Biomedical Sciences Textbook Exam Questions - 2981 Verified Questions

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Biomedical Sciences

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underlying human health and disease. This course provides a comprehensive foundation in core subjects such as cell biology, genetics, biochemistry, anatomy, pathology, microbiology, and pharmacology. Students will gain a thorough understanding of the mechanisms of disease, diagnostic techniques, and the scientific methods used in clinical and laboratory research. Emphasis is placed on developing analytical and problem-solving skills, as well as the ability to interpret scientific data, preparing students for advanced study or careers in healthcare, medical research, biotechnology, and related disciplines.

Recommended Textbook human physiology an integrated approach 6th edition by dee unglaub silverthorn

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are interested in learning more about Parkinson's disease,a neurological disorder that primarily affects motor function.What is the best source to begin your investigation?

A) Google

B) PubMed

C) public library

D) physiology textbook

E) a physician

Answer: B

Q2) A horse runs 10 races,each a mile long,during a 6-month period,and you are interested in determining if the horse's race time changes with experience.You set up a graph to display the race finish times of this horse. What type of graph would be best to display the race finish times of this horse?

A) bar graph

B) line graph

C) scatter plot

Answer: B

Q3) What are the labels for the graph axes?

Answer: The x-axis is vitamin dose; the y-axis is finish time in minutes.

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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Electrons travel around the center of the atom at high speed forming a(n)________.

Answer: shell (or orbital)

Q2) A molecule referred to as highly soluble is

A) very likely to dissolve in water.

B) not very likely to dissolve in water.

C) called aqueous.

D) very likely to dissolve in water and is called aqueous.

E) not very likely to dissolve in water and is called aqueous.

Answer: D

Q3) Ions with a negative charge are called ________.

Answer: anions

Q4) The most important polar molecule is ________ because it is practically a universal solvent.

A) water

B) bicarbonate

C) sodium chloride

D) magnesium sulfate

E) nucleic acid

Answer: A

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues

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Sample Questions

Q1) Centrioles

A) function as pipelines to move fluid through the cell.

B) direct the movement of DNA during cell division.

C) hold the cell's ribosomes in place.

D) are white blood cells out of vessels.

E) provide shape and stability to a cell.

Answer: B

Q2) Functions of connective tissue include

A) establishing a structural framework for the body.

B) transporting fluids and dissolved materials.

C) providing protection for delicate organs.

D) storing energy reserves.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Answer: E

Q3) Every substance that enters or leaves the internal environment of the body must cross an epithelium.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Aerobic metabolism of glucose

A) requires oxygen.

B) produces more ATP per glucose than anaerobic pathways.

C) is the fastest way to produce glucose.

D) requires oxygen and produces more ATP per glucose than anaerobic pathways.

Q2) A reversible reaction is one where

A) there are large changes in the net free energy from substrate to product.

B) there are small changes in the net free energy from substrate to product.

C) there is no change in the net free energy from substrate to product.

D) a reaction between products is unlikely due to the high activation energy.

Q3) Why is there a range of 30-32 ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule?

A) Sometimes the electron transport system is more efficient than other times.

B) The NADH molecules produced during glycolysis are in the cytoplasm; occasionally, electrons are carried by the lower energy FADH<sub>2</sub> instead of NADH.

C) Individual variation is normal among cells.

D) Any of these answers may work under different cellular conditions.

Q4) How is the single-stranded mRNA that leaves the nucleus translated into proteins?

Q5) What is chemiosmotic theory? What is its role in metabolism?

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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When you eat a large meal and your body absorbs a lot of glucose and that makes its way to the interstitial fluid before going into the cell.100% of the glucose should be absorbed into the cell from the interstitial fluid.Why does nearly all of the glucose enter the cell,rather than only half of it?

A) It is moved by active transport.

B) It is modified by the cell, so there is still more glucose on the outside of the cell than inside it.

C) Insulin forces glucose into the cell against a concentration gradient.

D) The cells make ATP so fast, they use up all the glucose as soon as it enters the cell.

Q2) membrane potential is 0 mV

A)resting membrane potential

B)hyperpolarization

C)depolarization

D)repolarization

E)more than one of the answers

Q3) The ability of a carrier molecule to transport only one specific molecule or a group of closely related molecules is called ________.

