Biotechnology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Biotechnology is an interdisciplinary course that explores the application of biological systems, organisms, and processes to develop products and technologies for various fields, including healthcare, agriculture, and industry. Students will examine the fundamentals of molecular biology, genetic engineering, and bioprocessing, gaining insights into how living cells and biomolecules are manipulated to address real-world problems. The course emphasizes both theoretical concepts and practical skills, preparing students to understand biotechnological innovations and their ethical, legal, and social implications in modern society.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a DNA molecule, one end has a free hydroxyl group and one end has a free
A) phosphate group
B) hydroxyl group
C) amino group
D) carboxyl group
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a purine?
A) Thymine
B) Cytosine
C) Adenine
D) Alanine
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following does not play a role in DNA replication?
A) RNA primer
B) Deoxynucleotide
C) Stop codon
D) DNA polymerase
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The large ribosome subunit in prokaryotes consists of ribosomal proteins and:
A) 16S rRNA
B) 18S rRNA
C) 23S rRNA and 5S rRNA
D) 28S rRNA, 5S rRNA, and 5.8S rRNA
Answer: C
Q2) When gene expression is regulated by mechanisms other than the interaction of cis elements and trans factors, the regulation is called:
A) Induction
B) Epigenetics
C) Attenuation
D) Combinatorial control
Answer: B
Q3) In the lactose operon, which of the following configurations would result in gene expression?
A) Promoter +, Operator +, Repressor +, no inducer present
B) Promoter -, Operator +, Repressor +, no inducer present
C) Promoter -, Operator -, Repressor +, inducer present
D) Promoter +, Operator +, Repressor -, no inducer present
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following amino acids has a nonpolar R group?
A) Valine
B) Cysteine
C) Serine
D) Tyrosine
Answer: A
Q2) Hydrolysis of the finished polypeptide from the final tRNA by release factors would occur at which of the following codons?
A) AUG
B) GUG
C) ACC
D) UGA
Answer: D
Q3) What enzymes are important for faithful translation of genetic information from RNA to protein?
A) DNA polymerase
B) Amino-acyl tRNA synthetase
C) DNA ligase
D) Exonuclease
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measuring the concentration of RNA by spectrophotometry at 260 nm, the absorbance reading is multiplied by the dilution and a conversion factor of:
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Q2) Which whole blood fraction is the most abundant source of genomic DNA?
A) Red blood cells
B) Buffy coat
C) Serum
D) Plasma
Q3) The 260 nm/280 nm ratio for isolated DNA was determined to be 1:2. What should be done next with this sample?
A) Proceed with DNA analysis as necessary.
B) Reprecipitate the DNA to remove excess protein.
C) Treat the sample with RNAse to remove RNA.
D) Dilute the sample to 1:10 and repeat spectrophotometry.
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an advantage of agarose over polyacrylamide gels?
A) Agarose is more stable than polyacrylamide.
B) Agarose monomers are not toxic.
C) Acrylamide takes a long time to polymerize.
D) Polyacrylamide gels must be used immediately after polymerization.
Q2) Nucleic acids migrate toward which pole in electrophoresis?
A) Cathode
B) Anode
Q3) A very limited amount of nucleic acid, 500-1500 bp in size, is to be analyzed in a short time (same day) with the results available immediately. Which of the following electrophoresis procedures will satisfy those conditions?
A) Capillary electrophoresis
B) Pulse-field gel electrophoresis
C) Field inversion gel electrophoresis
D) Contour-clamped homogeneous electric field
Q4) The matrix in capillary electrophoresis through which nucleic acids pass is:
A) Silica
B) Agarose
C) Agarobiose
D) Optimized polymer
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) What determines the specificity in terms of the gene or region that is detected in the Southern blot?
A) Nitrocellulose membranes
B) Agarose gel
C) Restriction enzymes
D) Labeled probe
Q2) Which of the following bind(s) specifically to a sequence of interest, thus facilitating the analysis of that sequence?
A) Restriction enzymes
B) Probes
C) Hybridomas
D) Digoxigenin
Q3) A circular molecule has two sites for the restriction enzyme PstI and one site for the enzyme BamH1. How many fragments will result when digested with both enzymes?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following amplification procedures uses an RNA polymerase to generate amplicons?
A) Q beta replicase
B) Real-time PCR
C) Ligase chain reaction
D) Strand displacement amplification
Q2) A PCR reaction that uses more than one primer pair is called:
A) Long-range PCR
B) Multiplex PCR
C) Signal amplification
D) Quantitative PCR
Q3) What enzyme system is used to avoid contamination in real-time PCR?
A) dUTP-UNG
B) SSP-PCR
C) UV-psoralen
D) SAP-ExoI
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Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the structures found only at the ends of human chromosomes?
A) Kinetochores
B) Telomeres
C) Centromeres
D) Histones
Q2) Which of the following types of chromatin are open and actively involved in gene expression (transcription)?
A) Heterochromatin
B) Homochromatin
C) Euchromatin
D) Interchromatin
Q3) Which of the following is involved in connecting the centromere to the spindles during chromosome segregation in mitosis?
A) Kinetochore
B) Euchromatin
C) Histone protein H1
D) Heterochromatin
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient DNA has been mixed in separate wells with a probe that detects the 1691G>A mutation associated with factor V Leiden and a probe that detects the normal sequence. Cleavase is added to all wells, and the fluorescence is measured in each well. Fluorescence was detected in the well that included the normal probe, and no fluorescence was detected in the well containing the mutant probe. Which of the following assays was performed?
