Biology for Non-Majors Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed to provide students without a science background with a foundational understanding of biological concepts and their relevance to everyday life. The course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasizing the scientific method and critical thinking, students will explore how biology impacts human health, environmental issues, and technological advances. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, the course fosters scientific literacy and an appreciation of the role biology plays in society.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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3839 Verified Questions
3839 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostasis is
A) the ability to sense and response to change
B) maintaining an internal environment within parameters that favor survival
C) essential for all living things
D) not found in nonliving things
E) all of these
Answer: E
Q2) Living organisms are members of all of the levels listed below.However,soil is a component of
A) the community.
B) the population.
C) the ecosystem.
D) the biosphere.
E) both the community and the biosphere.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution
A)Acid
B)Base
C)Neutral
D)Buffer
E)pH
Answer: E
Q2) the basic unit of deoxyribonucleic acid
A)amino acids
B)glucose
C)glycerol
D)fatty acids
E)nucleotide
F)amino acids and glucose
G)amino acids and glycerol
H)glucose and glycerol
I)glucose and fatty acids
J)glycerol and fatty acids
Answer: E
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are primarily structures for the packaging of cellular secretions for export from the cell?
A) Golgi bodies
B) mitochondria
C) lysosomes
D) ribosomes
E) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A
Q2) Cilia and flagella
A) are found only in cells that are actively moving.
B) are found only in sex cells and unicellular organisms.
C) use motor proteins to induce movement.
D) may also function as receptor sites for certain hormones.
E) are found only in one-celled organisms.
Answer: C
Q3) capsule
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following solutions has the potential to diffuse the fastest?
A) one with large molecules as opposed to smaller ones
B) one with a higher concentration of molecules as opposed to one with a lesser concentration
C) one under low pressure as opposed to one under high pressure
D) one at a low temperature as opposed to one at a higher temperature
E) all of these have the potential to diffuse equally fast
Q2) The fact that the earth does not go up in flames in spite of the richness of oxygen in our environment is related to which of the following concepts?
A) the activation energy needed to break bonds.
B) the fact that reactants always have less energy than products.
C) the first law of thermodynmics.
D) the second law of thermodynamics.
E) the abundance of water in our atmosphere which inhibits combustion.
Q3) often a vitamin or mineral that improves enzyme functioning
Q4) process by which atoms from different molecules are recombined to form new molecules
Q5) phosphate-group transfer
Q6) attaching a phosphate group by forming a higher energy bond
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Krebs cycle takes place in the A) ribosomes.
B) cytoplasm.
C) nucleus.
D) mitochondria.
E) chloroplasts.
Q2) Cheese,yogurt,and buttermilk are produced by bacteria that form
A) ethyl alcohol.
B) acetaldehyde.
C) pyruvate.
D) lactate.
E) citrate.
Q3) Four of the five answers listed below are degradation processes for carbon compounds.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) Calvin-Benson cycle
B) Krebs cycle
C) fermentation
D) respiration
E) glycolysis
Q4) results in the formation of ATP,NADH,and CO?
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about complementary base pairing in a DNA molecule?
A) covalent bonds connect two complementary bases.
B) adenine and thymine are complements.
C) guanine and cytosine are complements.
D) double-ring nitrogen containing bases connect to single-ring nitrogen containing bases.
E) more than one of these is NOT true.
Q2) built the first precise model of DNA that implied its method of replication
Q3) In the DNA strand above,which of the following would be the complementary sequence?
A) ACTGAGCATTAG
B) TGACTCGTAATC
C) GTCAGATGCCGA
D) CAGTCTACGGCT
E) CTCAGACGAAGA
Q4) this mutagen causes kinks in the DNA molecule
Q5) The amount of adenine was always equal to the amount of this.
Q6) this mutagen has wavelengths of less than 320 nanometers
Q7) this mutagen causes covalent bonding between adjacent cytosine bases
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of homeotic genes?
A) they control the development of body parts
B) they are highly conserved genes
C) they are specific to specific species
D) PAX6 is an example of one
E) they have been discovered by knockout experiments
Q2) Mutations may be caused
A) during replication.
B) by transposable elements.
C) by UV light and X-ray radiations.
D) during transcription.
E) by all of these.
Q3) What is at the center of a heme molecule in a hemoglobin?
