinics or pharmacies for point-of-care diagnosis
E)All of the above
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Chapter 9: Overview of Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism Detection
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Q1) A positive test was observed on a serum sample that resulted in the formation of a fine precipitate on a reaction card.The most likely organism serologically identified is:
A)Chlamydia trachomatis.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Treponema pallidum.
D)Toxoplasma gondii.
Q2) The presence of which of the following antibodies usually indicates a recent or an active infection?
A)Immunoglobulin (Ig)G
B)IgA
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as a(n):
A)solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B)direct fluorescent antibody test.
C)indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D)radioimmunoassay.
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Chapter 10: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Klebsiella spp.were isolated from a sputum sample,and susceptibility testing was performed.The isolates were sensitive to several antibiotics;however,they were resistant to ampicillin.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The ampicillin disk is most likely expired.
B)Because Klebsiella spp.should be sensitive to ampicillin,a technical error is to blame.
C)Ampicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis.In addition,because Klebsiella spp.do not have a cell wall,they should not have been tested for ampicillin.
D)No discrepancy is present;Klebsiella spp.are normally resistant to ampicillin.
Q2) Antimicrobial agents that inhibit bacterial growth but generally do not kill the organism are known as:
A)bactericidal.
B)antibiotic.
C)bacteriostatic.
D)antagonistic.
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Chapter 11: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The serum bactericidal test (SBT)involves:
A)serial dilutions of antimicrobials in cation-adjusted Mueller-Hinton broth.
B)99.9% reduction in CFU/mL,compared with the organism concentration in the original inoculum.
C)using the patient's serum to detect its bacteriostatic and bactericidal activity.
D)subculturing the tubes of a completed broth dilution test showing no visible growth.
Q2) What action should be taken for any isolate found to be nonsusceptible (NS)to a particular antimicrobial agent?
A)No additional action is needed,as these results can occur with any organism.
B)Organism's identification and susceptibility test results should be confirmed.
C)The patient report should indicate the isolate is resistant to the antimicrobial.
D)Patient's physician should be contacted and advised that effectiveness of this antimicrobial against the isolate cannot be judged by in vitro testing.
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Chapter 12: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive,catalase-positive cocci would likely be the:
A)penicillin test.
B)Gram stain.
C)oxidase test.
D)coagulase test.
Q2) Isolates of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus from urinary tract infections can be presumptively identified as S.saprophyticus on the basis of its:
A)penicillin susceptibility.
B)novobiocin resistance.
C)penicillin resistance.
D)novobiocin susceptibility.
Q3) Which of the following methods combines nucleic acid amplification testing and mass spectrometry (MS)for identification of S.aureus and MRSA?
A)Serodiagnosis
B)CHROMagar
C)The Xpert MRSA/SA test
D)PCR/ESI-MS
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Chapter 13: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Generally speaking,nutritionally variant streptococci require what ingredient not found in most conventional media?
A)Vitamin B
B)Nalidixic acid and its components
C)Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)enrichment
D)Blood or blood products
Q2) Which species of bacteria is responsible for causing diseases such as rheumatic fever,glomerulonephritis,and exudative pharyngitis?
A)Streptococcus agalactiae
B)S.pyogenes
C)S.pneumoniae
D)Enterococcus
Q3) What morphologic feature is a major consideration in determining an identification scheme for streptococci?
A)Colony shape and color
B)Hemolytic pattern
C)Smell
D)Consistency
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Chapter 14: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A patient diagnosed with B.anthracis is allergic to penicillin.Which antibiotic can be given that will be therapeutically effective?
A)Ampicillin
B)Ciprofloxacin
C)Imipenem
D)Vancomycin
Q2) Media that can be used for isolating Bacillus anthracis include:
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)Columbia blood agar with colistin-nalidixic acid (CNA).
Q3) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A)5% sheep blood
B)PLET acetate
C)bicarbonate
D)urea
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Chapter 15: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control is set up on urea media.Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of the media?
A)C.ulcerans and C.diphtheria
B)C.diphtheria and Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)C.ulcerans and Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
D)C.glucuronolyticum and C.ulcerans
Q2) The isolation of a small gram-positive,catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for:
A)listeriosis.
B)diphtheria.
C)pertussis.
D)tetanus.
Q3) Bacteria described as being coryneform have which of the following morphologic features?
A)Squared rods with squared ends arranged in pairs
B)Short gram-positive cocci in branching chains
C)Resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)Long branching gram-positive bacilli
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Erysipelothrix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative,non-spore forming,nonbranching,gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into triple sugar iron (TSI)agar is most likely:
A)Corynebacterium.
B)Bacillus.
C)Actinomyces.
D)Erysipelothrix.
