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Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that combines principles of biology, chemistry, and medicine to understand the mechanisms of human health and disease. This course explores fundamental topics including human anatomy and physiology, molecular and cellular biology, genetics, pathology, microbiology, and pharmacology. Students will gain a deep understanding of how biological systems function and interact, the basis of diseases, and the scientific approaches used in diagnosing and treating medical conditions. Emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills, the course prepares students for advanced study or careers in healthcare, research, biotechnology, and related biomedical sectors.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Q1) Feeling the presence of a mosquito biting your arm is an example of A)growth.
B)movement.
C)responsiveness.
D)reproduction.
E)differentiation.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the thumb?
A)pollex
B)tarsal
C)hallux
D)volar
E)carpal
Answer: A
Q3) List the basic processes of life.
Answer: The basic processes of life include metabolism,responsiveness,movement,growth,differentiation and reproduction.
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Q1) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element chlorine in the human body?
A)ionized form makes body fluids acidic
B)ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid
C)forms backbone of all organic molecules
D)required for bone and tooth structure
E)ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid
Answer: B
Q2) This refers to a weighted average of the atomic weights of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element.
A)mass number
B)atomic number
C)atomic mass
D)ionic mass
E)covalent mass
Answer: C
Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid.
Answer: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom with 1)a hydrogen atom,2)an amino group,3)an acidic carboxyl group,and 4)a side chain attached to it.
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Q1) The following is a particular sequence of base triplet on a DNA molecule: ATG.What is the corresponding codon for the mRNA?
A)TAC
B)GUA
C)GTA
D)CTA
E)UAC
Answer: E
Q2) The major function of mitochondria is to
A)move the cell.
B)generate ATP.
C)produce proteins.
D)oxidize organelles.
E)synthesize glycolipids.
Answer: B
Q3) Define homologous chromosomes.
Answer: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same)order.
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Q1) Immature,undifferentiated cells that can divide to replace lost or damaged cells are called
A)stem cells.
B)parenchymal cells.
C)fibrotic cells.
D)granulocytes.
E)agranulocytes.
Q2) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.
Q3) Electrical signals called _____ travel along the plasma membrane of a neuron and stimulate the release of chemicals called _____ that are then used to communicate with other cells.
A)action potentials;neurotransmitters
B)action potentials;hormones
C)action potentials;cytokines
D)threshold potentials;cytokines
E)threshold potentials;neurotransmitters
Q4) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Q5) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
Q6) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon.
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to reddened,elevated,and itchy patches of skin commonly caused by emotional stress,physical trauma,or certain food allergies?
A)wart
B)hives
C)papule
D)cyst
E)eczema
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to paleness of the skin such as seen in patients with shock or anemia?
A)hirsutism
B)pallor
C)jaundice
D)androgenic alopecia
E)erythema
Q3) John has just been brought into the emergency room following a fiery explosion at a chemical plant.He is diagnosed with third degree burns over the anterior surfaces of his arms and trunk.What specific structural damage has occurred to his skin? What risks to John's life have resulted from this damage?
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Q1) About 25% of all stress fractures involve which bone?
A)rib
B)clavicle
C)humerus
D)ulna
E)tibia
Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the repair of a bone fracture?
A)fracture hematoma,bony callus formation,fibrocartilaginous callus formation,bone remodeling
B)fibrocartilaginous callus formation,bony callus formation,fracture hematoma,bone remodeling
C)bony callus formation,fracture hematoma,fibrocartilaginous callus formation,bone remodeling
D)bone remodeling,fracture hematoma,fibrocartilaginous callus formation,bony callus formation
E)fracture hematoma,fibrocartilaginous callus formation,bony callus formation,bone remodeling
Q3) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.
Q4) Briefly,explain how blood calcium level is regulated.
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Q1) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone?
A)Long bone
B)Short bone
C)Flat bone
D)Irregular bone
E)Sesamoid bone
Q2) Briefly describe the bones that make up the orbit of the eye.Include a description of the portion of the orbit formed by each bone.
Q3) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a A)crest.
B)trochanter.
C)sulcus.
D)fossa.
E)tubercle.
Q4) Briefly describe the five categories of bones found in the human body based on the shape of the bones.
Q5) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Q6) List and describe the number of bones found in all the regions of the adult vertebral column.
