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Biomechanics explores the principles of mechanics as they relate to biological systems, focusing on the analysis of human movement and the mechanical properties of tissues, bones, and muscles. The course examines how forces interact within the body and how these forces influence motion, stability, and injury. Students learn to apply concepts from physics and engineering to understand gait, posture, and athletic performance, as well as to evaluate and design solutions for rehabilitation, prosthetics, and ergonomic challenges. Through theoretical study and practical application, the course provides foundational knowledge essential for careers in medicine, physical therapy, sports science, and biomedical engineering.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Q1) When the scapula moves into a protracted position,they move in what direction in relation to the spine?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Medial
D) Lateral
Answer: D
Q2) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
Q3) When a condition involves both of the legs,which of the following terms best describes this situation?
A) Unilateral
B) Ipsilateral
C) Bilateral
D) Contralateral
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A) Gives shape and support
B) Protects vital organs
C) Manufactures blood cells
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) A bone marking that consists of a rounded anterior projection is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: C
Q3) The scapula is an example of which type of bone?
A) Short
B) Flat
C) Irregular
D) Sesamoid
Answer: B
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Q1) What type of structure is located where tendons pass over a bone or joint and serves to decrease friction?
A) Cartilage
B) Fat pad
C) Bursa
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
Q2) Shoulder abduction occurs in which plane and around which axis?
A) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
B) Frontal plane through a frontal axis
C) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
D) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis
Answer: A
Q3) A broad,flat tendinous sheet is called
A) linea alba.
B) aponeurosis.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) labrum.
Answer: B
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Q1) Hip abduction is an example of which type of motion?
A) Arthrokinematic
B) Osteokinematic
C) Angular
D) Torque
Q2) The type of end feel that is defined by a lack of normal mechanical limitation of joint ROM is
A) capsular.
B) soft.
C) empty.
D) bony.
Q3) The type of abnormal end feel characterized by the presence of soft tissue edema is which of the following?
A) Boggy end feel
B) Springy block
C) Empty end feel
D) Soft tissue approximation
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of a concentric contraction?
A) Muscle attachments move closer together.
B) This type of contraction produces less of a force than an eccentric contraction.
C) Movement occurs against gravity.
D) A concentric contraction is an acceleration activity.
Q2) If a person threw a Frisbee and wanted wrist radial deviation,which muscle group would be the antagonist?
A) Wrist radial deviators
B) Wrist ulnar deviators
C) Wrist flexors
D) Wrist extensors
Q3) The deltoid muscle can effectively contract through its entire ROM because of the upward rotation of the scapula,which serves to maintain tension in the deltoid muscle.If the deltoid loses tension,it becomes
A) passively insufficient.
B) actively insufficient.
C) noncontractile.
D) None of the above
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Q1) A person experiencing "foot drop" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) The "stress-response" and stimulation part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)is the sympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person with weakness of knee extension has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q4) A person experiencing "ape hand" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
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Q1) At which vertebral level does the descending aorta branch into the common iliac arteries?
A) T10
B) T12
C) L2
D) L4
Q2) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the forearm and hand is which of the following?
A) Radial and ulnar
B) Axillary
C) Subclavian
D) Internal iliac
Q3) A type of cerebral hemorrhage that occurs in a vein with symptoms that occur over time is which of the following?
A) Epidural bleed
B) Ischemic bleed
C) Varicose bleed
D) Subdural bleed
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Q1) In order to decrease the challenge of a client working on balance,you would do which of the following?
A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support
B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support
D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
Q2) A muscle that generates most of its force directed back into the joint is producing which type of force?
A) Angular force
B) Stabilizing force
C) Dislocating force
D) Force couple
Q3) The law of motion best demonstrated when a person in a wheelchair gains speed when she pushes on the rims is the
A) law of inertia.
B) law of acceleration.
C) law of action-reaction.
D) law of physics.
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Q1) Which muscle originates from the spinous processes of C7-T5 and inserts on the vertebral border of the scapula between the inferior angle and the spine of the scapula?