Q4) Describe the distribution of water in the body's fluid compartments.

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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis

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Sample Questions

Q1) To maintain ________,the body uses a combination of simple diffusion across small distances; wide spread distribution of molecules through the circulatory system and rapid,specific delivery of messages by the nervous system.

Q2) Blood glucose levels are kept fairly steady in healthy people through the action of the hormones insulin and glucagon.Insulin decreases blood glucose by promoting glucose uptake by cells,whereas glucagon increases blood glucose by promoting release of glucose from cells.Describe these hormone actions as simple reflex pathways,identifying the stimulus,integrating center,efferent pathway,and response.

Q3) When epinephrine combines with alpha adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle in intestinal blood vessels,the blood vessels ________; however,when epinephrine binds to beta-2 adrenergic receptors on certain skeletal muscle blood vessels,the vessels

Q4) Explain the two forms of down-regulation.

Q5) A chemical that is secreted by a cell to act on cells in its immediate vicinity is called a(n)________.

Q6) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n)________ that is sensitive to a particular stimulus (variable)and a(n)________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.

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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The hormones of the anterior pituitary are controlled by trophic hormones from the

Q2) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually

A) cAMP.

B) cGMP.

C) adenylyl cyclase.

D) a G protein.

E) calcium.

Q3) The posterior pituitary gland secretes

A) FSH.

B) TSH.

C) ACTH.

D) ADH (Vasopressin).

E) MSH.

Q4) ________ is a decrease in the number of receptors of target cells in order to dampen the effects of excess hormone.

Q5) The trophic hormones reach the pituitary through the ________.

Q6) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is called the ________.

Q7) The posterior pituitary gland is also known as the ________.

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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ion channel inactivation is

A) closing of the channel in response to decrease in the stimulus.

B) closing of the channel even when the stimulus continues.

C) any type of channel closing.

D) None of the answers are correct.

Q2) oligodendrocytes

A)central nervous system

B)peripheral nervous system

Q3) microglia

A)central nervous system

B)peripheral nervous system

Q4) When multiple,possibly even conflicting signals reach a neuron,the neuron evaluates the signals and may respond or not.This property is called

A) temporal summation.

B) spatial summation.

C) postsynaptic integration.

D) graded potentials.

E) EPSPs.

Q5) The gaps between adjacent Schwann cells on an axon are called ________.

Q6) The two types of electrical signals in neurons are ________.

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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Declarative memories are stored in cortical areas of the ________ lobes.

A) frontal

B) parietal

C) temporal

D) amygdala

E) cerebellar

Q2) What function(s)is/are associated with the basal ganglia? Huntington's disease affects the cerebral basal ganglia,causing neural degeneration,and resulting in abnormal muscle movements and cognitive decline.What may cause the cognitive decline? Effective treatment for Huntington's has been elusive,but recently it was shown that a cause of neuron degeneration may be calcium overload.What potential type of treatment does this suggest?

Q3) The brain has a ________ (high or low?)demand for oxygen,and receives about ________% of the total blood volume in circulation.

A) high; 35

B) low; 35

C) low; 15

D) high; 15

E) high; 50

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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a rod located in the retina is stimulated by light,

A) the cell depolarizes.

B) the inactive form of retinal associates with bleached opsin.

C) the activity of transducin decreases.

D) the release of neurotransmitter increases.

E) the intracellular concentration of cGMP decreases.

Q2) A sensory receptor is a ________ that converts a stimulus into electrical graded potentials.

Q3) In a recent accident,your favorite uncle lost one of his arms just below the elbow; he sustained no other injuries.The wound has completely healed,yet he is plagued by pain he claims is coming from a hand that is no longer there.Afraid to confide in his doctor,he asks you if he is going insane.What should you tell him? What principles are illustrated by this phenomenon?

Q4) ________ hearing loss occurs because of damage to the structure of the inner ear.

Q5) Each olfactory receptor cell extends a(n)________ into the mucus layer.

Q6) ________ is the fluid within the vestibular and tympanic duct of the cochlea.

Q7) ________ receptors respond to damaging heat as well as capsaicin (chili peppers).

Q8) Describe how lateral inhibition allows for localization of a stimulus.

