Biomedical Sciences
Exam Review
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that integrates principles of biology, chemistry, and medicine to explore the mechanisms of health and disease in humans. The course covers foundational topics such as human anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, genetics, microbiology, and immunology, and introduces advanced concepts in pathology, pharmacology, and molecular biology. Through laboratory work, lectures, and group projects, students develop analytical skills and scientific literacy necessary for understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of diseases, preparing them for careers or further study in healthcare, research, and related biomedical industries.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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29 Chapters
2169 Verified Questions
2169 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes.
Answer: The six basic life processes include:1)Metabolism is the sum of all chemical processes in the body.2)Responsiveness is the body's ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli.3)Movement includes motions that range from movements within individual cells to movement of the entire body.4)Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells.5)Differentiation is the process that converts a cell from unspecialized to specialized.6)Reproduction refers to formation of new cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual.
Q2) During a cadaver lab,the professor requests the students to cut the head with a transverse plane a coronal plane.Describe the results.
A)the student will have two halves,right and left
B)the student will have two halves,superior and inferior
C)the student will have two halves,anterior and posterior
D)the student will have four parts;divided vertically into anterior and posterior,and superior and inferior
E)the student will have four parts;divided into right and left,and anterior and posterior
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A triple covalent bond is formed between atoms sharing _____ valence electrons.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)six
E)eight
Answer: D
Q2) What are the four major elements found in the chemicals that comprise the human body?
A)nitrogen,oxygen,calcium,sodium
B)hydrogen,carbon,phosphorus,calcium
C)carbon,hydrogen,oxygen and nitrogen
D)oxygen,nitrogen,potassium,calcium
E)potassium,phosphorus,sodium,hydrogen
Answer: C
Q3) List three factors that increase the rate of chemical reactions.
Answer: Three factors that increase reaction rates are the presence of enzymes (catalysts),increased concentration of reactants,and increased temperature.
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4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the transport process by which gases,like O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub>,move through a membrane?
A)osmosis
B)active transport
C)secondary active transport
D)simple diffusion
E)endocytosis
Answer: D
Q2) During this phase of cell division,organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Answer: A
Q3) Define homologous chromosomes.
Answer: Homologous chromosomes contain similar genes arranged in the same (or almost the same)order.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______ component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers,and functions to support and bind cells in the tissue together?
A)matrix
B)formed elements
C)ground substance
D)basement membrane
Q2) Vitamin C is needed for healthy collagen fibers.What tissue will not be as affected if vitamin C was absent or present in low amounts?
A)Denser regular connective tissue
B)Fibrocartilage tissue
C)Bone tissue
D)Elastic tissue
E)Transitional tissue
Q3) Mucous membranes line many passages.Select all that apply.
A)digestive
B)respiratory
C)urinary
D)reproductive
E)auditory
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual allergic to peanut butter eats a snack containing trace amounts.While the reaction is not severe,the individual shows signs of elevated patches all over their skin.These patches are
A)urticaria
B)contusions
C)papules
D)cysts
E)calluses
Q2) Anorexia may cause adults to develop fine,unpigmented hairs to help with warmth and insulation.Which type of hair is described?
A)Terminal
B)Vellus
C)Lanugo
D)Papilla
Q3) A raised scar that extends into previously normal tissue is a(n)
A)hypertrophic scar
B)keloid scar
C)granulation scar
D)epidermal scar
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) If bone is analogous to a bank,calcium is analogous to ______.
A)deposits
B)withdrawals
C)money
D)bank teller
E)automatic teller machine
Q2) Place the events of a fracture repair in order.
A: A hematoma will form and will form a temporary connection between the ends of the bones.
B: Fibroblasts and chondroblasts migrate from the periosteum and begin to produce fibrocartilage to connect the ends of the bones.
C: Osteoclasts resorb dead portions of the new bony area,and compact bone replaces spongy bone.
D:Osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts and produce spongy bone.
E: Phagocytes and osteoclasts begin to remove dead and damaged tissue.
A)A,B,E,C,D
B)A,E,B,D,C
C)E,A,B,D,C
D)A,E,D,B,C
Q3) Describe the steps in bone repair.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joe was found dead.His hyoid bone was broken.What was the most likely cause of death?
A)natural causes
B)cardiac arrest
C)gun shot
D)strangulation
E)choking
Q2) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels,nerves and ligaments pass is called a
A)fissure.