A) Invader assay
B) Nonisotopic RNase cleavage assay
C) Chemical cleavage assay
D) High-density oligonucleotide array
Q2) Which of the following methods can be used to screen for the presence of unknown mutations?
A) SSP-PCR
B) Allele-specific oligomer hybridization
C) High-density array
D) PCR-RFLP
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of the HapMap project is which of the following?
A) Find blocks of SNPs that are inherited together
B) Complete the human genome sequence
C) Compare human and primate genomes
D) Sequence all bacterial genomes
Q2) Which of the following pieces of information has been determined about the human genome?
A) Chromosome 13 has the most genes per bp.
B) The size of the human genome is 3 Gbp.
C) The average gene size is 45 kbp.
D) Chromosome X has the fewest genes.
Q3) A Sanger sequencing procedure has been performed on a 300-bp piece of DNA. When the fragments were resolved on the gel, there were bands distributed throughout the T, C and A lanes, but in the G lane, there was one thick band at the bottom of the gel.
What is the likely cause of these results?
A) No dGTP was added to the G reaction mix.
B) No ddGTP was added to the G reaction mix.
C) There was only one G in the whole 300-bp piece of DNA.
D) The 300-bp piece of DNA contained Gs only.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA found at the scene of the crime was determined to have one peak at 212 bp at the amelogenin locus. The source of this DNA is which of the following?
A) Female
B) Male
C) Impossible to tell from one locus
D) This locus does not discriminate between males and females.
Q2) An individual who has two populations of cells that were derived from two different zygotes is called a:
A) Chimera
B) Mosaic
C) Clone
D) Mutant
Q3) A woman has been sexually assaulted by an unknown man. Which of the following laboratory procedures can be used to more accurately analyze residual DNA left by the man in an effort to identify him?
A) RFLP
B) STR
C) Y-STR
D) VNTR
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a typing method is repeated and the results are the same each time, the method has high:
A) Ease of test performance
B) Discriminatory power
C) Typing capacity
D) Reproducibility
Q2) DNA is isolated from a test organism and cut with restriction enzymes. The fragments are ligated to adapters that are complementary to primers that are added to perform two rounds of PCR. The PCR products are separated by gel electrophoresis and analyzed. Which of the following methods was described?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphism
B) Amplified fragment length polymorphism
C) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis
D) Arbitrarily primed PCR
Q3) Which of the following typing methods is an RNA test?
A) Plasmid analysis
B) Ribotyping
C) PCR-RFLP
D) PFGE
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is indicated by the term CYP2A6?
A) Cytochrome P-450, subfamily IIA, polypeptide 6
B) Cytochrome P-450, subfamily IIA 6
C) Cytochrome P-450, subfamily 6, polypeptide 2A
D) Cytochrome P-450, polypeptide A6, subfamily II
Q2) One of the rarest genome mutations, in which the affected infant has a cleft palate, abnormal heart, and developmental delays and usually does not survive beyond 6 months because of trisomy 13, is which of the following syndromes?
A) Down's
B) Turner's
C) Patau's
D) Edward's
Q3) In a pedigree, an affected female will be indicated by which of the following symbols?
A) Open circle
B) Shaded circle
C) Open square
D) Shaded square
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Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herceptin (trastuzumab) therapy works best on what tumors?
A) Colon cancer expressing K-ras
B) Lung cancer with EGFR mutations
C) Breast cancer with no HER2/neu expression
D) Breast cancer with HER2/neu overexpression
Q2) What would be observed in the event of loss of heterozygosity?
A) Two alleles at a heterozygous locus
B) One allele at a homozygous locus
C) One allele at a heterozygous locus
D) Two alleles at a homozygous locus
Q3) Gene expression patterns are now used to characterize tumor types. What method is appropriate for analysis of expression of many genes simultaneously?
A) Northern blot
B) GE arrays
C) CGH arrays
D) Slot blots
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Chapter 15: DNA-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) An HLA haplotype is inherited from:
A) Only the mother
B) Only the father
C) Both the mother and the father
D) Neither the mother nor the father
Q2) A woman requires a kidney transplant. Five members of her family would like to be tested to determine if they are eligible donors. Technologists use sequence-specific oligonucleotide probe hybridization methods to perform HLA typing. Which of the following anticoagulants is preferred when collecting blood from the woman and her family members?
A) None
B) Heparin
C) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
D) Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
Q3) Which of the following denotes a null allele in the HLA locus?
A) A*25:02Q
B) DR*10:04N
C) B*44:01:01X
D) B*16:12-B*16:14
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Probes, primers, antibodies, and other test components that detect a specific target, such as a cell surface protein or DNA mutation, without claims to clinical significance are classified as what type of reagents?
A) FDA cleared
B) IVD
C) RUO
D) ASR
Q2) Which of the following organizations provides oversight and governs the use the radioactive materials in the clinical laboratory?
A) National Fire Protection Association
B) Nuclear Regulatory Commission
C) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
D) American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science
Q3) The temperature in a refrigerator that is used to store patient specimens and reagents should be checked how often?
A) Hourly
B) Daily
C) Biweekly
D) Weekly
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