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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control

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Q1) Phenelzine is a common MAO inhibitor that has been used to treat depression.It is not,however,prescribed as often as other antidepressants due to its effects on the autonomic nervous system.Describe several side effects that may result from taking phenelzine and explain why they might occur.

Q2) To perform surgery with a minimum of pain for the patient and hassle for the surgeon,a patient may be administered a general anesthetic to prevent sensation and consciousness,as well as a paralytic to prevent reflexive muscle spasms.From what you have learned of motor control,suggest mechanisms by which a paralytic can prevent muscle contraction.With paralytics,what extra measure must be taken to keep the patient alive? Name such a paralytic agent.

Q3) The division of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for intense levels of activity and stress is the

A) sympathetic division.

B) parasympathetic division.

C) craniosacral division.

D) intramural division.

E) somatomotor division.

Q4) Describe the major anatomical differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.

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Chapter 12: Muscles

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Sample Questions

Q1) In comparison to skeletal muscle,smooth muscle cells function over a ________ range of muscle lengths and exhibit a speed of contraction that is ________ than skeletal muscle.

Q2) In order for the bicep muscle to shorten,the force applied by the muscle must be ________ the load applied at the hand.

A) greater than

B) less than C) equal to

Q3) The molecular event that occurs immediately after the power stroke is the

A) release of actin from the myosin head.

B) hydrolysis of ATP by the myosin head.

C) release of ADP from the myosin.

D) binding of tropomyosin to the myosin.

E) binding of actin to the myosin.

Q4) Each myosin head has a binding site for A) calcium only.

B) actin only.

C) ATP only.

D) calcium and ATP.

E) actin and ATP.

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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) Spinal interneurons prevent muscle antagonists from interfering with an intended movement by

A) initiating a crossed extensor reflex.

B) initiating a stretch reflex.

C) initiating a tendon reflex.

D) the process of reciprocal inhibition.

E) activating reverberating circuits.

Q2) Upon testing the knee jerk reflex during a routine physical,a nurse notices that the reflex is hyperactive.What could be the explanation for this? If instead the reflex was hypoactive,what may the nurse conclude?

Q3) Most reflexes are regulated by ________.

Q4) Make a map of the following terms: alpha motor neurons,CNS,contractile fibers,extrafusual muscle fibers,Golgi tendon organs,integrating center,joint receptors,muscle spindles,proprioreceptors,sensory neurons,sensory receptors and somatic motor neurons.

Q5) Relaxation of skeletal muscle results from ________ input by the somatic motor neuron.

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Q6) A ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neuron.

Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology

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Q1) The blood pressure in a vessel is 20 units at point A and 10 units at point B.One minute later,the pressure is 15 units at point A and five units at point B.Flow between those points is ________.

A)increased B)decreased C)unchanged D)stopped

Q2) The rapid depolarization phase of the action potentials of myocardial contractile cells is due to which ion(s)?

A) Ca<sup>2+</sup> only

B) K<sup>+</sup> only

C) Na<sup>+ </sup>only

D) both Ca<sup>2+</sup> and K<sup>+</sup>

E) both Na<sup>+</sup> and K<sup>+</sup>

Q3) The most accurate definition of artery is a vessel that

A) carries highly oxygenated blood.

B) contains smooth muscle in its wall.

C) transports blood away from the heart.

D) transports blood toward the heart.

E) contains internal valves.

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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure

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Q1) Children who suffer from protein starvation have bloated bellies of ascites (an accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces of the abdomen).How would a shortage of protein in the diet cause this condition?

Q2) Fenestrated capillaries are present in

A) skeletal muscles.

B) cardiac muscle.

C) the liver.

D) the spleen.

E) skin.

Q3) If a person is bedridden for several days,the baroreceptor reflex may fail upon standing.Why?

A) Blood pools in the feet and legs.

B) There is reduced blood flow to the brain.

C) The kidneys have reduced the blood volume.

D) Blood pools in the feet and legs and there is reduced blood flow to the brain.

E) All of the statements are correct.

Q4) The osmotic pressure created by the presence of proteins is known as ________,which is (higher/lower)in the plasma than in the interstitial fluid.

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Chapter 16: Blood

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Q1) An individual who becomes dehydrated will have an elevated hematocrit.Explain how dehydration leads to an elevated hematocrit although blood cell production is normal.

