Biomedical Sciences
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Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the biological principles underlying human health and disease, integrating knowledge from disciplines such as physiology, biochemistry, molecular biology, genetics, microbiology, and pathology. This course provides a comprehensive understanding of how the human body functions at the cellular and systemic levels, the mechanisms by which diseases develop, and the scientific foundation for medical research and healthcare innovations. Students will examine current methodologies for diagnosing diseases, analyze emerging biotechnologies, and discuss ethical considerations in biomedical research, preparing them for careers or further study in medical, research, or allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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998 Verified Questions
998 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A single nucleotide polymorphism is
A) an individual's genotype for a particular trait.
B) a single base site in the genome that varies among individuals in a population.
C) a single copy of a gene.
D) a gene that is expressed differently in males and females.
E) the DNA base that begins a gene.
Answer: B
Q2) Variants of a gene are called
A) nucleotides.
B) genotypes.
C) phenotypes.
D) alleles.
E) single nucleotide polymorphisms.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hereditary spherocytosis,red blood cells lose their doughnut shapes,ballooning out,because they have abnormal
A) microtubules, which consist of tubulin molecules.
B) microfilaments, which consist of actin molecules.
C) ankyrin molecules, which bind spectrin rods to the plasma membrane.
D) CFTR proteins, which entrap salt inside cells.
E) hemoglobin, which leaks out of the cells.
Answer: C
Q2) The part of a chromosome that shortens with each cell division,functioning as a "clock," is the
A) centromere.
B) centrosome.
C) centriole.
D) telomere.
E) teleost.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The critical period is
A) the time during which a sperm can fertilize an oocyte.
B) the time during which an oocyte can be fertilized.
C) the time during which an embryo can implant in the uterine lining.
D) the time during development when structures are sensitive to damage from a mutation, toxin, or virus.
E) labor.
Answer: D
Q2) The allantois
A) destroys old blood cells.
B) gives rise to the yolk sac.
C) forms blood cells.
D) is part of the placenta.
E) is part of the maternal body.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mode of inheritance reflects
A) whether the gene is on an autosome or sex chromosome and whether the allele is recessive or dominant.
B) whether the allele is transmitted from the male or the female.
C) whether the allele is received by a male or a female.
D) the number of genes that determine a trait.
E) the size of the chromosome that includes the gene in question and the sex of the parent transmitting it.
Q2) Hillary is 8 years old and has neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis,also known as Batten disease.It is autosomal recessive.She was fine until age five,when she began to lose her vision and stumble.She had learning difficulties in school and was diagnosed at age six.Hillary may only live into her twenties,experiencing dementia and seizures.Her younger brother Jaden,age six,is healthy,as are her parents.The probability that Jaden is a heterozygote is
A) 1/8.
B) 1/4.
C) 1/3.
D) 2/3.
E) 0.
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) A and B are linked genes.In a study of 100 offspring,94 had parental genotypes for A and B,while 6 were recombinants.A and B are __ map units apart.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 9.4
D) 94
E) an unknown number of
Q2) The Addams family has an autosomal dominant condition in which webbing attaches the second toe to the third toe and the second toe is longer than the big toe.Only some of the Addams' who inherit the mutant allele have a second toe longer than the big toe.In addition,the extent of webbing varies.This phenotype is
A) both inherited and non-inherited.
B) dominant and recessive.
C) variably expressive and incompletely penetrant.
D) invariably expressive and completely penetrant.
E) genetically heterogeneic and a phenocopy.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marbles is a calico cat with a Manx tail.She wants to have kittens with a male calico,but can't seem to find one.Alas,male calicos are rare; the only ones have the sex chromosome constitution XXY.Male calicos are therefore rare because
A) all male cats have a dominant gene on the Y that masks the calico gene on the X.
B) most male cats only have one Y chromosome, so it cannot be shut off.
C) most male cats have only one X chromosome, so it cannot be shut off.
D) they die just after birth.
E) male calicos lack sex chromosomes.
Q2) X-linked dominant traits are typically expressed
A) much more severely in females because they have two X chromosomes.
B) much more severely in males because they have two Y chromosomes.
C) much more severely in males because they have only one X chromosome.
D) with equal severity in the sexes.
E) only if X-linked recessive conditions with similar symptoms are also inherited.
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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fingerprint pattern is inherited,but also affected by the environment.An example of how the environment naturally can alter fingerprint pattern is
A) a criminal taking off the fingertip skin with acid.
B) rubbing the prints off by using ones hands to climb mountains.
C) a fetus touching the developing toe and finger pads to the wall of the amniotic sac.
D) cancer of the digits.
E) the fingertips rubbing away from too much computer use.
Q2) A cohort study looks at
A) a large group of people over time, keeping track of specific health conditions or measures.
B) large groups of DZ and MZ twins.
C) heritabilities of behavioral characteristics.
D) patterns of copy number variants in the human genome.
E) empiric risk of inborn errors of metabolism.