A) a beta globin chain
B) an alpha globin chain
C) iron
D) nitrogen
E) another heme molecule
Q4) site at which RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription
Q5) sites for polypeptide assembly
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells would not proceed past G??
A) most skin cells
B) most liver cells
C) most intestinal cells
D) most red blood cells
E) most nerve cells
Q2) Abnormal cell division that does not pose a threat to surrounding tissues are termed
A) malignant.
B) benign.
C) metastatic.
D) carcinogenic.
E) repressed.
Q3) If a eukaryotic cell divided by binary fission,
A) only one of its offspring would get the nucleus.
B) only one of its offspring would get a complete cytoplasm.
C) only sperm would be produced.
D) only eggs would be produced.
E) the chromosome number would be halved.
Q4) the beginning of interphase
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ABO blood types have ____ different genotypes.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12
E) 16
Q2) If two individuals both heterozygous for the same genes (e.g.,AaBb)mate and have offspring,how many different phenotypes will there be?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) Males more commonly are affected by X-linked recessive genetic disorders than are females because
A) females have two X chromosomes and thus less of a chance to be recessive.
B) males have only one X and thus more of a chance to be recessive.
C) males have only one X, they have multiple alleles for each gene.
D) Y chromosomes cause X gene mutations.
E) males are weaker genetically than females.
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organ system is affected in SCIDs?
A) digestive
B) immune
C) reproductive
D) nervous
E) cardiovascular
Q2) method that rapidly generates many copies of a specific DNA fragment
Q3) Beta- carotene is converted to vitamin ___ in the cells of the small intestine.
A) B12
B) A
C) E
D) C
E) D
Q4) Which of the following components is NOT essential for DNA cloning?
A) plasmids
B) ligases
C) helicases
D) DNA fragments
E) restriction enzymes
Q5) an individual's unique array of short tandem repeats
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fossils are we most likely to find?
A) fossils beneath the Empire State Building
B) fossils of flowers that produce one seed
C) jellyfish fossils
D) fossilized spores from mushrooms
E) fossils of animals living on steep slopes
Q2) Which of the following organisms is most likely to become fossilized?
A) a lake trout
B) a mountain goat
C) a tulip
D) a mushroom
E) all of these organisms are equally likely to fossilize
Q3) The development of your eyes,arms,and legs are guided by which type of genes?
A) dominant
B) homologous
C) recessive
D) homeotic
E) homozygotic
Q4) small glass spheres formed under extreme pressure
Q5) Pangea breaks up
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Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) simultaneous loss of many species
Q2) this type of isolation is most closely related to sexual selection
Q3) Gene flow counters the effects of
A) natural selection.
B) mutation.
C) genetic drift.
D) all of these.
E) none of these.
Q4) The mutation rate for the human species is ___ mutations per base pair per year.
A) 2.2 hundred
B) 2.2 thousand
C) 2.2 million
D) 2.2 billion
E) 2.2 trillion
Q5) Macroevolution may have been caused by A) changes in homeotic genes.
B) small, cumulative genetic changes.
C) exaptation.
D) allopatric speciation.
E) more than one of these.
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Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Algins,compounds used in the food industry,are obtained from A) foraminiferans.
B) brown algae.
C) dinoflagellates.
D) red algae.
E) green algae.
Q2) Which of the following nucleic acid elements is thought that viruses might have evolved from?
A) mRNA
B) introns
C) transposons
D) mitochondrial DNA
E) exons
Q3) Red algae
A) are primarily marine organisms.
B) are thought to have developed from green algae.
C) contain xanthophylls as their main accessory pigments.
D) are actually brown.
E) are all of these.
Q4) These possess an eyespot for detecting light needed for photosynthesis.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) produces seeds but no endosperm
Q2) A typical ovule has how many cells?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
Q3) In the life cycle of vascular plants,a gametophyte forms from a A) zygote.
B) sporophyte.
C) gamete.
D) spore.
E) zygote and a gamete.
Q4) The leaves of ferns are called A) epiphytes.
B) stems.
C) fronds.
D) bracts.
E) rhizomes.
Q5) equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems joined
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lampreys belong to this group.
Q2) A goldfish would be a representative member of this group.
Q3) first opening of the embryo becomes an anus,and the second becomes a mouth
Q4) One feature shared by modern humans and lacking in other Homo species is
A) a chin.
