Biology for Health Sciences
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Biology for Health Sciences provides a foundational understanding of biological principles as they relate to human health and disease. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, metabolism, microbiology, and human anatomy and physiology, emphasizing their relevance to health care professions. Students will explore how biological systems interact and respond to internal and external changes, examine the scientific basis of common medical conditions, and learn how biology informs evidence-based practices in health sciences. This course is designed to equip students with the biological knowledge necessary for success in advanced health science coursework and professional programs.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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56 Chapters
5383 Verified Questions
5383 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
A)If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
B)If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
C)If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
D)If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
E)If my experiments are set up correctly, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.
Answer: D
Q2) Which theme(s)is/are best illustrated by a group of investigators who are trying to classify and explain the ecology of the community living within a specific region of prairie grassland?
A)I only
B)II only
C)VIII only
D)IV and VI
E)I and II
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these systems is least likely to be at chemical equilibrium?
A)a test tube of living cells
B)a test tube of organic molecules, kept in the freezer
C)a test tube of dry organic molecules, kept at room temperature
D)a test tube of organic molecules dissolved in water, kept at room temperature
E)a test tube of dead cells in water, kept at room temperature
Answer: A
Q2) What factors are most important in determining which elements are most common in living matter?
A)the relative abundances of the elements in Earth's crust and atmosphere
B)the emergent properties of the simple compounds made from these elements
C)the reactivity of the elements with water
D)the chemical stability of the elements
E)both the relative abundances of the elements and the emergent properties of the compounds made from these elements
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7,it means that the
A)concentration of H is twice (2X)what it was at pH 5.
B)concentration of H is one-half (1/2)what it was at pH 5.
C)concentration of OH is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
D)concentration of OH is one-hundredth (0.01X)what it was at pH 5.
E)concentration of H is 100 times greater and the concentration of OH is one-hundredth what they were at pH 5.
Answer: C
Q2) How many grams of acetic acid (C H O )would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses,in daltons,are approximately 12 for carbon,1 for hydrogen,and 16 for oxygen.)
A)10 g
B)0)1 g
C)6)0 g
D)60 g
E)0)6 g
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule shown above can function as a base?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes ATP?
A)ATP is hydrophobic.
B)ATP is inorganic.
C)ATP is unable to react with water.
D)ATP has two covalently attached phosphates.
E)ATP is able to store energy for the cell.
Q3) What is the key reason that often only one isomer of a pair of enantiomers is biologically active?
A)The functional groups in isomers may be found on the same or opposite sides of a double bond.
B)Isomers of an organic molecule may have either branched or linear structures.
C)One isomer may take up more volume.
D)One isomer may be more polar than the other.
E)Only one isomer may bind to specific target molecules in an organism.
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) A molecule with the formula C H O is probably a A)carbohydrate.
B)fatty acid.
C)protein.
D)nucleic acid.
E)hydrocarbon.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in the figure above?
A)It is a saturated fatty acid.
B)A diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
C)Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
D)It is a saturated fatty acid and a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis.
E)It is a saturated fatty acid, a diet rich in this molecule may contribute to atherosclerosis, and molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell walls of bacteria,fungi,and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane.Which of the following is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures?
A)They must block water and small molecules in order to regulate the exchange of matter and energy with their environment.
B)They must permit information transfer between the cell's cytoplasm and the nucleus.
C)They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area to volume.
D)They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell.
E)They are composed of a mixture of lipids and carbohydrates.
Q2) Which type of organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?
A)ribosomes
B)mitochondria
C)nuclei
D)plastids
E)peroxisome
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the small airways of the lung,a thin layer of liquid is needed between the epithelial cells and the mucus layer in order for cilia to beat and move the mucus and trapped particles out of the lung.One hypothesis is that the volume of this airway surface liquid is regulated osmotically by transport of sodium and chloride ions across the epithelial cell membrane.How would the lack of a functional chloride channel in cystic fibrosis patients affect sodium ion transport and the volume of the airway surface liquid?
A)Sodium ion transport will increase; higher osmotic potential will increase airway surface liquid volume.
B)Sodium ion transport will increase; higher osmotic potential will decrease airway surface liquid volume.
C)Sodium ion transport will decrease; lower osmotic potential will decrease airway surface liquid volume.