Q2) The wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis will reveal large:
A)squamous epithelial cells with numerous attached pleomorphic gram-variable or gram-negative coccobacilli and rods.
B)numbers of large gram-positive rods.
C)numbers of polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D)pleomorphic gram-negative rods with many leukocytes.
Q3) Clue cells are associated with which gram-positive bacilli?
A)G.vaginalis
B)Lactobacillus
C)Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D)A.haemolyticum
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Chapter 17: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface,which are called _____ hyphae.
A)surface
B)substrate
C)aerial
D)topical
Q2) Which partially acid-fast,gram-positive,and branching filamentous bacteria appear dry and white to creamy to orange with rhizoid edges on routine agar and are urea-positive and resistant to lysozyme?
A)Tsukamurella
B)Gordonia
C)Actinomadura
D)Dermatophilus
Q3) Non-acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes include:
A)Nocardia.
B)Rhodococcus.
C)Streptomyces.
D)Gordona.
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Chapter 18: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be presumptively identified on the basis of a positive indole test is:
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B)Proteus vulgaris.
C)Enterobacter aerogenes.
D)Shigella sonnei.
Q2) The major etiologic agent of urinary tract infections is:
A)E.coli.
B)Shigella spp.
C)Salmonella spp.
D)Vibrio spp.
Q3) Of the following bacterial species,which is associated with a serious diarrheal illness with high mortality rates among some populations?
A)E.coli
B)Shigella spp.
C)Salmonella spp.
D)Vibrio spp.
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Chapter 19: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are:
A)Bordetella spp.
B)S.maltophilia.
C)Acinetobacter spp.
D)P.oryzihabitans.
Q2) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by S.maltophilia is:
A)a -lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
B)trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C)ticarcillin and clavulanic acid.
D)chloramphenicol.
Q3) Which organism may be mistaken for a lactose fermenter on MacConkey agar because of colonies exhibiting a purple hue on the media?
A)Acinetobacter spp.
B)P.luteola
C)S.maltophilia
D)Bordetella holmesii
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organism exhibits bipolar staining on the Gram stain,which resembles a "safety-pin" appearance?
A)B.mallei
B)B.pseudomallei
C)B.diminuta
D)B.vesicularis
Q2) A weakly oxidase-positive,nonfermenting gram-negative rod is isolated from respiratory sample.Traditional biochemical reactions include: arginine dihydrolase-negative;lysine decarboxylase-positive;gelatin liquefaction-positive;oxidizes lactose and glucose.
A)B.cepacia
B)B.vesicularis
C)P.aeruginosa
D)Pandoraea spp.
Q3) Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A)Burkholderia ralstonia
B)B.pseudomallei
C)B.mallei
D)B.cepacia
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which nonlactose-fermenting organism,that rarely causes human infection,grows poorly at 35°C;however,grows optimally between 20°C and 25°C?
A)Psychrobacter pulmonis
B)A.xylosoxidans
C)R.radiobacter
D)S.putrefaciens
Q2) Although validated susceptibility testing methods do not exist for this group of organisms,in vitro data suggest that certain cephalosporins and aminoglycosides are effective against which one of the following groups of organisms?
A)O.anthropi
B)S.putrefaciens
C)P.yeei
D)R.radiobacter
Q3) The most common type of infection caused by both R.radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia.
Page 23
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Q1) Decontamination strategies used for potable water and the control of E.meningoseptica are similar to those utilized for which organism?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Legionella spp.
Q2) Quality control was performed to determine the validity of urea agar.S.multivorum and E.meningoseptica were used,which yielded positive for S.multivorum and negative for E.meningoseptica.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The urea agar is most likely expired.
B)The pH is off on the urea agar.
C)These two organisms are poor choices for quality control because they are both urea positive.
D)No discrepancy is present;the results are valid.
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Chapter 23: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Gram-stain morphologic features,motility,and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:
A)Chryseobacterium.
B)Flavobacterium.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Bordetella.
Q2) The organism most frequently associated with various infections in humans is:
A)Bordetella.
B)Oligella.
C)Achromobacter.
D)Roseomonas.
Q3) Quality control is set up to determine the validity of cetrimide agar.Which two organisms should be used?
A)B.bronchiseptica and Cupriavidus pauculus
B)A.denitrificans and Alcaligenes faecalis
C)Achromobacter piechaudii and B.bronchiseptica
D)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Alcaligenes-like group 1 and C.pauculus
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Chapter 24: Vibrio, aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) V.cholerae and Photobacterium damsela are used to perform quality control on TCBS agar.After overnight incubation,no growth is observed.What is the next course of action?
A)Reinoculate the TCBS agar,and incubate for 36 hours.
B)Check the pH to ensure that it is 8.6.
C)Reincubate the plates for another 24 hours.
D)These two organisms are poor choices for quality control on TCBS agar.