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Q1) The epiphyseal line on the proximal end of the humerus is found in the A)anatomical neck.
B)greater tubercle.
C)intertubercular sulcus.
D)surgical neck.
E)olecranon fossa.
Q2) The hard sharp ridge of the shin that can easily be felt below the skin is the A)anterior border (crest)of the tibia.
B)tibial tuberosity.
C)medial condyle of the tibia.
D)tibiofemoral joint.
E)intercondylar eminence.
Q3) Which of the following bones articulates with the scapula?
A)Thoracic vertebra
B)Humerus
C)Sacrum
D)Tibia
E)Sternum
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.
Q5) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
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Q1) In which type of synovial joint does a rounded or pointed surface on one bone articulate with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by a ligament?
A)Pivot joint
B)Planar joint
C)Hinge joint
D)Ball-and-socket joint
E)Saddle joint
Q2) A condyloid joint
A)is also called an ellipsoidal joint.
B)is considered to be biaxial.
C)allows both flexion-extension and abduction-adduction of the joint.
D)can be found in the wrist.
E)is All of these choices
Q3) Which of the following is a correct description of arthroplasty?
A)resurfacing of cartilage in a joint
B)reshaping of the ends of the bones in a joint
C)surgically replacing a joint with an artificial joint
D)injection of synovial fluid into the joint
E)a,b,and d
Q4) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
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Q1) Which of the regions of a sarcomere contain titin?
A)the A band only
B)the H zone only
C)the zone of overlap only
D)from M line to Z disc
E)the I band only
Q2) Which of the following types of muscle tissue contract when excited by their own autorhythmic muscle fibers?
A)cardiac muscle
B)slow twitch oxidative skeletal muscle
C)multi-unit smooth muscle
D)fast twitch glycolytic skeletal muscle
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Which property of muscle gives it the ability to stretch without damage?
A)electrical excitability
B)contractility
C)extensibility
D)elasticity
E)thermogenesis
Q4) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
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Q1) Protrusion of an organ through a structure that normally contains it is referred to as a A)hernia.
B)goiter.
C)strain.
D)sprain.
E)hydrocele.
Q2) Chuck has a rotator cuff injury.Which muscles and associated structures are most commonly involved in this type of injury? What sorts of activities commonly cause this injury?
Q3) A muscle that raises or elevates a body part is called a A)pronator. B)tensor. C)flexor.
D)depressor. E)levator.
Q4) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
Q5) What anatomical structures of the musculoskeletal system correspond to the components of a lever system? Describe the arrangement of these parts in first,second,and third class lever systems.
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Q1) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to changes in membrane potential and is located in axons of all types of neurons.
A)leakage channel
B)ligand-gated channels
C)mechanically gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)temperature-sensitive channel
Q2) Faster communication and synchronization are two advantages of A)chemical synapses
B)electrical synapses
C)ligand-gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)mechanically-gated channels
Q3) During this period,a second action potential can only be initiated by a larger than normal stimulus
A)Latent period
B)Absolute refractory period
C)Relative refractory period
D)All of these choices
E)None of these choices
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Q1) In response to a tendon being stretched excessively,a tendon organ initiates a somatic spinal reflex that causes
1)contraction of the agonist muscle.
2)relaxation of the antagonist muscle.
3)contraction of the antagonist muscle.
4)relaxation of the agonist muscle.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)4 only
E)3 and 4
Q2) A man presents with median nerve palsy in his left hand.What is the most likely site of injury?
A)Dorsal scapular nerve
B)Intercostal nerve
C)Lumbar plexus
D)Median nerve
E)Radial nerve
Q3) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q4) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
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Q1) An electroencephalogram (EEG)measures brain waves primarily generated by
A)neurons in the pons.
B)neurons in the medulla oblongata.
C)neurons in the thalamus.
D)neurons in the cerebral cortex.
E)neurons in the cerebellum.
Q2) Which of the following cranial nerves is primarily responsible for changing facial expressions?
A)Oculomotor
B)Trigeminal
C)Spinal accessory
D)Facial
E)Vagus
Q3) Which of the following is a fluid-filled cavity located in each hemisphere of the cerebrum?