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9
Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two identifying characteristics of addiction are
A) intolerance and independence.
B) intolerance and dependence.
C) tolerance and independence.
D) tolerance and dependence.
E) irrationality and obsession.
Q2) The part of the human brain that controls the sleep-wake cycle is called the A) nucleolus.
B) cerebral cortex.
C) suprachiasmatic nuclei.
D) substantia nigra.
E) brainstem.
Q3) SSRIs such as Prozac,Paxil and Zoloft are widely prescribed to treat A) post traumatic stress disorder.
B) major depressive disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) minor depressive disorder.
E) homicidal mania.
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ incorrectly suggested DNA has a triple helix structure.
A) Linus Pauling
B) James Watson and Francis Crick
C) Martha Chase
D) Maclyn McCarty
E) Rosalind Franklin
Q2) Which chemical is not part of DNA?
A) phosphate
B) ribose
C) cytosine
D) nitrogen
E) carbon
Q3) The nitrogenous bases adenine and thymine are
A) both purines.
B) both pyrimidines.
C) both amino acids.
D) a purine and a pyrimidine, respectively.
E) a pyrimidine and a purine, respectively.
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11
Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) To express a gene,DNA is first transcribed into a corresponding strand of A) mtDNA.
B) rRNA.
C) mRNA.
D) tRNA.
E) siRNA.
Q2) The sequences UUUUUUUUU .....,AAAAAAAAA......,and CCCCCCCCC.....,were the first to be analyzed to crack the genetic code because
A) they were the simplest to synthesize.
B) they would encode all types of amino acids.
C) they would encode only one type of nucleotide.
D) they would encode only one type of amino acid.
E) they could be mixed up to encode all amino acids.
Q3) A sequence of DNA could have ____ possible reading frame(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) an infinite number of
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human genome encodes about 21,000 genes,which encode about _____ mRNAs,which are translated in pieces and arranged to encode about _____ different proteins.
A) 1 million; 100,000
B) 100,000; 1 million
C) 21,000; 21,000
D) 21,000; 63,000
E) 63,000; 21,000
Q2) The most abundant type of DNA repeat sequence is called a A) genome.
B) lipidome.
C) proteome.
D) transposon.
E) transcriptome.
Q3) About __ percent of human genes are alternately spliced.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 40
D) 75
E) 90
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ultraviolet light damages DNA by causing A) purine rings.
B) strand breaks.
C) pyrimidine dimers.
D) radioactivity.
E) night blindness.
Q2) Mutations are more likely to occur in or near repeated DNA sequences because
A) these bases are unstable.
B) bases in the strand can form base pairs, generating loops that interfere with replication and repair enzymes.
C) the repeats hold onto the replication enzymes, causing base mismatches.
D) the repeats attract and bind to mutagens, increasing the mutation rate.
E) repeated sequences do not have a sugar-phosphate backbone.
Q3) Missense mutations cause large deletions when they
A) alter a protein's shape and affect its function.
B) alter an intron splicing site so that an entire exon is deleted.
C) change a triplet codon that does not affect the reading frame.
D) invert a segment of a chromosome.
E) create a stop signal.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DNA sequence that is repeated many times in a telomere is A) GAGTCT.
B) UUAGGG.
C) AAUCCC.
D) AATCCC.
E) TTAGGG.
Q2) Aneuploidy may occur in some cells of an individual if nondisjunction happens in A) an early embryo.
B) a sperm cell.
C) an oocyte.
D) a skin cell in an adult.
E) a polar body.
Q3) Uniparental disomy results when a child inherits
A) two recessive alleles for the same gene, one from each parent.
B) two alleles for the same gene from one parent.
C) one recessive allele from one parent.
D) more than two alleles for the same gene from one parent.
E) a recessive allele.
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is used to calculate the frequency of an allele in a population?
A) homozygous recessives
B) the most fertile individuals
C) homozygous dominants
D) heterozygotes
E) heterozygous dominants
Q2) Tay-Sachs disease affects in 1 in 3,600 Ashkenazim births.The value of q<sup>2</sup> is
A) 0.1.
B) 0.05.
C) 0.017.
D) 0.0003.
E) 100%.
Q3) An autosomal recessive disorder strikes 1 in 1,800 newborns in a population.The frequency of carriers of this disorder is approximately A) 0.00055.
B) 0.023.
C) 0.045.
D) 0.5.
E) 100%.
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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Q1) Members of two populations in different parts of the world have the same form of inherited breast cancer.The affected individuals in each population have only one specific mutation,but it is different between the two populations.An explanation for this mutation difference among these populations is
A) a founder effect.
B) mutations associated with religion.
C) random mating.
D) Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium.
E) anti-semitism.
Q2) In an endogamous community,
A) many people marry people from within the community.
B) many people marry people from another country.
C) many people marry blood relatives.
D) many people own dogs.
E) many people have dominant genetic disorders.