Q2) The hormone that regulates the production of red blood cells is ________.

Q3) A hemoglobin molecule is composed of

A) just two protein chains.

B) just three protein chains.

C) just four protein chains and nothing else.

D) four protein chains and four heme groups.

E) four heme groups but no protein.

Q4) Tom suffers from a severe liver disease.Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see as a result of this condition?

A) decreased clotting ability

B) decreased blood osmotic pressure

C) increased levels of bilirubin in the blood

D) accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces of the extremities

E) All answers are correct.

Q5) The term used for a cytokine that is released by one white blood cell that acts on another is ________.

Q6) ________,________,and ________ are called granulocytes because

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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing

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Q1) Julia is breathing 14 times per minute,with a tidal volume of 520 mL and a dead space of 152 mL.Lyle is breathing 15 times per minute,with a tidal volume of 400 mL and a dead space of 175 mL.Which patient has better alveolar ventilation?

Q2) What is surfactant? Why is it important?

Q3) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are

A) bronchioles.

B) alveolar ducts.

C) pleural spaces.

D) alveoli.

E) terminal sacs.

Q4) A package insert for a medication states that "this medicine is a beta receptor stimulant used to treat symptoms of asthma,emphysema and other breathing conditions.Possible side effects include fast heart rate,nervousness,tremors or nausea." Why would these symptoms be expected?

Q5) The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a forced expiration is called the ________.

Q6) Air flows into lungs because of ________ created by ________.

Q7) The ________ consist of light,spongy tissue whose volume is occupied mostly by air-filled spaces.

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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport

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Q1) fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces

A)fibrotic lung disease

B)emphysema

C)asthma

D)pulmonary edema

Q2) Compare and contrast carbon monoxide (CO)poisoning,in which CO displaces oxygen from hemoglobin,and metabolic poisoning such as by cyanide.

Q3) If the partial pressure of oxygen in both air and water is 100 mm Hg,then the concentration of the oxygen is the same in the air and water.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following would make the oxygen-hemoglobin curve shift right?

A) increased H<sup>+</sup> concentration

B) increased pH

C) decreased temperature

D) decreased CO<sub>2</sub>

E) None of the answers are correct.

Q5) In ________,fluid accumulates in the interstitial spaces of the lungs,slowing gas exchange.

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Chapter 19: The Kidneys

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Sample Questions

Q1) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by

A) diffusion.

B) symport with sodium.

C) cotransport.

D) countertransport.

Q2) Blood flow through the kidney includes a feature seen in only a few organs.What is it?

A) portal system

B) arterial shunts

C) vascular sinuses

D) veins containing highly oxygenated blood

E) anastomoses

Q3) movement from the nephron lumen to the blood

A)excretion

B)filtration

C)reabsorption

D)secretion

Q4) List and describe the three filtration barriers that substances leaving the plasma must pass through before entering the tubule lumen.

Q5) The ________ are the long peritubular capillaries that dip into the medulla.

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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance

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Q1) Dehydration may cause some ions to become concentrated.If a person was suffering from severe hyperkalemia,you would expect

A) the potassium ion concentration of the interstitial fluid to be less than normal.

B) the membrane potential of nerves and muscles to be more negative.

C) the skeletal muscles to be unresponsive and cardiac arrest could occur.

D) muscle weakness and increased strength of twitch contractions.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Q2) Why is sodium actively reabsorbed in the nephron?

A) to decrease osmolarity inside the nephron

B) to make urine less concentrated

C) to increase passive reabsorption of water

D) to decrease blood pressure

Q3) The two organ systems that work together to regulate most aspects of the body's water balance are

A) digestive and respiratory.

B) urinary and respiratory.

C) cardiovascular and respiratory.

D) urinary and cardiovascular.

E) digestive and cardiovascular.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: The Digestive System

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Q1) The largest collection of ________ tissue in the body is the gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT).

Q2) Cholesterol is absorbed without being digested into smaller pieces.How does this compare to absorption of carbohydrates and proteins? What characteristic of cholesterol suggests it would be transported by simple diffusion? What is the evidence that transport proteins are involved in cholesterol absorption? Does this discovery rule out transport by simple diffusion? Explain.

Q3) Mucus functions in

A) protection only.

B) lubrication only.