Q2) Transmission of Aeromonas spp.to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q3) The transmission of Vibrio spp.to humans is by:
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections,which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?
A)Penicillin
B)Ttrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Amoxicillin and Flagyl
D)Isoniazid and Imipenem
Q2) Oxidase-positive,glucose-positive (oxidatively)gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include:
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax,Sphingobacterium,and Sphingomonas?
A)Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)Habitats are unknown.
C)Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Moraxella
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Q1) The virulence of this organism(s),which is transmitted via a dog bite,is attributed to:
A)protease production.
B)various toxins.
C)hemolysins.
D)something unknown.
Q2) The species of Moraxella that is most commonly associated with human infections,primarily of the respiratory tract,is:
A)M.catarrhalis.
B)Moraxella lacunata.
C)Moraxella canis.
D)Moraxella atlantae.
Q3) True cocci,such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella catarrhalis,can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by:
A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)identifying the resistance of Moraxella to many -lactam antimicrobial agents.
D)performing the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)test.
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Chapter 27: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) E.corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by its:
A)pink pigmentation.
B)grapelike odor.
C)large spreading colonial morphologic characteristic.
D)bleachlike odor.
Q2) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A)E.corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B)W.virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C)B.zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D)E.corrodens and W.virosa
Q3) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase,indole,and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A)E.corrodens
B)W.virosa
C)P.maltophilia
D)S.paucimobilis
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Chapter 28: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and transmitted to humans during close animal contact,including bites?
A)S.paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)P.multocida
D)W.virosa
Q2) Which test is used to differentiate P.multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A)Indole
B)Catalase
C)Nitrate
D)Sucrose
Q3) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin,it is the drug of choice for infections involving:
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
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Chapter 29: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is slightly a-hemolytic after 48 hours and is commonly associated with individuals with anatomic heart defects?
A)K.kingae
B)C.hominis
C)A.suis
D)Capnocytophaga spp.
Q2) Of the following organisms,which one is among the Aggregatibacter aphrophilus,Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans,Cardiobacterium hominis,Eikenella corrodens,and Kingella spp.(HACEK)group of organisms that cause slowly progressive bacterial endocarditis?
A)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
B)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
C)E.corrodens
D)A.actinomycetemcomitans
Q3) To test the validity of catalase reagent,which two organisms should be used?
A)A.actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B)C.hominis and A.aphrophilus
C)K.denitrificans and K.kingae
D)Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Haemophilus
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Q1) To increase the sensitivity of direct Gram-stain examination of body fluid specimens,the specimens are usually:
A)incubated for 18 to 24 hours before staining.
B)centrifuged before staining.
C)examined for at least 1 hour.
D)stained for an additional 5 minutes.
Q2) A 6-year-old boy was diagnosed with purulent conjunctivitis caused by a species of Haemophilus.What would the biochemical profile of the organism be?
A)Growth requirements require both X and V factors;the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
B)Growth requirements require both X and V factors;the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
C)Growth requirements require V factor;the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
D)Growth requirements require X factor;the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
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Chapter 31: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bartonella spp.are usually detected by the examination of biopsy using which stain?
A)Gram stain
B)Wright's stain
C)Trichrome stain
D)Warthin-Starry silver stain
Q2) Although molecular methods are available,such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species,limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of: A)probes.
B)polymerases.
C)primers.
D)restriction enzymes.
Q3) Bacteremia,endocarditis,bacillary angiomatosis,cat-scratch disease,and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:
A)Afipia felis.
B)Bartonella quintana.
C)B.clarridgeiae.
D)B.henselae.
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Chapter 32: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Which of the following genes may attribute to the virulence of H.pylori by encoding for outer membrane proteins that mediate adherence to a specific blood group antigen on the surface of gastric epithelial cells?
A)babA
B)iceA
C)cagA
D)vacA
Q2) Campylobacter jejuni subsp.jejuni grows best at what conditions?
A)37°C under microaerobic conditions
B)37°C under anaerobic conditions
C)42°C under microaerobic conditions
D)42°C under anaerobic conditions
Q3) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram-stain examination of fecal sample,which would reveal many:
A)large,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump,faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Legionella
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Q1) An elderly man with chronic heart and lung disease develops Legionella pneumonia.By what route was the infection most likely to have been acquired?
A)Respiratory route,from an infected person
B)Inhalation of aerosolized water from a source containing protozoa
C)Inhalation of spores from moldy hay
D)Exposure to livestock or animal products
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)faintly staining,thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) A direct immunofluorescent antibody (DFA)test was performed on a sputum sample that yielded a positive test.The organism grew on BCYE medium and was a thin gram-negative,faintly staining bacillus.What is the drug of choice for this organism?