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hominins lived from 19 to 4 million years ago and were ancestral to A) humans only.
B) humans and apes.
C) humans, apes and gibbons.
D) apes and gibbons.
E) Aegytopithecus.
Q2) _______ are ancestral to both apes and humans.
A) Hominins
B) Humanoids
C) Hominoids
D) Humanids
E) Homo erectus
Q3) The definition of an indigenous people is a group that
A) is the oldest in its geographical area and has retained its culture.
B) has a genetic disease that is rare in other groups.
C) has most recently come into a geographical area.
D) has been the target of discrimination.
E) has assimilated into a region different from its place of origin.
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an allergic reaction,allergens bind _______,which release allergy mediators.
A) IgE antibodies on mast cell surfaces
B) IgG antibodies on B cell surfaces
C) allergy genes on chromosome 5
D) histamines on mast cell surfaces
E) pollen granules
Q2) The human immune system consists of
A) about 10,000 cells that increase rapidly to trillions when an infection takes hold.
B) the heart and blood vessels and the blood cells within the vessels.
C) about 2 trillion cells, their secretions, and the organs where they are produced and stored.
D) all of the bacteria and viruses that are normally present in our bodies plus our blood cells.
E) the thyroid and thymus glands and their cells and secretions.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of p53-related cancers is
A) fetal cells that remain in a child or adult, dividing too frequently.
B) continual expression of the telomerase gene, which keeps cells dividing.
C) deletion of cell cycle checkpoint genes.
D) failure to repair damaged DNA, allowing the cell to continue dividing.
E) a translocation between chromosomes 12 and 15.
Q2) Cancer does not typically follow a Mendelian pattern of inheritance because it is usually caused by
A) two gene variants, one dominant and one recessive, and no environmental input.
B) specific combinations of alleles and an environmental factor.
C) specific combinations of an environmental factor and one dominant gene variant.
D) environmental insults and no genes at all.
E) genes that cause death before birth.
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Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Automated PCR machines use a heat stable
A) DNA ligase.
B) helicase.
C) primase.
D) DNA polymerase.
E) amino acid synthetase.
Q2) A multicellular organism that carries a specific genetic change in each cell because of an intervention at the fertilized egg stage is
A) transverted.
B) translocated.
C) transgenic.
D) transformed.
E) transliterate.
Q3) To create a transgenic organism,the researcher
A) introduces foreign DNA into a gamete or fertilized ovum.
B) injects a gene of interest into a somatic cell.
C) injects a gene of interest into several somatic cells.
D) introduces foreign DNA into somatic cells in culture and transplants them.
E) uses site directed mutagenesis on the adult.
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a germline gene therapy?
A) a transgenic plant or animal
B) a bone marrow transplant
C) a disabled cold virus that delivers genes to airway epithelium to treat cystic fibrosis
D) removing skin cells, genetically altering them, and replacing them
E) receiving cord blood stem cells from a donor
Q2) Reginald receives a stem cell transplant to treat a blood cancer,multiple myeloma.His treatment is an example of
A) germline gene therapy.
B) heritable gene therapy.
C) constitutional gene therapy.
D) somatic gene therapy.
E) in vitro fertilization.
Q3) Pharmacological chaperone therapy
A) restores proper folding to a misfolded protein.
B) restores the double helix to opened-up DNA.
C) restores the sugar-phosphate background to the DNA of a specific gene.
D) provides a drug that accompanies a specific mutation, correcting it.
E) replaces a missing enzyme.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has a child using intrauterine insemination.The woman is the child's
A) gestational mother only.
B) genetic mother only.
C) gestational and genetic mother.
D) gestational and surrogate mother.
E) clone.
Q2) _______ places sperm into a woman's reproductive tract to fertilize an oocyte.
A) Sperm washing
B) Intrauterine insemination
C) GIFT
D) IVF
E) Gene therapy
Q3) Which of the following is an assisted reproductive technology?
A) producing human insulin in bacteria
B) a couple conceive using sperm from a sperm bank
C) a man donates part of his liver to his daughter, who has cystic fibrosis
D) a woman has breast reduction surgery to alleviate back pain
E) a boy with a form of hereditary blindness receives injections of the wild type gene in his retinas to restore his vision
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basis of Sanger DNA sequencing is to
A) identify ESTs and place them in order based on their function to derive the overall sequence.
B) collect all of the mRNAs of a given cell type, make cDNAs from them, align the cDNAs, and derive the overall sequence.
C) break several copies of a genome into 3-base codons, and align them to derive the overall sequence.
D) generate a series of fragments from an overall DNA sequence that differ by the end base of each. Overlap the pieces and read off the overhangs to derive the sequence.
E) tag each of the four DNA bases with a fluorescent marker molecule and align them by the intensity of the fluorescence to derive the overall sequence.
Q2) The part of the genome that encodes protein is called the A) encode.
B) intron.
C) exon.
D) exome.
E) prodrome.
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Page 24