B) a large brain.
C) bipedalism.
D) tool making.
E) legs longer than arms.
Q5) Sea anemones are
A) polyp forms of cnidarians.
B) medusae forms of cnidarians.
C) spongiforms of cnidarians.
D) spongiforms of echinoderms.
E) polyp forms of echinoderms.
Q6) Members of this class are fully terrestrial except for reproduction.
Q7) characteristic shared by all animals
Q8) most likely closest ancestor to H.neanderthalensis and H.sapiens
Q9) having parts arranged around a central axis
Q10) This group contains the most primitive species of the animal kingdom. Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) To a person studying utilization of classroom space on campus,the most useful data concerning students in a classroom would be expressed by the number of
A) total individuals.
B) individuals per square meter.
C) individuals per room.
D) rooms per building.
E) students of each age.
Q2) Death rate drops fast; birth rate declines slowly
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a reason for the rapid explosion of the human population?
A) increase in carrying capacity
B) expansion into new habitat
C) removal of limiting factors
D) reproduction occurring earlier in the life cycle
E) longer generation times
Q4) a necessary resource,the depletion of which halts population growth
Q5) Factors that affect the growth of a population regardless of the number of individuals in that population.
Q6) Long life spans,few offspring,extended care of young
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structure of communities may be affected by A) temperatures.
B) sunlight intensity.
C) humidity.
D) condition of the soil.
E) all of these.
Q2) Species richness and the relative abundance of each species determine
A) the species composition of an ecosystem.
B) the species diversity of a community.
C) the species composition of a population.
D) the species diversity of a biosphere.
E) the species diversity in a niche.
Q3) Solenopsis invicta is a species of ant that was introduced in the United States from A) South America.
B) Canada.
C) Asia.
D) Africa.
E) Europe.
Q4) organism situated at the base of the energy pyramid
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main factor that drives ozone formation?
A) cloud cover
B) rainfall
C) time of day
D) sunlight
E) season
Q2) Which of the following is a tree with needle-shaped leaves that are adaptations that minimize water loss?
A) cacti
B) conifer
C) broadleaf evergreen
D) deciduous angiosperms
E) mesquite
Q3) The distribution of major biomes is controlled mainly by
A) ocean currents.
B) climate.
C) human manipulation.
D) longitude.
E) predator-prey relations.
Q4) species adapted to extremes in water depth daily
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Removes carbon dioxide and wastes; receives and delivers oxygen
Q2) Which structure will integrate sensory information?
A) skin
B) muscle
C) gland
D) brain
E) heart
Q3) Transports nutrients to cells and wastes from cells
Q4) Which tissue type is most likely to become cancerous?
A) connective
B) muscular
C) epithelial
D) neural
E) adipose
Q5) Continued research involving __________ cells may provide cures for many diseases in the future.
Q6) Defends against infection and tissue damage
Q7) tissue that contains endocrine glands
Page 22
Q8) When there is a loss of feeling in your skin as a result of a burn,it is an indication that the burn has damaged down to the __________.
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Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) the protein that has a head
Q2) skeleton of clams
Q3) tendons hold bones of this joint together
Q4) Bones are wrapped in ____ tissue(s).
A) adipose
B) dense connective
C) epithelial
D) loose connective
E) all of these
Q5) What does myoglobin supply for muscle activity?
A) oxygen for aerobic respiration
B) phosphate for ATP formation
C) direct energy for white muscle fiber contraction
D) glucose for lactate fermentation
E) more than one of these
Q6) outer bony layer of long bones
Q7) The myosin power stroke in muscle contraction is triggered when _____ is released.
Q8) In the viral disease,_____,motor neurons are destroyed.
Q9) stores calcium
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Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) This animal has hemolymph that empties into an internal cavity.Which animal is it?
A) a bee
B) a clam
C) a monkey
D) an earthworm
E) more than one of these animals
Q2) site of gas exchange in the lungs
A)alveolus
B)bronchiole
C)epiglottis
D)glottis
E)larynx
F)pharynx
G)trachea
H)spiracle
Q3) structure not found in the human respiratory system
Q4) the windpipe
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24
Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant phagocytes in our immune system arsenal are the A) macrophages.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) dendritic cells.
E) T lymphocytes.
