Biology of Microorganisms
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protists. It covers fundamental aspects of microbial physiology, genetics, structure, and metabolism, emphasizing the roles microorganisms play in nature, industry, and human health. Students will learn about microbial diversity, ecological interactions, mechanisms of disease, and the principles of immunology. Laboratory components are designed to reinforce theoretical knowledge by developing practical skills in microbial culturing, identification, and experimentation.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 8th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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1891 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called A)biotechnology.
B)genetics.
C)recombinant DNA.
D)phylogeny.
E)taxonomy.
Answer: D
Q2) A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach.
Answer: deductive
Q3) Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A)microbes are found on dust particles.
B)a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
C)life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
D)a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
E)microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A)triglycerides
B)monosaccharides
C)polypeptides
D)polysaccharides
E)ATP
Answer: D
Q2) One nucleotide contains
A)one phosphate.
B)one pentose.
C)one nitrogen base.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____.
Answer: nucleic acids
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?
A)streak plate
B)spread plate
C)pour plate
D)All of the choices are correct
E)None of the choices are correct
Answer: C
Q2) The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the _____.
Answer: inoculum
Q3) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
A)fastidious.
B)pathogenic.
C)harmless.
D)anaerobic.
E)aerobic.
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sarcinae refers to A)cocci in pairs.
B)a cuboidal packet of cells.
C)groups of endopsores.
D)coffee-bean shaped rods in pairs.
E)vibrios in threes.
Q2) The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts: the _____, the hook, and the basal body.
Q4) The enzyme _____, that is found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls.
Q5) The bacterial chromosome
A)is located in the cell membrane.
B)contains all the cell's plasmids.
C)is part of the nucleoid.
D)forms a single linear strand of DNA.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A)Sarcodina.
B)Ciliophora.
C)Mastigophora.
D)Apicomplexa.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota?
A)Based on their ability to cause diseases in animals.
B)Based on whether they have a cap containing gills.
C)Based on if the fungus lacks a sexual state.
D)Based on if they have a special fungal sac.
E)Based on if they can grow in acidic soil.
Q3) Fungi are autotrophic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
Q5) Compare and contrast the yeasts and molds with regard to: a) microscopic cellular morphology, b) macroscopic colony morphology, and c) reproduction.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) T-even phages
A)include the poxviruses.
B)infect Escherichia coli cells.
C)enter host cells by engulfment.
D)have helical capsids.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Infectious naked strands of RNA are called A)viroids.
B)phages.
C)prions.
D)oncogenic viruses.
E)spikes.
Q4) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
Q5) Discuss the criteria used for classifying viruses into families and genera.
Q6) A naked virus does not have an _____.
Q7) A _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to all of the following, except:
A)the depletion of nutrients.
B)the depletion of oxygen.
C)the excretion of biochemical pollutants.
D)the excretion of organic acids.
E)the decrease in temperature of the culture.
Q2) The term chemotroph refers to an organism that:
A)uses CO<sub>2</sub> for its carbon source.
B)must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
C)gets energy from sunlight.
D)gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
E)does not need a carbon source.
Q3) Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In _____ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is:
A)the final step of the Krebs cycle.
B)the first redox reaction of the electron transport system.
C)an example of oxidative phosphorylation.
D)an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
E)an example of photophosphorylation.
Q2) _____ testing can differentiate between bacterial species fermentation that produce mixed acids or 2, 3 butanediol.
Q3) ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ enzymes have an active site, and an additional regulatory site for non-substrate attachment.
Q5) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in biosynthetic pathways.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Semiconservative replication refers to
A)each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar.
B)a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.
C)one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.
D)an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Each _____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product.
Q3) The duplication of a cell's DNA is called A)mitosis.
B)replication.
C)transcription.
D)translation.
E)mutation.
Q4) Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
Q5) A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a _____.
Q6) Each nucleotide is composed of one phosphate, one 5-carbon _____, and one _____ base.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amplification of DNA is accomplished by
A)polymerase chain reaction.
B)DNA sequencing.
C)gene probes.