A) Middle trapezius
B) Rhomboids
C) Teres major
D) Serratus anterior
Q2) The ligament that forms an arch over the head of the humerus is the
A) coracoclavicular ligament.
B) costoclavicular ligament.
C) coracoacromial ligament.
D) interclavicular ligament.
Q3) A person who lacks the free motion of upward rotation is limited in which of the following shoulder joint motions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Abduction
D) A and C
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Q1) A patient with specific point tenderness in the axillary region has involvement of which muscle?
A) Teres minor
B) Supraspinatus
C) Subscapularis
D) Pectoralis minor
Q2) All of the following can contribute to joint subluxation of the glenohumeral joint EXCEPT
A) weight of the upper extremity.
B) gravity.
C) shallow glenoid fossa.
D) strong lateral capsular ligaments.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the medial one-third of the clavicle and inserts on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove?
A) Anterior deltoid
B) Supraspinatus
C) Pectoralis major,clavicular portion
D) Coracobrachialis
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Q1) Which ligament spans the elbow longitudinally (long ways)on the little finger side of the elbow?
A) Lateral collateral ligament
B) Annular ligament
C) Medial collateral ligament
D) Proximal radioulnar ligament
Q2) The bony landmark of the ulna,which forms the prominent posterior point of the elbow,is which of the following?
A) Olecranon fossa
B) Olecranon process
C) Coronoid process
D) Radial head
Q3) The broad,flat membrane located longitudinally between the radius and the ulna is called the
A) thoracolumbar fascia.
B) joint capsule.
C) interosseous membrane.
D) annular ligament.
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Q1) The three wrist extensors are innervated by which nerve?
A) Median nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
Q2) A person needing to stretch the wrist flexors needs to put the wrist in which of the following positions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Radial deviation
D) All of the above will stretch the wrist flexors.
Q3) Paralysis of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Median nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
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Q1) Which muscle does NOT make up the anatomical snuffbox?
A) Abductor pollicis brevis
B) Extensor pollicis brevis
C) Extensor pollicis longus
D) Abductor pollicis longus
Q2) A person with inflammation in the carpal tunnel could have weakness in any of the following muscles EXCEPT the
A) extensor digitorum.
B) flexor digitorum superficialis.
C) flexor digitorum profundus.
D) abductor pollicis brevis.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the flexor digitorum profundus tendon and inserts on the tendon of the extensor digitorum muscle?
A) Palmar interossei
B) Dorsal interossei
C) Flexor pollicis brevis
D) Lumbricales
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Q1) The TMJ motion named for opening of the mouth is which of the following?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Lateral deviation
D) Retrusion
Q2) All of the following muscles are prime movers in mandibular elevation EXCEPT the A) lateral pterygoid.
B) medial pterygoid.
C) temporalis.
D) masseter.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid and tuberosity of the maxilla and inserts on the ramus and angle of the mandible?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Medial pterygoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
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Q1) The quadratus lumborum is a prime mover in which of the following trunk motions?
A) Trunk flexion
B) Compression of abdominal contents
C) Trunk extension
D) Lateral bending
Q2) Having a client bend the hips and knees to do sit-ups for abdominal strengthening instead of keeping the legs straight serves what purpose?
A) Makes the stronger hip flexors passively insufficient
B) Makes the stronger hip flexors actively insufficient
C) Makes the trunk flexors less actively insufficient
D) Has no role in muscle work; makes the exercise look easier for better patient compliance
Q3) All of the following muscles,when contracted unilaterally,will produce lateral bend of the spine EXCEPT the
A) intertransversarii.
B) scalene.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) external oblique.
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Q1) During inspiration,air moves into the lungs due to which of the following explanations?
A) The size of the thoracic cavity decreases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
B) The size of the thoracic cavity increases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
C) Gravity allows it to flow from the nose down into the lungs.
D) None of the above explains why this happens.
Q2) A person with a spinal cord injury above which of the following levels would require ventilator dependency?