A)Fluoroquinolones
B)Erythromycin
C)Penicillin
D)Aminoglycosides
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Brucella
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Q1) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable,which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A)Penicillin and azithromycin
B)Ampicillin and gentamycin
C)Doxycycline and rifampin
D)Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q2) Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
A)dairy farmers.
B)fishermen.
C)prison guards.
D)those working with exotic birds.
Q3) The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is:
A)cattle.
B)sheep or goats.
C)swine.
D)dogs.
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Chapter 35: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) If real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is performed on a Bordetella isolate,then it must be noted that this type of swab is unacceptable for collection because of the presence of which of the following inhibitory factors?
A)Dacron
B)Cotton
C)Rayon
D)Calcium alginate
Q2) Acceptable specimens for the detection of B.pertussis are:
A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swabs.
Q3) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis,symptoms are:
A)runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
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Chapter 36: Francisella
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Q1) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory,a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
Q2) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A)is oxidase-negative.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D)does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
Q3) Tularemia,characterized by glandular,ulceroglandular,oculoglandular,oropharyngeal,systemic,and pneumonic presentations,is caused by which of the following species?
A)Brucella
B)Bordetella
C)Pasteurella
D)Francisella
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Chapter 37: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Which of the following cause rat-bite fever,or Haverhill fever,which is characterized by acute onset of chills,fever,headache,vomiting,and severe joint pains,as well as a rash on the palms,soles of the feet,and other extremities?
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis
B)Brucella abortus
C)Bordetella spp.
D)Pasteurella spp.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired Spirillum minus is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A)sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)monillic fever.
D)monillic gastritis.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) N.gonorrhoeae is spread by:
A)person-to-person nosocomial spread by respiratory droplets.
B)person-to-person spread by sexual contact.
C)from infected mother to newborn during birth.
D)B and C only.
Q2) The JEMBEC transport system for Neisseria spp.provides an atmosphere with increased _________ to keep the organism viable during transport.
A)hydrogen (H )
B)carbon dioxide (CO )
C)nitrogen (N )
D)nitrate (NO )
Q3) The gram-negative coccus that can be described as oxidase-positive,glucose-negative,maltose-negative,sucrose-negative,lactose-negativ e,and DNase-positive is:
A)N.meningitidis.
B)M.catarrhalis.
C)Neisseria cinerea.
D)N.gonorrhoeae.
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Chapter 39: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Egg-yolk agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q2) Urine via catheter is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
Q3) LKV blood agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective;supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q4) Aspiration of peritoneal fluid using a needle and syringe is:
A)acceptable.
B)not acceptable.
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Chapter 40: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) The most likely identification of kanamycin-sensitive and anaerobic gram-negative bacilli that fluoresce a chartreuse color is:
A)Fusobacterium spp.
B)nonpigmented Prevotella.
C)B.ureolyticus.
D)Porphyromonas spp.
Q2) The most likely identification of an anaerobic gram-negative bacilli that will fluoresce brick red or has a brown-to-black-pigment is:
A)nonpigmented Prevotella.
B)Porphyromonas spp.
C)B.fragilis group.
D)Fusobacterium spp.
Q3) B.fragilis group
A)Are kanamycin-resistant,colistin-resistant,and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)Are bile-sensitive,kanamycin-resistant,catalase-negative,and indole-negative
C)Fluoresce brick red or have a brown-to-black pigment
D)Reduces nitrate,and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)Are sensitive to kanamycin,and fluoresce a chartreuse color
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Mycobacteria
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Q1) Which of the following species of Mycobacterium causes a chronic disease of the skin,mucous membranes,and nerve tissue but has not yet been cultivated in vitro?
A)M.paratuberculosis
B)M.lepraemurium
C)M.phlei
D)M.leprae
Q2) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH),Zephiran-trisodium phosphate,N-acetyl-L-cysteine-NaOH (NALC-NaOH),and oxalic acid are associated with:
A)methods of cultivating Mycobacterium in vitro.
B)digestion and decontamination of specimens for mycobacterial studies.
C)identification of clinically significant Mycobacterium.
D)antimicrobial susceptibility testing of mycobacterial species.
Q3) Negative mycobacterial cultures are reported final and the cultures are discarded after what period?
A)7 days
B)2 weeks
C)4 weeks
D)8 weeks
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Chapter 42: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The drug of choice for the treatment of granuloma inguinale,which is a major cause of genital ulcers in India,New Guinea,and part of South America,is:
A)clindamycin.
B)doxycycline.
C)imipenem.
D)gentamycin.
Q2) The C.burnetii,an acute systemic infection,primarily affects the lungs and can exist in two antigenic states.The reference method that is both highly specific and sensitive and is recommended for identification is:
A)immunofluorescent antibody (IFA).