D)Southern blot.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:
A)cloning
B)gene therapy
C)antisense therapeutic
D)DNA fingerprinting
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Q5) Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Pseudomonas
C)Hemophilus influenzae
D)Mycobacteria tuberculosis
E)Salmonella
Q2) All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except:
A)it can kill bacterial pathogens on the food.
B)it can kill insects on the food.
C)it can inhibit the sprouting of white potatoes.
D)it can reduce the number of food-borne deaths each year.
E)it makes the food less nutritious.
Q3) Explain why boiling water is considered disinfection, not a sterilization method.List three materials commonly disinfected by boiling water.
Q4) _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.
Q5) Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except
A)they should be given early in an infection.
B)they prevent assembly and release of the virus.
C)they are used to treat infections by influenza A and B.
D)they inhibit fusion and uncoating of the virus.
E)they are effective prophylactics for influenza.
Q2) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for AZT?
A)It is a thymine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis.
B)It directly binds to reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA.
C)It inhibits the assembly of HIV particles.
D)It inhibits fusion of the viral envelope and host cell envelope.
E)It prevents the viral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome.
Q3) An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
A)blocks penetration.
B)blocks DNA replication.
C)inhibits peptidoglycan cross linking.
D)blocks maturation.
E)bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
A)prodromal stage.
B)convalescent stage.
C)incubation period.
D)period of invasion.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
Q4) Which is mismatched?
A)Fimbriae - adherence to substrate
B)Capsules - antiphagocytic factor
C)Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
D)Leukocidins - damage white blood cells
E)Hemolysins - damage red blood cells
Q5) Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the cell morphology, colors, and percentage of the total white blood cell count for each type of white blood cell that would be distinguished by a hematologist analyzing a stained blood smear.
Q2) Children with DiGeorge Syndrome are born without a thymus.Discuss, in detail, the repercussions to body defense mechanisms caused by this disease.
Q3) Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all
A)vasoactive mediators.
B)mediators of B cell activity.
C)mediators of T cell activity.
D)mediators that increase chemotaxis.
E)fever inducers.
Q4) When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into _____.
Q5) During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Class I MHC genes code for A)certain secreted complement components.
B)markers that display unique characteristics of self.
C)all HLA antigens.
D)receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells.
E)all of the choices are correct.
Q2) The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q4) Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one antigenic determinant.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms?
A)T cells
B)monocytes
C)plasma cells
D)mast cells
E)eosinophils
Q3) All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance, except A)macrophages.
B)natural killer cells.
C)cytotoxic T cells.
D)plasma cells.
E)All of the choices participate.
Q4) Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a Type _____ hypersensitivity.
Q6) The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed _____.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why do many physicians feel that stool cultures are not necessary, except in certain circumstances when diagnosing GI tract infections?
Q3) Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Soluble antigens are detected in which type of test?
A)cross-reactions
B)agglutination
C)precipitation
D)specificity
E)sensitivity
Q5) Some diseases are diagnosed without the need to identify microbes from a patient specimen.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When collecting __________, a "clean catch" method is often used. Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Q1) Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Meningococcemia is:
A)common during gonorrhea.
B)associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae.
C)frequently seen in elderly.
D)caused by a gram positive diplococcus.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include:
A)otitis media.
B)meningitis.
C)lobar pneumonia.
D)bronchial pneumonia.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss how normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause disease in the body, and describe the diseases that it causes.
Page 21
Q5) The two important hemolysins of Group A streptococci are _____ and _____.
Q6) Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group _____ streptococci.B
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except:
A)live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.
B)symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats.
C)lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.
D)the BCG vaccine is used in other countries.
E)antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
Q2) Treatment and control of anthrax includes:
A)use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases.
B)vaccination of livestock.
C)toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure.
D)proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) All of the following pertain to listeriosis, except:
A)it causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea, and sore throat.
B)it causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised, and infants.
C)intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death.
D)adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention.
Page 23
E)enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Q1) Plague includes:
A)septicemic form - called Black Death.
B)bubonic form - buboes develop.