B)foramen.
C)fossa.
D)meatus.
E)sulcus.
Q3) The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the
A)spinous process of a thoracic vertebra.
B)spinous process of a lumbar vertebra.
C)transverse process of a thoracic vertebra.
D)xiphoid process of the sternum.
E)manubrium of the sternum.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which process on the femur serves as an attachment point for tendons of several thigh muscles?
A)gluteal tuberosity
B)linea aspera
C)medial epicondyle
D)Both gluteal tuberosity and linea aspera
E)Both linea aspera and medial epicondyle
Q2) Shoulder (glenohumeral)dislocations are very common in emergency care.Which statement best describes an anterior shoulder dislocation?
A)Humeral head is in front of the glenoid cavity
B)Humeral head is below the acromion process
C)Humeral head is above the coracoid process
D)Humeral head is below the glenoid cavity
Q3) Which of the following is the largest foramen in the human skeleton?
A)acetabulum
B)obturator foramen
C)vertebral foramen
D)mental foramen
E)foramen magnum
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the three functional classifications of joints,and briefly describe the basis for the functional classification of joints.
Q2) Articular discs
1)maintain the stability of a joint.
2)direct flow of the synovial fluid to areas of greatest friction.
3)are made of hyaline cartilage.
4)are only found in the vertebral column.
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)4 only
E)1 and 2
Q3) Studies have shown that ACL tears occur most frequently during the ovulatory phase in menstruating women.This example illustrates which factor affecting range of motion of a synovial joint?
A)structure of articulating bones
B)arrangement of the muscles
C)hormones
D)disuse
E)contact of soft parts
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Chapter 10: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristics describe both skeletal and cardiac muscle?
A)striations
B)autorhymicity
C)cell shape
D)autonomic control
E)somatic control
Q2) Place the muscle tissue type in order from least to most ability to regenerate.
A)smooth,skeletal,cardiac
B)skeletal,cardiac,smooth
C)cardiac,smooth,skeletal
D)skeletal,smooth,cardiac
E)cardiac,skeletal,smooth
Q3) For the muscle to contract and relax,what must be present (choose all that apply)?
A)ATP
B)calcium ions
C)ACh
D)sodium ions
Q4) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
Q5) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What terms can be used to describe forearm muscle movements at the wrist but NOT on the fingers at the interphalangeal joints?
A)flexion,extension,abduction,and adduction
B)extension and flexion
C)abduction and adduction
D)flexion and adduction
E)pronation and supination
Q2) With reference to the effort and load,describe the main difference between a lever operating with a mechanical advantage versus a lever operating at a mechanical disadvantage.
Q3) The attachment of a muscle's tendon to the stationary bone is called the _____;the attachment of the muscle's other tendon to the movable bone is called the _____.
A)origin,action
B)insertion,action
C)origin,insertion
D)insertion,origin
Q4) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
Q5) Name and describe the locations and actions of the muscles typically used in breathing.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once the membrane potential reaches a threshold voltage,hundreds of voltage-gated [dropdown 1] channels in that region of the membrane to open briefly.[dropdown 2] ions flood into the cell,completely [dropdown 3] the membrane.
Dropdown 1choices:
calcium chloride
potassium
sodium
Dropdown 2 choices
Calcium
Chloride
Potassium
Sodium
Dropdown 3 choices:
depolarizing
hyperpolarizing
repolarizing
Q2) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q3) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pupillary reflex is integrated in the brain stem so it is classified as a ________reflex.The smooth muscle of the iris is the effector,so this is classified as a(n)___________.
A)Spinal;somatic
B)Spinal;autonomic
C)Cranial;somatic
D)Cranial;autonomic
E)Spinal;visceral
Q2) Which branch of a spinal nerve serves the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk?
A)Meningeal branch
B)Rami communicantes
C)Intercostal nerve
D)Posterior ramus
E)Anterior ramus
Q3) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
Q4) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.
Q5) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q6) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pineal gland is located in the [dropdown 1] but the release of melatonin is controlled by the [dropdown 2] which is part of the [dropdown 3].
dropdown 1and dropdown 3 choices:
thalamus
hypothalamus
epithalamus
dropdown 2 choices:
suprachiasmatic nucleus
habenular nuclei
midline nucleus
reticular nucleus
Q2) [___] is found in the medulla oblongata and receives sensory information associated with touch,pressure and vibration.