B)direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C)Western blot.
D)latex agglutination.
Q3) The most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is:
A)Rickettsia rickettsii.
B)Chlamydia trachomatis.
C)Klebsiella granulomatis.
D)Coxiella burnetii.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma genitalium
Q2) Quality control is set up to test urea agar.M.genitalium and M.hominis are used;however,both organisms are negative for urease activity.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A)The urea agar is most likely expired.
B)The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.
C)A technical error has occurred.
D)These two organisms are poor choices for quality control of urea agar.
Q3) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
Page 45
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Chapter 44: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Erythrocytes
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q2) Systemic symptoms,such as fever,weight loss,malaise,and a loss of appetite,along with a widespread rash,can be observed in patients suffering from _________ syphilis.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)latent
Q3) Nontreponemal antibodies are those that are:
A)produced against antigens of the organisms themselves.
B)produced by infected patients against components of mammalian cells.
C)produced by the organism that causes the systemic destruction of the disease.
D)also called heterophile antibodies.
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Chapter 45: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Parasitology
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Q1) Which of the following intestinal parasites is found in humans and also in pigs?
A)G.lamblia
B)D.fragilis
C)Cryptosporidium spp.
D)Balantidium coli
Q2) A medical laboratory scientist (MLS)is examining a thin blood film from a patient suspected of having a Plasmodium infection.After examining the slide for 5 minutes and viewing approximately 100 oil immersion fields,the MLS does not observe any structures associated with Plasmodium.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The stain may have been contaminated.
B)The MLS should have examined each field under high dry magnification;therefore the magnification is not correct.
C)The MLS may have missed the organism;more than 300 fields should be viewed.
D)No discrepancy is present.Plasmodium spp.are not found in blood;therefore the results are accurate.
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Chapter 46: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) Which of the following flagellates has a single nucleus in the cyst and the typical curved,cytostomal fibril,which is called a shepherd's crook?
A)G.duodenalis
B)C.mesnili
C)D.fragilis
D)E.hominis
Q2) The cyst form of Balantidium coli is the infective stage.It has one large kidney-shaped macronucleus and one small,round micronucleus.The troph is quite large,measuring 50 to 150 µm in length and 40 to 70 µm in width.What single feature is associated with this organism?
A)Falling leaf motility
B)Shepherd's crook
C)Presence of oocytes
D)Cilia covering the troph
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Chapter 47: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) T.brucei rhodesiense
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
Q2) The most frequent clinical signs of chronic Chagas disease involve the enlargement of which organ?
A)Heart
B)Liver
C)Spleen
D)Lung
Q3) A thick ring,large nucleus,and bands across the cell and 6 to 12 merozoites in a mature schizont are all characteristics of which Plasmodium spp.?
A)P.vivax
B)P.ovale
C)P.falciparum
D)P.malariae
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Chapter 48: Protozoa From Other Body Sites
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Q1) Laboratory diagnosis of T.gondii is confirmed by:
A)Giemsa stain.
B)tissue culture.
C)serologic testing.
D)Western blot.
Q2) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
Q3) A 15-year-old male was diving in a lake when he inhaled some of the stagnate water.Five days later he was admitted to the hospital,comatose,and in critical condition.A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)specimen was taken,and several motile amoebae were observed.The patient would most likely be diagnosed with which of the following conditions?
A)Granulomatous amebic encephalitis
B)Primary amebic meningoencephalitis
C)Secondary amebic encephalitis
D)Chronic granulomatous meningitis
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Chapter 49: Intestinal Nematodes
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Q1) Direct penetration of which of the following worms results in tissue damage at the site of attachment,blood loss,and an acute gastrointestinal phase demonstrated by an increased eosinophilia?
A)Whipworm
B)Pinworm
C)Threadworm
D)Hookworm
Q2) The eggs of the A.lumbricoides worm are ingested and hatched in the duodenum,penetrate the intestinal wall,and migrate to the hepatic portal circulation.Its geographic distribution and infection rate are associated with:
A)institutional crowding.
B)poor sanitation.
C)day care centers.
D)moist warm soil.
Q3) The most common and largest roundworm encountered is:
A)Trichuris trichiura.
B)Strongyloides stercoralis.
C)Ascaris lumbricoides.
D)Necator americanus.
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Chapter 50: Tissue Nematodes
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Q1) Systemic involvement is rare in infection caused by Ancylostoma braziliense or Ancylostoma caninum;however,pneumonitis may occur.The antihelminthic therapy used to treat this infection is:
A)ivermectin or thiabendazole.
B)metronidazole or thiabendazole.
C)mebendazole or ivermectin.
D)albendazole or diethylcarbamazine.
Q2) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q3) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?
A)Presence of adult worms in the feces
B)Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy
C)Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin
D)Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces
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Chapter 51: Blood Nematodes
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Q1) Mansonella spp.