A) L1
B) T8
C) C6
D) C3
Q3) At rest,what is the shape of the diaphragm muscle?
A) Concave
B) Dome-shaped
C) Convex
D) The diaphragm doesn't change shape with rest or when contracted.
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Q1) The supporting ligament of the symphysis pubis that attaches to the pubic tubercles is the
A) sacrospinous ligament.
B) iliolumbar ligament.
C) inferior pubic ligament.
D) superior pubic ligament.
Q2) The pelvic force couple that combine to pull the pelvis into an anterior tilt are the A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.
B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.
C) hip extensors and trunk flexors.
D) hip extensors and trunk extensors.
Q3) The rotation of the pelvis when the left foot begins the swing phase in gait is A) anterior left rotation.
B) posterior left rotation.
C) anterior right rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
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Q1) The bony landmark of the femur located medially and posteriorly on the proximal end is called the
A) lesser trochanter.
B) greater trochanter.
C) medial condyle.
D) linea aspera.
Q2) Your patient has been in bed for months and has developed lateral hip rotator contractures.The muscles you need to strengthen to improve hip alignment are the A) gluteus minimus.
B) gluteus medius.
C) deep rotators.
D) gluteus maximus.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the ischium and pubis and inserts on the entire linea aspera and adductor tubercle?
A) Adductor brevis
B) Adductor longus
C) Adductor magnus
D) Vastus lateralis
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Q1) Which muscle is responsible for "unlocking" the knee?
A) Popliteus
B) Plantaris
C) Soleus
D) Posterior tibialis
Q2) Which of the following ligaments prevents excessive forward movement of the tibia on the femur?
A) Lateral meniscus
B) Medial collateral
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
D) Genu labrum
Q3) Which muscle has its origin at the linea aspera,runs lateral at the thigh,and has its insertion at the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon?
A) Vastus medialis
B) Adductor magnus
C) Tensor fascia latae
D) Vastus lateralis
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Q1) With an ankle sprain,the most common direction of the twist and the tissue damaged is which of the following?
A) Rolling to an everted position and spraining the deltoid ligament
B) Rolling to an everted position and spraining the lateral ligament
C) Rolling to an inverted position and spraining the deltoid ligament
D) Rolling to an inverted position and spraining the lateral ligament
Q2) If a patient has damage to the nerve supplying the anterior compartment of the lower leg,you would expect to focus efforts on strengthening which group of muscles?
A) Ankle evertors
B) Ankle plantar flexors
C) Toe flexors
D) Ankle dorsiflexors
Q3) Your patient had a short leg cast that was too tight and bruised the superficial peroneal nerve.You would expect weakness in which of the following muscles?
A) Extensor digitorum longus
B) Anterior tibialis
C) Peroneus longus
D) Gastrocnemius
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Q1) The pelvis is considered to be in a neutral position when which of the following landmarks are in the same plane?
A) The anterior inferior iliac spines and posterior inferior iliac spines are level
B) The anterior superior iliac spines and posterior superior iliac spines are level
C) The anterior superior iliac spines and symphysis pubis are in the same vertical plane
D) B and C
Q2) For optimal lateral view standing posture,a plumb line should be aligned with all of the following landmarks except
A) through the earlobe.
B) through the acromion process of the shoulder.
C) the anterior to the greater trochanter.
D) the posterior to the patella.
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Q1) Which muscle group slows down the knee motion in terminal swing and prevents the knee from "snapping" into extension just prior to initial contact?
A) Hip flexors
B) Knee flexors
C) Hip extensors
D) Knee extensors
Q2) Your patient has a long leg cast on the left leg but is allowed to bear weight while ambulating.During the swing phase,what will you likely see that person do to move that limb forward?
A) Extend the trunk
B) Shift the trunk to the left side during swing phase
C) Circumduct the left hip
D) Flex the knee on the right side
Q3) Having paralysis of the ankle dorsiflexors would cause which type of gait?
A) Steppage gait
B) Bell clapper gait
C) Sore foot limp
D) Rocking horse gait
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