A)Lateral ventricle
B)Septum pellucidum
C)Fourth ventricle
D)Third ventricle
E)Corpus callosum
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Q1) Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by
1)increasing activities in effector tissue.
2)decreasing activities in effector tissue.
3)changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 1 and 2
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic division of the ANS that occurs in most individuals with spinal cord injury at or above T6?
A)Raynaud's phenomenon
B)Autonomic dysreflexia
C)Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
D)Diabetic neuropathy
E)Horner's Syndrome
Q3) Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep?
A)Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated.
B)Decreased heart rate.
C)Decreased blood pressure.
D)Skeletal muscle tone decreases.
E)Dream during REM sleep.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a specialized sensory receptor cell that is known as a "separate cell"?
A)Corpuscle of touch (Meissner corpuscle)
B)photoreceptor cell in retina
C)lamellataed (Pacinian)corpuscle
D)hair root plexus
E)astrocyte
Q3) What category of receptor cell is used to sense touch,vibration and pressure?
A)photoreceptor
B)mechanoreceptor
C)thermoreceptor
D)chemoreceptor
E)osmoreceptor
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Q1) Which of the following are structures of the membranous labyrinth of the inner that are involved in dynamic and static equilibrium?
A)vestibule
B)saccule
C)cochlear duct
D)semicircular ducts
E)More than one of these is correct.
Q2) The lens is made of layers of proteins called A)choroids.
B)ciliary bodies.
C)crystallins.
D)cones.
E)rods.
Q3) Olfactory receptors are found
A)throughout the nasal cavity.
B)only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
C)only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
D)from the vestibule to the pharynx.
E)only in the mid-nasal ridges.
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Q1) The thyroid gland develops from which of the following germ layers during embryonic development?
A)Mesoderm
B)Endoderm
C)Ectoderm
D)A combination of two of the layers
E)None of the answer selections are correct
Q2) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)is produced by the A)placenta.
B)ovaries.
C)testes.
D)pituitary gland.
E)hypothalamus.
Q3) Enuresis,or bedwetting,may be caused by psychological,anatomical or physiological factors.In the latter case,vasopressin is often prescribed and is a very effective treatment.What is vasopressin? How can it prevent enuresis?
Q4) Compare the metabolic changes that occur during starvation with those that occur in diabetes mellitus.
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Q1) Towards the end of erythropoiesis in the bone marrow,a red blood cell loses its nucleus and becomes a
A)proerythroblast.
B)megakaryocyte.
C)progenitor cell.
D)mature erythrocyte.
E)reticulocyte.
Q2) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
A)Albumin
B)Globulins
C)Fibrinogen
D)Myoglobin
E)Hemoglobin
Q3) Which of the following precursor cells give rise to granular leukocytes?
A)Proerythroblast
B)Megakaryoblast
C)Lymphoblast
D)Myeloblast
E)None of the selections are correct.
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
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Q1) The outermost layer of the pericardium,which consists of inelastic dense irregular connective tissue,is called the
A)parietal layer of pericardium.
B)serous pericardium.
C)fibrous pericardium.
D)epicardium.
E)endocardium.
Q2) Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate?
A)Midbrain
B)Cerebrum
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Cerebellum
E)Thalamus
Q3) In comparison to skeletal muscle fibers,the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for _____ period of time.
A)a shorter
B)a longer
C)the same
Q4) Briefly describe why cardiac tissue cannot repair itself after damage?
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Q1) Which of the following vessels supplies blood to the kidneys?
A)Hepatic artery
B)Renal artery
C)Mesenteric artery
D)Coronary artery
E)Popliteal artery
Q2) Which of the following would NOT result in an increase in arterial blood pressure?
A)Increased blood volume
B)Increased sympathetic stimulation
C)Increased heart rate
D)Increased stroke volume
E)Increased arteriolar vasodilation
Q3) Which of the following would NOT occur in response to hypovolemic shock?
A)Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA)system.
B)Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C)Activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS.
D)Release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).
E)Release of local vasodilators.
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on the immune system?
A)Increased susceptibility to infections
B)Increased susceptibility to malignancies
C)Decreased response to vaccines
D)Increased response of T cells to antigens
E)Decreased production of antibodies
Q2) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from mother-to-baby IgA transfer via breast feeding?