C) enzyme activation only.

D) protection and lubrication.

E) protection, lubrication, and enzyme activation.

Q4) List the six types of epithelial cells associated with gastric glands.Briefly describe each one's role in the stomach.

Q5) What would be the nutritional consequence of excessive antacid use?

Q6) ________ digests terminal peptide bonds to release amino acids.

Q7) ________ is intestinal gas produced by bacteria in the colon during the metabolism of undigestible carbohydrates.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance

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Q1) During the absorptive state,

A) the liver forms glycogen.

B) adipocytes contribute fatty acids to the circulation.

C) skeletal muscles break down glycogen.

D) glucagon levels are elevated.

E) All of these answers are correct.

Q2) When blood levels of glucose,amino acids,and insulin are high,and glycogenesis is occurring in the liver,the body is in the

A) fasting state.

B) postabsorptive state.

C) absorptive state.

D) stress state.

E) bulimic state.

Q3) Which of the following individuals would lose heat faster in a cold room?

A) an adult man

B) an adult woman

C) an adolescent male

D) a child

E) a newborn infant

Q4) Compare and contrast insulin and glucagon.

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism

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Q1) What are the three common causes of hypercortisolism?

Q2) All of the hormones secreted by the adrenal gland play a major role in growth and metabolism.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Bill does not begin puberty until he is 16.What effect would you predict this will have on his stature?

A) Bill will probably be taller than if he had started puberty earlier.

B) Bill will probably be shorter than if he had started puberty earlier.

C) Bill will probably be a dwarf.

D) Bill will have bones that are denser than normal.

E) The late onset of puberty will have no effect on Bill's stature.

Q4) Premature closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by

A) high levels of vitamin D<sub>3</sub>.

B) too much calcium in the diet.

C) elevated levels of sex hormones.

D) too little thyroxine.

E) an excess of growth hormone.

Q5) What are the two distinct endocrine cell types that comprise the thyroid gland,and what do they secrete?

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Chapter 24: The Immune System

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Q1) Stem cells that will form T lymphocytes are modified in the A) bone marrow.

B) liver.

C) spleen.

D) thymus.

E) kidneys.

Q2) These are the most abundant leukocyte; they are formed in the bone marrow.

A)lymphocytes

B)neutrophils

C)monocytes

D)eosinophils

E)basophils

Q3) Diffuse lymphoid tissue includes A) tonsils.

B) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).

C) the spleen.

D) tonsils and GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).

E) tonsils, GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue), and the spleen.

Q4) Describe how a virus is eliminated in an immune response.

Q5) ________ are fixed macrophages located in the epithelia of the skin.

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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise

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Q1) The adaption of the body to repeated exercise in hot environments occurs through a process called ________.

Q2) Discuss changes in the cardiovascular and pulmonary systems that result from conditioning for exercise.

Q3) Athletes with chronic energy deficit (energy output > energy intake)tend to have high levels of cortisol.Do you expect their immune systems would be better than those who are sedentary? Explain.

Q4) James made a New Years resolution to get healthy so started an exercise plan.Early in the process he noticed that he fatigued quickly.As he continued to exercise regularly,he noticed that it took longer to fatigue.What change explains the increased endurance?

Q5) In addition to the number and type of muscle fibers in a muscle,peak athletic performance requires

A) a good blood supply and system of blood delivery.

B) a well-developed respiratory system.

C) adequate numbers of muscle mitochondria.

D) good supplies of nutrients.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Q6) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of glycolytic metabolism.

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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development

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Q1) ________ is the time spent in prenatal development.

Q2) Polyspermy in humans results in A) twins.

B) triplets.

C) individuals with haploid cells.

D) tetraploid adults.

E) a nonfunctional zygote.

Q3) Besides sterilization,the only sure way to avoid pregnancy is ________.

Q4) Human gametes contain ________ chromosomes.

Q5) Which of the following occurs during days 6-14 of the menstrual cycle?

A) ovulation

B) menstruation

C) proliferative phase

D) secretory phase

Q6) mature sperm or egg

A)haploid

B)diploid

Q7) Jerry is in an automobile accident that severs his spinal cord at waist level.After his recovery,he wonders if he will still be able to have an erection,enjoy sex,and father a child.What would you tell him?

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