Dropdown choices:
Gracile nucleus
Inferior olivary nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Red nucleus
Substantia nigra
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons leaving the superior cervical ganglion primarily serve what regions? Select all that apply
A)Abdominal
B)Pelvic
C)Heart
D)Head
E)Lungs
Q2) Splanchnic nerves are primarily
A)sympathetic pregagnlionic fibers
B)parasympathetic pregagnlionic fibers
C)sympathetic postgagnlionic fibers
D)parasympathetic postgagnlionic fibers
Q3) In a sympathetic division motor pathway,which neurotransmitter is released at the kidney?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Acetylcholine
C)Epinephrine
D)Dopamine
E)Serotonin
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor, and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder is characterized by a person's breathing repeatedly stopping for 10 or more seconds while sleeping?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q2) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?
A)One
B)Dozens
C)Hundreds
D)Thousands
E)Two
Q3) Infants spend approximately 50% of their sleeping time in
A)stage one NREM sleep.
B)stage two NREM sleep.
C)stage three NREM sleep.
D)stage four NREM sleep.
E)REM sleep.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opsin looks colorless when trans-retinal is separated from opsin.This is termed
A)isomerization
B)conversion
C)regeneration
D)bleaching
E)transition
Q2) Which structures contain endolymph?
A)saccule,utricle and cochlear duct
B)scala vestibule,scala tympani,and bony labyrinth
C)membranous and bony labyrinth
D)scala vestibule,scala tympani,and cochlear duct
E)cochlear duct,vestibule and semicircular canals
Q3) Pink eye is an infection of the thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the anterior portion of the sclera.What membrane is involved?
A)Palpebral fissure
B)Conjunctiva
C)Lateral commissure
D)Cornea
E)Choroid
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
A)Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
B)Regulates metabolism
C)Regulates glandular secretions
D)Produces electrolytes
E)Controls growth and development
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A)Increased lipolysis
B)Increased glycogenesis
C)Increased gluconeogenesis
D)Increased digestive activities
E)Increased breakdown of proteins
Q3) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates the gonads to secrete progesterone and/or testosterone?
A)Luteinizing hormone
B)TSH
C)Corticotropin
D)Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
E)Growth hormone
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kwashiorkor,a protein deficiency disease typically seen in young children living in developing tropical nations,will have an effect on three different main areas of health related to the blood.Explain why the three areas are effected and which proteins are involved in these functions.
Q2) Which of the following blood cells releases granules that intensify the inflammatory response and promote hypersensitivity (allergic)reactions?
A)Eosinophil
B)Monocyte
C)Lymphocyte
D)Basophil
E)Neutrophil
Q3) Which of the following situations could result in maternal antibodies attacking fetal blood cells during a second pregnancy?
A)Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative
B)Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive
C)Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative
D)Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh positive.
Q4) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Q5) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with a fever,heart murmur,irregular heartbeat,fatigue,loss of appetite and night sweats.As a physician,your diagnosis would be that of endocarditis typically caused by A)a virus
B)an autoimmune condition
C)a bacterial infection
D)exposure to radiation
E)cancer
Q2) Describe the recent research that showed significant replacement of heart cells is possible as well as the presence of stem cells in heart muscle tissue.
Q3) Athletes tend to have higher cardiac reserves because A)they produce less epinephrine.
B)they eat more protein and vitamins.
C)their hearts operate more efficiently due to training
D)they take in less oxygen than average individuals
E)they put out more carbon dioxide than average individuals
Q4) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.
Q5) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main difference between the pulmonary and systemic circulations with respect to their autoregulatory response to a drop in blood O<sub>2</sub> level?
Q2) A blockage in the proximal portion of the right subclavian artery will not only affect circulation to the right arm,but also to the
A)left arm
B)left ventricle
C)right ventricle
D)left vertebral artery
E)left common carotid artery
Q3) The pulmonary circulatory route carries blood from the
A)right atrium to the right ventricle.
B)right ventricle to the left atrium.
C)left atrium to the left ventricle.
D)left ventricle to the right atrium.
E)left ventricle to the coronary sinus.
Q4) Describe the vessel wall characteristics of the five main types of blood vessels that blood travels through from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it returns to the right atrium.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The left subclavian vein receives lymph from the
A)Left axillary vein
B)Lumbar trunk
C)Jugular trunk
D)Thoracic duct
E)Right lymphatic duct
Q2) Which anti-microbial substances reduce viral replication in uninfected cells?