Q2) In which part of the brain contains the body's "thermostat"?
A) hypothalamus
B) amygdala
C) thalamus
D) anterior pituitary gland
E) medulla
Q3) HIV is able to shut down a person's adaptive immunity by attacking which type of cell?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) effector B cells
C) helper T cells
D) macrophages
E) memory B cells
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of salivary mucus is to
A) break down starch.
B) mechanically breakup food materials.
C) make the food particles sticky.
D) hydrate dry food particles.
E) do more than one of these.
Q2) Leptin works to reduce weight gain by
A) preventing absorption of fat by the small intestine.
B) suppressing the urge to eat.
C) making fat less soluble.
D) stimulating the conversion of fat cells into skeletal muscle cells.
E) stimulating the increased production of acid in the stomach that more thoroughly breaks down fatty acids.
Q3) ____ are multicelled projections that protrude from the lining of the small intestine.
A) Sphincters
B) Brush borders
C) Microvilli
D) Villi
E) Macrovilli
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parkinson's disease is caused by a shortage of the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine.
B) serotonin.
C) dopamine.
D) norepinephrine.
E) an endorphin.
Q2) At the height of the action potential,
A) the interstitial fluid is more negatively charged than the cytoplasmic fluid.
B) the interstitial fluid is less negatively charged than the cytoplasmic fluid.
C) the interstitial fluid and the cytoplasmic fluid have the same charge.
D) all sodium and potassium ions rush out of the neuron.
E) both a and d occur.
Q3) The human eye's protective mucus membrane is the A) retina.
B) sclera.
C) cornea.
D) conjunctiva.
E) aqueous humor.
Q4) bridges the cerebrum and the cerebellum,and connects the spinal cord to the forebrain
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) steroid hormone
Q2) Which hormone binds to cancer cell receptors and encourages their cell division?
A) testosterone
B) estrogen
C) glucagon
D) insulin
E) prolactin
Q3) XY individuals with total androgen insensitivity syndrome
A) do not secrete testosterone.
B) secrete testosterone but the testosterone is ineffective.
C) have mutated testosterone receptors in their cells.
D) secrete more estrogen than testosterone.
E) have normal male genitalia.
Q4) Which of the following is correct about melatonin?
A) it protects against certain cancers
B) it encourages the growth of certain cancers
C) it causes a decline in body temperature
D) all of these (a through c) are correct about melatonin
E) one of these (a through c) is incorrect about melatonin
Q5) Fight or flight is induced by this hormone.
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) This represents the product of the first meiotic division.
Q2) The oviduct connects the ovary to the A) uterus.
B) vagina.
C) clitoris.
D) vulva.
E) uterus and vagina.
Q3) Gastrulation in human embryos occurs about ___ after fertilization.
A) 5 days
B) 2 weeks
C) 4 weeks
D) 2 months
E) 5 months
Q4) Testes in humans are outside of the body because
A) sperm require a lower temperature to mature.
B) sperm require a greater diffusion of oxygen that they wouldn't get inside the body.
C) sperm formation is stimulated by motion.
D) sperm formation is hindered by the extreme darkness found within the body.
E) of all of these factors.
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A plant tissue has cells that are photosynthetic,have thin cell walls,and are living,dividing cells.This tissue is A) parenchyma.
B) collenchyma.
C) sclerenchyma.
D) phloem.
E) more than one of these.
Q2) The shoot system of a plant does NOT include A) stems.
B) leaves.
C) flowers.
D) roots.
E) more than one of these.
Q3) Approximately what percent of the water that enters a plant is actually used by the plant for metabolism and other processes?
A) 2
B) 10
C) 25
D) 50
E) 90
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Counting the number of seeds in a fruit will give a firm indication of the number of ___ in the flower.
A) carpels
B) stamens
C) pollen grains
D) ovules
E) microspores
Q2) ovary
Q3) Fuchsias have flowers which are brightly colored,unscented,and have long floral tubes.Fuchsia flowers are most likely pollinated by ___.
A) bees
B) butterflies
C) hummingbirds
D) hummingbirds and butterflies
E) bees and butterflies
Q4) closes stomata in times of stress
Q5) inhibits seed germination
Q6) stimulates cell division in shoot apical meristems
Q7) megaspores
Q8) The seeds will form in the structure at letter _____.
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