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q2) O.volvulus
A)Tabanid fly
B)Biting midges
C)Anopheles mosquito
D)Black fly
Q3) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made,and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:
A)W.bancrofti.
B)Onchocerca volvulus.
C)Loa loa.
D)Brugia malayi.
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53
Chapter 52: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The mode of infection for which of the following organisms is the ingestion of cysticercoid in an infected arthropod or by the direct ingestion of the egg? Autoinfection may also occur.
A)D.latum
B)Hymenolepis nana
C)Taenia saginata
D)Taenia solium
Q2) The T.solium organism,which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long,contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is:
A)dogs.
B)cats.
C)pigs.
D)cattle.
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Chapter 53: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) In E.granulosus infections,the hydatid cysts usually occur in which organ?
A)Stomach
B)Brain
C)Intestines
D)Liver
Q2) Epileptic seizures,headaches,and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A)positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B)observance of eggs in the stool.
C)positive India ink stain.
D)identification of cysts in tissue.
Q3) The Taenia multiceps tapeworm is 5 to 6 cm long and consists of 200 to 250 segments.It has four suckers in its scolex and a proboscis with 22 to 32 hooks arranged in two rows.This organism causes which condition?
A)Coenurosis
B)Cysticercosis
C)Hydatid disease
D)Sparganosis
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55
Chapter 54: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The adult form of the fluke,Fasciolopsis buski,is elongated in shape and ranges from 20 to 75 mm long and 8 to 20 mm wide with an oral sucker at the anterior and a ventral sucker approximately midway to the posterior.The reservoir host for the fluke is: A)snails.
B)birds.
C)rodents. D)dogs.
Q2) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater: A)fish.
B)snails.
C)crabs. D)crayfish.
Q3) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm,which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore,has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs,cats,and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater: A)snails. B)fish.
C)crabs.
D)shrimp.
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Chapter 55: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Southeast Asian liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
Q2) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?
A)Snail
B)Crustacean
C)Copepod
D)Freshwater fish
Q3) Sheep liver fluke
A)O.viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)C.(Opisthorchis)sinensis
D)P.westermani
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Chapter 56: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) The only intermediate host required in the life cycle of blood flukes is a:
A)copepod.
B)crustacean.
C)freshwater snail.
D)freshwater fish.
Q2) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A)Schistosoma mansoni
B)Schistosoma japonicum
C)S.haematobium
D)Schistosoma mekongi
Q3) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 µm long by 40 to 70 µm wide and have a sharp,pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?
A)Ascites fluid
B)Sputum
C)Bile
D)Urine
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Chapter 57: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) All mold cultures and clinical samples should always be handled in a Class _____ level biosafety cabinet.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q2) A 28-year-old woman was gardening when a rose thorn pricked her finger,which later became infected.A sample is taken of the exudate and sent to the microbiology laboratory.Small,round,cigar-shaped structures are microscopically observed.She is most likely infected with which type of fungi?
A)Malassezia furfur
B)H.capsulatum
C)S.schenckii
D)Fonsecaea pedrosoi
Q3) The mode of transmission for most of the dimorphic fungi is:
A)inoculation.
B)inhalation.
C)arthropod.
D)blood.
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Chapter 58:
Hyaline Molds, Zygomycetes, Dermatophytes, and Opportunistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Single bud connected to the parent cell by broad base
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) Yeastlike cells with internal cross walls
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)H.capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Talaromyces marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q3) Which dermatophyte usually fluoresces yellow-green under a Wood's lamp?
A)Microsporum gypseum
B)Trichophyton verrucosum
C)Microsporum audouinii
D)Epidermophyton floccosum
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Dematiaceious Molds
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Q1) Mycetoma is a subcutaneous infection that involves the lower extremities but may also occur in any part of the body.Swelling,purplish discoloration,and tumorlike deformities of the subcutaneous tissue are all symptoms associated with mycetoma.Which organism can cause this disease?
A)Bipolaris spp.
B)Exserohilum spp.
C)Pseudallescheria boydii
D)Exophiala dermatitidis
Q2) White grain mycetoma
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q3) Tinea nigra
A)E.jeanselmei
B)P.boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)H.werneckii
E)Alternaria
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Chapter 60: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pjirovecii
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Q1) In patients who do not have HIV,which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?
A)Malaria
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Cytomegalovirus
D)Myasthenia gravis
Q2) Which form is considered diagnostic in the life cycle of Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A)Bradyzoite
B)Trophozoite
C)Sporocyte
D)Cyst
Q3) Which therapy has decreased the incident of pneumocystis infection in patients with human immunodeficiency virus or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS)?