A)Transferrins
B)Perforins
C)Complement proteins
D)Defensins
E)Interferons
Q3) Which of the following C3 activation pathways involves antigen-antibody complexes leading to inflammation,enhancement of phagocytosis and lysis of microbes?
A)Classical pathway
B)Alternative pathway
C)Apoptosis
D)Lectin pathway
E)Opsonization
Q4) List the five actions of antibodies.
24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gas law that describes the pressure changes that occur during pulmonary ventilation is
A)Boyle's law
B)Charles' law
C)Henry's law
D)The inhalation law
E)The law of partial pressure
Q2) The sum of the partial pressures of nitrogen,oxygen,argon,carbon dioxide,water vapor and other gasses in our environment is called
A)environmental pressure
B)gaseous pressure
C)total partial pressure
D)atmospheric pressure
E)vapor pressure
Q3) Describe and explain the effects of smoking on the functioning of the respiratory system.
Q4) Describe the inward forces of elastic recoil,and explain why the lungs do not normally collapse during expiration.
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is called
1)Motility
2)Propulsion
3)Digestion
4)Defecation
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)4 only
E)Both 1 and 2
Q2) The substance that helps bacteria stick to teeth is
A)glucose
B)sucrose
C)fructose
D)galactose
E)dextran
Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of the small intestine that enhance its function as the major absorber of nutrients.
Q4) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
Q5) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is
A)Decrease in the formation of ketone bodies
B)Increase in ATP production
C)Inhibition of insulin
D)Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure
E)Increase in lipolysis
Q2) Most cholesterol medications are designed to:
A)Inhibit excretion of bile in the feces
B)Promote the absorption of cholesterol
C)Decrease the filtration of cholesterol
D)Inhibit glucose absorption
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a form of phosphorylation?
A)Reduction phosphorylation
B)Substrate level phosphorylation
C)Oxidative phosphorylation
D)Photophosphorylation
E)None of these choices
Q4) What is the difference between a complete protein and an incomplete protein?
Q5) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Urea recycling can cause a buildup of urea in the
A)renal capsule
B)nephron loop
C)ascending tubule
D)renal medulla
E)renal pelvis
Q2) Trace the flow of a water molecule through the nephrons from the afferent arteriole to the minor calyx.
Q3) Increased secretion of aldosterone would result in a(n)[dropdown 1] of blood [dropdown 2]?
Dropdown 1 choices: decrease increase
Dropdown 2 choices:
calcium levels
pH potassium sodium volume
Q4) Describe the flow of blood through the kidneys.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following makes up the largest single component of the human body?
A)Skin
B)Water
C)Blood
D)Organs
E)Electrolytes
Q2) Which imbalance results when systemic arterial blood CO<sub>2</sub> levels raise to abnormal values?
A)Metabolic alkalosis
B)Metabolic acidosis
C)Respiratory acidosis
D)Respiratory alkalosis
E)None of these choices
Q3) A decline in angiotensin II levels does NOT result in
A)Increased GFR
B)Reduced Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup> reabsorption by the kidneys
C)Reduced water reabsorption by the kidneys
D)Increased Calcium reabsorption
E)Increased urine output
Q4) Explain why infants suffer dehydration far more easily than adults.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trace the path of a sperm cell from the site of its maturation to the site where it leaves the male body.Include descriptions of fluids added along that path.
Q2) The most effective technique for detecting breast tumors less than 1 cm in diameter is
A)ultrasound
B)MRI
C)PET scan
D)CAT scan
E)mammography
Q3) The most common cancer in males between the ages of 20 and 35 is
A)pancreatic cancer
B)testicular cancer
C)prostate cancer
D)penile cancer
E)all are equally prevalent
Q4) Describe the contributions of the reproductive systems to the integumentary systems.
Q5) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q6) Describe the functions of testosterone.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red-green color blindness is a recessive,X-linked trait represented as X<sup>c</sup>.(Normal color vision is represented as X<sup>C</sup>. )If a daughter has red-green color blindness,what must the genotypes of her parents be?
Q2) Which is the effector when oxytocin stimulates milk ejection?
A)glandular cells
B)plasma cells
C)neurosecretory cells
D)myoepithelial cells
E)all of these work together
Q3) Which condition listed is a malpresentation in which the fetal buttocks or lower limbs present into the maternal pelvis?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q4) Explain how certain types of clothing may lead to male infertility.
Q5) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Q6) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
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