D)Sodium ion transport will decrease; lower osmotic potential will increase the airway surface liquid volume.
E)Sodium ion transport will be unaffected; lack of chloride transport still reduces osmotic potential and decreases the airway surface liquid volume.
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because
A)they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature.
B)high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary.
C)their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.
D)their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature.
E)they use molecules other than proteins or RNAs as their main catalysts.
Q2) What kind of process is digestion?
A)anabolism
B)catabolism
C)inorganic
D)non-energetic
E)organismal
Q3) Which of the following is the most accurate definition of metabolism for an organism?
A)all chemical reactions
B)all chemical reactions that break down larger molecules into smaller molecules
C)all chemical reactions that take small molecules and condense them into larger molecules
D)all chemical reactions that lead to the production of ATP
E)all chemical reactions that increase the potential energy of the organism
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism is discovered that thrives both in the presence and absence of oxygen in the air.Curiously,the consumption of sugar increases as oxygen is removed from the organism's environment,even though the organism does not gain much weight.This organism
A)must use a molecule other than oxygen to accept electrons from the electron transport chain.
B)is a normal eukaryotic organism.
C)is photosynthetic.
D)is an anaerobic organism.
E)is a facultative anaerobe.
Q2) Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis?
A)an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell
B)an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it
C)an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized
D)an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD
E)an agent that blocks the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain
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11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the relationship between wavelength of light and the quantity of energy per photon?
A)They have a direct, linear relationship.
B)They are inversely related.
C)They are logarithmically related.
D)They are separate phenomena.
E)They are only related in certain parts of the spectrum.
Q2) What event accompanies energy absorption by chlorophyll (or other pigment molecules of the antenna complex)?
A)ATP is synthesized from the energy absorbed.
B)A carboxylation reaction of the Calvin cycle occurs.
C)Electrons are stripped from NADPH.
D)An electron is excited.
E)A proton is sent to the thylakoid space.
Q3) How is photosynthesis similar in C plants and CAM plants?
A)In both cases, only photosystem I is used.
B)Both types of plants make sugar without the Calvin cycle.
C)In both cases, rubisco is not used to fix carbon initially.
D)Both types of plants make most of their sugar in the dark.
E)In both cases, thylakoids are not involved in photosynthesis.
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase.Therefore,the cells of a person who has recently consumed coffee would have increased levels of A)phosphorylated proteins.
B)GTP.
C)cAMP.
D)adenylyl cyclase.
E)activated G proteins.
Q2) In the above diagram,what is the significance of E?
A)It allows the proteins to move away from the initial response site.
B)It allows for amplification of the initial signal.
C)It allows cross-talk with DNA.
D)it provides an alternative pathway for ATP production.
E)It is the protein scaffold that allows enzymes to move.
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes quorum sensing?
A)cell-cell communication
B)allows cells to act asynchonously
C)recent evolutionary feature
D)allows organisms to undergo apoptosis
E)always involves cells of the opposite sex.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to
A)the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk.
B)decreased synthesis of Cdk.
C)the degradation of cyclin.
D)the accumulation of cyclin.
E)synthesis of DNA.
Q2) Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate,what else could logically result in a tumour?
A)metastasis
B)changes in the order of cell cycle stages
C)lack of appropriate cell death
D)inability to form spindles
E)inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate
Q3) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?
A)centromere
B)centrosome
C)centriole
D)chromatid
E)kinetochore
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referring to a plant's sexual life cycle,which of the following terms describes the process that leads directly to the formation of gametes?
A)sporophyte meiosis
B)gametophyte mitosis
C)gametophyte meiosis
D)sporophyte mitosis
E)alternation of generations
Q2) Which of the following best describes a karyotype?
A)a pictorial representation of all the genes for a species
B)a display of each of the chromosomes of a single cell
C)the combination of all the maternal and paternal chromosomes of a species
D)the collection of all the chromosomes in an individual organism
E)a photograph of all the cells with missing or extra chromosomes
Q3) Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during A)mitosis.
B)meiosis I.
C)meiosis II.
D)fertilization.
E)binary fission.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie.Which of the following results is not possible?