A)Metronidazole
B)Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C)Aminoglycosides with fluconazole
D)Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
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Chapter 61: The Yeasts
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Q1) Blood cultures are drawn on a patient suspected of having a fungemia.Positive cultures reveal the presence of chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar.In addition,the yeast is germ tube positive.The most likely identification of the fungal agent is:
A)C.glabrata.
B)C.tropicalis.
C)C.neoformans.
D)C.albicans.
Q2) In general,yeast reproduces asexually by the formation of: A)ascospores.
B)basidiospores.
C)blastoconidia. D)arthroconidia.
Q3) A patient with diabetes is experiencing creamy patches on his tongue and mucous membranes.Cultures are performed,and yeast is recovered.His diagnosis is most likely: A)paronychia.
B)onychomycosis. C)candidemia. D)thrush.
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Chapter 62: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) Is a glucan synthesis inhibitor
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) The Reference Method for Broth Dilution Antifungal Susceptibility Testing of Filamentous Fungi;Approved Standard (M38-A2)describes the guidelines for antifungal susceptibility testing for molds.The suspension must be standardized with a spectrophotometer.Susceptibility testing is determined by which method?
A)Disk diffusion
B)Microdilution
C)Broth dilution
D)Immunodiffusion
Q3) Inhibits protein synthesis
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 63: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Skin and mucous membranes
A)Varicella-zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q2) Amie's,Leibovitz-Emory,and Stuart's are all types of:
A)cell lines.
B)cell culture media.
C)automated systems.
D)transport media.
Q3) The specimen of choice to collect in suspected cases of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)is:
A)buccal mucosa.
B)sputum.
C)throat.
D)nasopharyngeal.
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Page 65
Chapter 64: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) Fever and leukopenia
A)Yellow fever
B)Dengue fever
C)West Nile virus
D)Hepatitis C
Q2) Hand-foot-mouth
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
Q3) Which of the following patterns of markers is a normal immune response after recovery from a hepatitis B viral (HBV)infection?
A)Negative hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg);negative hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBcAb);and negative hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBsAb)
B)Positive HBsAg;negative anti-HBcAb;and negative anti-HBsAb
C)Positive HBsAg;positive HBeAg (hepatitis Be antigen);and negative anti-HBsAb
D)Negative HBsAg;positive anti-HBcAb;and positive anti-HBsAb
Q4) Pleurodynia
A)Coxsackie A
B)Coxsackie B
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Page 66
Chapter 65: Antiviral Therapy Susceptibility Testing and Prevention
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Q1) When performing antiviral susceptibility testing,a standard inoculum must be used.If the inoculum quantity is too large,then the isolate will appear:
A)susceptible.
B)intermediate.
C)resistant.
D)indeterminate.
Q2) Emtricitabine
A)HSV
B)Influenza A
C)Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
D)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
E)HIV
Q3) Inhibits viral DNA synthesis.
A)Phenotypic assay
B)Plaque reduction assay
C)Du assay
D)Flow cytometry
E)Genotypic susceptibility assay
F)Pyrosequencing
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Chapter 66: Bloodstream Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 36-year-old emergency medical technician (EMT)is exposed to a patient with brucellosis.Blood cultures are drawn from the EMT and reported as negative after 1 week.Which of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A)The blood culture system is most likely not correctly functioning.
B)Brucella does not grow in the blood.
C)The blood culture bottles are most likely expired.
D)The blood should have been incubated for a minimum of 3 weeks.
Q2) The possibility of an abscess should be considered if this bacterial group is isolated in the blood:
A)Clostridium septicum.
B)Bacteroides fragilis.
C)Streptococcus anginosus.
D)Aeromonas hydrophila.
Q3) Patients receiving lipid-supplemented parenteral nutrition are at risk for developing fungemia caused by which organism?
A)Histoplasma capsulatum
B)Malassezia furfur
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Candida albicans
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Page 68
Chapter 67: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) One of the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in school-age children (5 to 14 years of age)is:
A)H.influenzae type B.
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)M.pneumoniae.
Q2) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age is:
A)C.pneumoniae.
B)M.pneumoniae.
C)S.pneumoniae.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
Q3) The sputum of a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)is stained with Kinyoun's carbolfuchsin stain.Which organism would test positive using this stain?
A)Streptomyces spp.
B)Pneumocystis jiroveci
C)S.aureus
D)Cryptosporidium spp.
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Chapter 68: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) An inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane or lining caused mostly by viruses and characterized by fever,increased mucous secretions,inflammatory edema of the nasal mucosa,sneezing,and watery eyes is:
A)epiglottitis.
B)pharyngitis.
C)Vincent angina. D)rhinitis.