A)naturally acquired active immunity
B)naturally acquired passive immunity
C)artificially acquired active immunity
D)artificially acquired passive immunity
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect matching of immune system cells and their functions?
A)Macrophage - process and presentation of foreign antigens to T cells
B)Dendritic cell - processes and presents antigen to T and B cells
C)B cells - process and presents antigen to helper T cells
D)Plasma cell - produces and secretes antibodies
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E)All of these are correct matching of the cells and their functions
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Q1) Normal quiet breathing is controlled by the
A)Pontine respiratory group
B)Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group
C)Medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group
D)Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group and medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group
E)all of these
Q2) Which of the following is a passageway for air,food and water?
A)Pharynx
B)Larynx
C)Paranasal sinuses
D)Trachea
E)Esophagus
Q3) Which of the following is the sum of the residual and the expiratory reserve volume?
A)Total lung capacity
B)Functional residual capacity
C)Inspiratory capacity
D)Vital capacity
E)Minimal volume
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Q1) This of the following structures is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus?
A)Coronary ligament
B)Falciform ligament
C)Round ligament
D)Kupffer ligament
E)Bile ductules
Q2) Which of the following cells secrete hydrochloric acid?
A)Mucous cells
B)Parietal cells
C)Chief cells
D)Serosa cells
E)Chyme cells
Q3) In the mouth,the tooth sockets are lined with A)Gingivae
B)Cementum
C)Periodontal ligament
D)Pulp
E)Root
Q4) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
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Q1) What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis?
A)Insulin
B)Human Growth hormone
C)Epinephrine
D)Thyroid hormone
E)Cortisol
Q2) Which hormone(s)dominate(s)the absorptive state?
A)Insulin
B)Glucagon
C)HGH
D)All of these
E)None of these
Q3) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by the A)Anterior pituitary
B)Hypothalamus
C)Cerebral cortex
D)Liver
E)Kidney
Q4) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
Q5) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in regulation of food intake.
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Q1) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
Q2) This is a test to measure kidney function.
A)Plasma creatinine
B)Renal study
C)Kidney assay
D)Dialysis
E)Hilus study
Q3) Which is the normal pH range of urine in humans?
A)8)1 - 10.6
B)4)6 - 8.0
C)1)0 - 3.0
D)3)1 - 4.0
E)10.0 - 12.0
Q4) This layer of filtration membrane is composed of collagen fibers and proteoglycans in a glycoprotein matrix.
A)glomerular endothelial cells
B)basal lamina
C)pedicels
D)filtration slits
E)slit membrane
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Q1) The breathing rate of an infant
A)Is twice as fast as an adult
B)Causes greater water loss from the lungs
C)Removes less carbon dioxide than in an adult
D)Makes the infant blood more acidic
E)Is normal to an adult
Q2) Why is a small amount of table salt included in intravenous or oral rehydration therapy?
Q3) In extracellular fluid the most abundant cation is
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q4) Which of the following occurs when water loss is greater than water gain?
A)Dehydration
B)Evaporation
C)Precipitation
D)Insensible loss
E)None of these choices
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Q1) What is produced by the ovaries?
A)Primary oocytes,insulin and estrogen
B)Secondary oocytes,progesterone and cortisol
C)Tertiary oocytes,insulin and estrogen
D)Secondary oocytes,estrogen and progesterone
E)Primary oocytes,estrogen and testosterone
Q2) Which hormone triggers ovulation?
A)GnRH
B)LH
C)FSH
D)Estrogen
E)Progesterone
Q3) Trace the path of a sperm cell from the site of its maturation to the site where it leaves the male body.Include descriptions of fluids added along that path.
Q4) Describe the contributions of the reproductive systems to the integumentary systems.
Q5) The male reproductive system arises from
A)Paramesonephric (Mullerian)ducts
B)Mesonephric (Wolffian)ducts
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Q1) Which of the following structures is(are)produced from the endoderm?
A)Cartilage
B)Dermis of the skin
C)Kidneys and ureters
D)Internal and external ear
E)Gametes
Q2) Which of the following are major potential teratogens that affect embryonic development?
A)Alcohol
B)Cigarette smoke
C)Various prescription drugs
D)Irradiation
E)All of these
Q3) During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by
A)10%
B)20%
C)30%
D)40%
E)50%
Q4) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
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