A)green offspring only
B)yellow offspring only
C)blue offspring only
D)green and yellow offspring
E)a 9:3:3:1 ratio
Q2) One species of a small birdlike animal has an extremely variable tail length,which is a highly polymorphic trait.Geneticists have come to realize that there are eight separate genes for tail length per haploid genome,with each gene having two alleles.One allele for each gene (a,b,and so on)increases the length by 1 cm,whereas the other allele (a ,b ,and so on)increases it by 0.5 cm.One bird was analyzed and found to have the following genotype:
A a b b c c d d e e f f g g h h
What is the length of its tail?
A)6 cm
B)8 cm
C)12 cm
D)24 cm
E)36 cm
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozygous tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers.The F all had red fruit and yellow flowers.The F were testcrossed by crossing them to homozygous recessive individuals and the following offspring were obtained:
Red fruit and yellow flowers-41
Red fruit and white flowers-7
Golden fruit and yellow flowers-8
Golden fruit and white flowers-44
How many map units separate these genes?
A)17.6
B)15
C)17.1
D)18.1
E)3
Q2) An organism with three sets of complete chromosomes is A)aneuploid.
B)diploid.
C)trisomic.
D)triassic.
E)triploid.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a mutation occurred in the primase gene,which of the following would you expect?
A)Replication would only occur on the leading strand.
B)Replication would only occur on the lagging strand.
C)Replication would not occur.
D)Replication would not be affected as the enzyme primase in involved with RNA synthesis.
E)Replication would proceed, but the mutation rate would be higher.
Q2) E.coli cells grown on ¹ N medium are transferred to ¹ N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication).DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged.What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?
A)one high-density and one low-density band
B)one intermediate-density band
C)one high-density and one intermediate-density band
D)one low-density and one intermediate-density band
E)one low-density band
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18
Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new chemical food additive is developed by a cereal manufacturer.Why do we test for its ability to induce mutation?
A)We worry that it might cause mutation in cereal grain plants.
B)We want to make sure that it does not emit radiation.
C)We want to be sure that it increases the rate of mutation sufficiently.
D)We want to prevent any increase in mutation frequency.
E)We worry about its ability to cause infection.
Q2) Which of the following types of mutation,resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation,is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?
A)a deletion of a codon
B)a deletion of two nucleotides
C)a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon
D)a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon
E)an insertion of a codon
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19
Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about A)lethal genes.
B)the dorsal-ventral axis.
C)the left-right axis.
D)segmentation.
E)the anterior-posterior axis.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes?
A)Their normal function is to suppress tumour growth.
B)They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses.
C)They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances.
D)They can code for proteins associated with cell growth.
E)They are underexpressed in cancer cells.
Q3) What has happened to make the products C and D?
A)frame shift mutation
B)loss of introns
C)mRNA degradation
D)incorrect 5' cap placement
E)alternative splicing
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In electron micrographs of HSV infection,it can be seen that the intact virus initially reacts with cell surface proteoglycans,then with specific receptors.This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores.Afterward,the capsids go from being full to being "empty." Which of the following best fits these observations?
A)Viral capsids are needed for the cell to become infected; only the capsids enter the nucleus.
B)The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not enter the nucleus.
C)Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell's infectivity, and is injected like the genome of a phage.
D)The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid entry into the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus.
E)The viral capsid mediates entry into the cell, and only the genomic DNA enters the nucleus, where it may or may not replicate.
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Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In recombinant DNA methods,the term vector can refer to
A)the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
B)the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
C)a SNP marker.
D)a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell.
Q2) Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because
A)plant genes do not contain introns.
B)more vectors are available for transferring recombinant DNA into plant cells.
C)a somatic plant cell can often give rise to a complete plant.
D)plant cells have larger nuclei.
E)plants are easier to infect with virus than other eukaryotic organisms.
Q3) Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?
A)use of pluripotent instead of totipotent stem cells
B)use of nuclear DNA as well as mtDNA
C)abnormal regulation due to variant methylation
D)the indefinite replication of totipotent stem cells
E)abnormal immune function due to bone marrow dysfunction
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can be said about this sequence?
A)It appears to be highly conserved.
B)It has had many duplication events.
C)It is an ancient gene.
D)This sequence has been transposed to other species.
E)It must be junk DNA.
Q2) What is proteomics?
A)the linkage of each gene to a particular protein
B)the study of the full protein set encoded by a genome
C)the totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein
D)the study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein
E)the study of how a single gene activates many proteins
Q3) When does exon shuffling occur?