Q2) Laryngotracheobronchitis
A)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,rhinovirus,and other viruses
B)Influenza virus,parainfluenza virus,Mycoplasma
C)H.influenza
D)S.pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium,Bacteroides,and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Chapter 69: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous Systems
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Q1) The innermost membrane layer surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q2) The most common source(s)of infection in the central nervous system (CNS)is(are): A)hematogenous spread.
B)infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C)organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in CNS structures.
D)bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
Q3) The outermost layer of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the: A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
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Chapter 70: Infections of the Eyes ears and Sinuses
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Q1) Orbital cellulitis
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
Q2) Trachoma
A)H.influenzae and S.pneumoniae
B)Bacteria,viruses,and occasionally lice
C)S.aureus,S.pneumoniae,and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium,including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S.aureus and S.pyogenes
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Chapter 71: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Acute urethral syndrome
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria,frequency,and urgency,but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma,calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis),and pelvis
Q2) The resident microflora that can colonize the bladder and other structures of the urinary tract are:
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)yeast.
C)Propionibacterium acnes.
D)Corynebacteria.
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Chapter 72: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) A culture performed on a vaginal specimen collected from a 60-year-old woman would likely grow primarily:
A)group B -hemolytic streptococci.
B)staphylococci and corynebacteria.
C)Enterobacteriaceae,streptococci,staphylococci,lactobacilli,and anaerobes.
D)G.vaginalis,Prevotella spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,and Mobiluncus spp.
Q2) A culture performed on a vaginal specimen collected from a 38-year-old woman would likely grow primarily:
A)group B -hemolytic streptococci.
B)staphylococci and corynebacteria.
C)lactobacilli,Enterobacteriaceae,streptococci,and staphylococci.
D)G.vaginalis,Prevotella spp. ,Peptostreptococcus spp. ,and Mobiluncus spp.
Q3) An infection of the uterus and its contents during pregnancy is called:
A)PID.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)chorioamnionitis.
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Chapter 73: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of:
A)anaerobic species.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Enterococcus.
D)Enterobacteriaceae.
Q2) Sheep blood agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella,Aeromonas,and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be incubated in:
A)a capnophilic atmosphere at 42°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B)a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C)regular room air at 35°C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D)a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42°C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Skin soft Tissue and Wound Infections
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Q1) Folliculitis,furuncles,and carbuncles are localized abscesses either in or around hair follicles.Which organism is the most common etiologic agent for all three infections?
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B)Staphylococcus epidermidis
C)Escherichia coli
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q2) If a Wood's lamp examination of skin lesions reveals a golden-yellow fluorescence,then what superficial mycoses are expected?
A)Malassezia furfur
B)Trichosporon spp.
C)Candida albicans
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
Q3) An abscess that begins as a red nodule in a hair follicle that ultimately becomes painful and full of pus is a:
A)folliculitis.
B)furuncle.
C)carbuncle.
D)erythrasma.
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Chapter 75: Normally Sterile Body Fluids, Bone and Bone
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is:
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q2) Any tissues received in the clinical microbiology laboratory should be minced and homogenized in a biosafety cabinet.If lung tissue is sent and processed,then which organism should be examined using direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)testing?
A)Listeria
B)Legionella
C)Leishmania
D)Leptospira
Q3) The proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is:
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Page 77
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Chapter 76: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Define,measure,analyze,improve,and control (DMAIC)are the basis for which new concept?
A)Total Quality Management
B)Continuous Quality Improvement
C)Performance Improvement
D)Six Sigma
Q2) Test performance,tolerance limits,reagent preparation,required quality control,result reporting,and references are areas included in the:
A)Total Quality Management Manual.
B)Standard Operating Procedure Manual (SOPM).
C)Continuous Quality Improvement Manual.
D)Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)Manual.
Q3) Challenging the wasted steps and eliminating all of the waste
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
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Chapter 77: Infection Control
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Q1) The classification of a surgical wound as dirty refers to a:
A)lack of cleanliness of the surgical instruments.
B)surgical wound in an emergency setting in which the cleansing protocol was not followed.
C)surgical wound that has become grossly infected.
D)large number of contaminating organisms at the wound site.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of serologic typing of bacterial or viral antigens,such as bacterial cell wall antigens of the organism of interest,is:
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriophage typing.
Q3) A patient should be placed in a private room that has monitored negative air pressure if he or she is infected with which organism?
A)H.influenzae
B)Mycoplasma pneumonia
C)Parvovirus B19
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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Page 79
Chapter 78: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network,confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A)Clinical
B)Sentinel
C)Reference
D)National
Q2) The act of using microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally is referred to as:
A)biosecurity.
B)bio crime.
C)microterrorism.
D)cactiterrorism.
Q3) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A)covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)covert event is announced,and an overt event is not announced.
C)overt event is announced,and a covert event is not announced.
D)overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
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