C)pneumonic form - sputum highly contagious.
D)disease control - control of rodent population.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The virulence factor associated with the events of gram negative sepsis and septic shock is _____.
Q3) Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except
A)it is spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces.
B)it is transmitted by ingesting fecal contaminated food and water.
C)it can cause chronic carriers to have pathogens in their gallbladder.
D)it can infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
E)it can become a septicemia, spread to lymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses.
Q4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis. Page 24
Q5) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called _____.
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Which is incorrect about Lyme disease?
A)It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut.
B)Its reservoirs are mice and deer.
C)It is transmitted by ticks.
D)It is nonfatal.
E)It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions.
Q2) All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel except A)fluoride.
B)lysozyme in saliva.
C)antibodies in saliva.
D)refined sugar.
E)genetics.
Q3) Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A)tick-borne relapsing fever.
B)ornithosis.
C)epidemic typhus.
D)Q fever.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following areas are subject to intertriginous infections, except
A)between folds of the groin.
B)under breasts.
C)in the armpit.
D)behind the knees.
E)chest.
Q3) Dermatophyte spores can survive for years on fomites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.
Q5) The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is
A)the urinary tract.
B)through skin.
C)the respiratory tract.
D)the nervous system.
E)the digestive system.
Q6) Dermatophytes digest the protein _____, found in the skin, hair, and nails.
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths?
A)freezing foods
B)thoroughly cooking foods
C)proper sewage disposal
D)avoiding human feces as fertilizer
E)These are all effective ways.
Q2) Schistosomiasis involves
A)a blood fluke.
B)eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidium.
C)snails allow development into cercaria.
D)cercariae enter hair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The usual definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus is A)humans.
B)pigs.
C)cats.
D)dogs.
E)bears.
Q4) The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called _____.
28
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
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Q1) Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the:
A)Herpesviruses.
B)Poxviruses.
C)Adenoviruses.
D)Papovaviruses.
E)Parvoviruses.
Q2) Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles?
A)developing malignancy
B)X-ray treatments
C)immunosuppressive conditions
D)surgery
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The hepadnaviruses:
A)include the adenoviruses.
B)show tropism for the liver.
C)are transmitted by respiratory secretions.
D)are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
Page 29
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except:
A)The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain.
B)Treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering.
C)The virus is transmitted through fecal-oral means.
D)Most infections do not result in paralysis.
E)Dr.Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954.
Q2) Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of: A)croup.
B)mumps.
C)influenza.
D)measles (rubeola).
E)rubella.
Q3) The major agents responsible for the common cold are:
A)Coxsackie viruses.
B)Rhinoviruses.
C)Influenza viruses.
D)Caliciviruses.
E)Rotavirus.
Q4) The influenza virus uses _____ spikes to bind to host cells.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the specific effects caused by the runoff of organic industrial waste into a freshwater stream.
Q2) How does methyl mercury affect living things?
A)It interferes with translation of mRNA.
B)It interferes with DNA replication.
C)It inhibits transcription.
D)It precipitates proteins.
E)It inhibits the electron transport chain during cellular respiration.
Q3) Draw an energy pyramid and provide specific examples of each level.
Q4) Which of the following regions includes the seashore?
A)Littoral zone
B)Limnetic zone
C)Photic zone
D)Benthic zone
E)Estuary zone
Q5) _____ is a floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.
Q6) What is "nitrogen fixation" and how do legumes play a role in this important cycle?
Q7) An _____ is a region where the river meets the sea.
Page 31
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) ____________ protein can be produced from waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-products to be used as a food.
Q2) Why are cases of food borne illnesses escalating in the United States despite our knowledge of how to prevent outbreaks?
Q3) Freshly fermented beer is lagered, meaning it is treated with potassium metabisulfate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Downstream processing includes all the following except A)recovery
B)purification
C)packaging
D)growth of the microorganism
E)It includes all of the above.
Q5) The microbes used by fermentation industries are mutant strains that synthesize large quantities of the desired product.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A _____ is a device used for growing mass cultures.
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