A)during splicing of DNA
B)during mitotic recombination
C)as an alternative splicing pattern in post-transcriptional processing
D)as an alternative cleavage or modification post-translationally
E)as the result of faulty DNA repair
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads.While studying these creatures,you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring.To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males,you should
A)test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive.
B)look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins.
C)determine if hair length is heritable.
D)test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate.
E)measure the length of hair on female tamarins.
Q2) What must be true of any organ that is described as vestigial?
A)It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
B)It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor.
C)It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
D)It need be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes theories?
A)They are nearly the same things as hypotheses.
B)They are supported by, and make sense of, many observations.
C)They cannot be tested because the described events occurred only once.
D)They are predictions of future events.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the curve in the above figure shifts to the left or to the right,there is no gene flow,and the population size consequently increases over successive generations.Which of the following is (are)probably occurring?
1)immigration or emigration
2)directional selection
3)adaptation
4)genetic drift
5)disruptive selection
A)1 only
B)4 only
C)2 and 3
D)4 and 5
E)1, 2, and 3
Q2) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium must occur in populations wherein
A)an allele remains fixed.
B)no genetic variation exists.
C)natural selection is not operating.
D)All three of the responses above are correct.
E)Only two of the responses above are correct.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these should decline in hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring?
A)gene flow between distinct gene pools
B)speciation
C)the genetic distinctness of two gene pools
D)mutation rate
E)hybrid sterility
Q2) What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion for determining species boundaries?
A)geographic isolation
B)niche differences
C)gene flow
D)morphological similarity
E)molecular (DNA, RNA, protein)similarity
Q3) The most likely explanation for the recent decline in cichlid species diversity in Lake Victoria is
A)reinforcement.
B)fusion.
C)stability.
D)geographic isolation.
E)polyploidy.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Upon being formed,oceanic islands,such as the Hawaiian Islands,should feature what characteristic,leading to which phenomenon?
A)mass extinctions, leading to bottleneck effect
B)major evolutionary innovations, leading to rafting to nearby continents
C)a variety of empty ecological niches, leading to adaptive radiation
D)adaptive radiation, leading to founder effect
E)competition, leading to rafting to nearby lands
Q2) If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5730 years,then a fossil that has one-sixteenth the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old?
A)1400
B)2800
C)11 200
D)16 800
E)22 900
Q3) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend?
A)3)5 million years
B)5)0 million years
C)3)5 billion years
D)5)0 billion years
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true of the phylogeny in the above figure?
1)It is rooted.
2)The gibbons and siamangs represent an outgroup of the great apes.
3)Chimps and humans are the closest extant sister taxa depicted here.
4)It is absolute,meaning free of error.
5)The last common ancestor of the great apes lived about 14 million years ago.
A)1, 2, and 3
B)1, 2, and 5
C)1, 2, 3, and 4
D)1, 2, 3, and 5
E)2, 3, 4, and 5
Q2) Which of the following is the best explanation for the high degree of sequence homology observed in Exon I among these five species?
A)It is the most-upstream exon of this gene.
B)Due to alternative gene splicing, this exon is often treated as an intron.
C)It codes for a polypeptide domain that has a crucial function.
D)These five species must actually constitute a single species.
E)This exon is rich in G-C base pairs; thus, it is more stable.
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28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which species is probably an important contributor to the base of aquatic food chains as a primary producer?
A)species A
B)species B
C)species C
D)species D
E)species E
Q2) What should be true of the cell wall of this bacterium?
A)Its innermost layer is composed of a phospholipid bilayer.
B)After it has been subjected to Gram staining, the cell should remain purple.
C)It has an outer membrane of lipopolysaccharide.
D)It is mostly composed of a complex, cross-linked polysaccharide.
E)Two of the responses above are correct.
Q3) Which of the following involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells?
A)binary fission
B)endospore formation
C)endotoxin release
D)biofilms
E)photoautotrophy
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the mitosomes of Giardia contain no DNA,yet are descendants of what were once free-living organisms,then where are we likely to find the genes that encode their structures,and what accounts for their current location there?
A)plasmids; conjugation
B)plasmids; transformation
C)nucleus; horizontal gene transfer
D)nucleus; S phase
Q2) Plastids that are surrounded by more than two membranes are evidence of A)evolution from mitochondria.
B)fusion of plastids.
C)origin of the plastids from archaea.
D)secondary endosymbiosis.
E)budding of the plastids from the nuclear envelope.
Q3) The best evidence for not classifying the slime moulds as fungi comes from slime moulds'
A)DNA sequences.
B)nutritional modes.
C)choice of habitats.
D)physical appearance.
E)reproductive methods.
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) At some time during their existence,bryophytes may feature
A)microphylls.
B)true roots.
C)true leaves.
D)sporangia.
E)umbilical cells.
Q2) Stomata ________.
A)occur in all land plants and define them as a monophyletic group
B)open to allow gas exchange and close to decrease water loss
C)occur in all land plants and are the same as pores
D)open to increase both water absorption and gas exchange
Q3) Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives,the charophyte algae?
A)chlorophyll b
B)cellulose in cell walls
C)formation of a cell plate during cytokinesis
D)sexual reproduction
E)alternation of multicellular generations
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange the following structures,which can be found on male pine trees,from the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to least inclusive).
1)sporophyte
2)microspores
3)microsporangia
4)pollen cone
5)pollen nuclei
A)1, 4, 3, 2, 5
B)1, 4, 2, 3, 5
C)1, 2, 3, 5, 4
D)4, 1, 2, 3, 5
E)4, 3, 2, 5, 1
Q2) How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?
A)by nourishing the plants that make them
B)by facilitating dispersal of seeds
C)by attracting insects to the pollen inside
D)by producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat
E)by producing triploid cells via double fertilization
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Given the eukaryotic structures they lack,it should be expected that microsporidians also lack
A)the "9 + 2 pattern" of microtubules.
B)chitin.
C)lysosomes.
D)nuclei.
E)centrosomes.
Q2) When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter,what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?
A)fungal haustoria
B)fungal enzymes
C)increased oxygen levels
D)larger bacterial populations
Q3) Which tree depicts the microsporidians as a sister group of the ascomycetes?
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following genetic processes may be most helpful in accounting for the Cambrian explosion?
A)binary fission
B)mitosis
C)random segregation
D)gene duplication
E)chromosomal condensation
Q2) Which phylogeny has been created by emphasizing genomic features of placozoans?
A)I
B)II
C)III
Q3) On the basis of the cleavage pattern of cycliophoran embryos,which of these should be true?
A)It has determinate development.
B)The blastopore becomes the anus.
C)They are deuterostomes.
D)A cell separated from a four-cell embryo should develop into a complete organism.
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of food capture,which sponge cell is most similar to the cnidocyte of a cnidarian?
A)amoebocyte
B)choanocyte
C)epidermal cell
D)pore cell
Q2) How is an arthropod's exoskeleton well adapted for life on land?
A)provides protection
B)is impermeable to water, therefore prevents desiccation
C)allows for slow but steady movement
D)Two of the responses are correct.
E)All three responses are correct.
Q3) The excretory organs of annelids are
A)protonephridia.
B)flame bulbs.
C)metanephridia.
D)skin gills.
E)malpighian tubules.
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evolution of similar insulating skin coverings such as fur,hair,and feathers in mammals and birds is a result of A)shared ancestry.
B)convergent evolution.
C)homology.
D)evolutionary divergence.
Q2) We should expect the inner wall of the swim bladder to be lined with tissue that is derived from A)ectoderm.
B)endoderm.
C)mesoderm.
D)mesoglea.
E)neurectoderm.
Q3) Mylokkunmingia fengjiao,a fossil from the Cambrian
A)is considered the first chordate to have a head.
B)lacked vertebrae.
C)lacked ear and eye capsules.
D)resembled a hagfish.
E)A and B.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trichomes
A)absorb sunlight, increasing the temperature of leaves.
B)open and close for gas exchange.
C)repel or trap insects.
D)increase water loss from leaves.
Q2) A person working with plants may reduce the inhibition of apical dominance by auxin via which of the following?
A)pruning shoot tips
B)deep watering of the roots
C)fertilizing
D)treating the plants with auxins
E)feeding the plants nutrients
Q3) What effect does "pinching back" have on a houseplant?
A)increases apical dominance
B)inhibits the growth of lateral buds
C)produces a plant that will grow taller
D)stimulates lateral buds to grow
E)increases the flow of auxin down the shoot
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xylem vessels,found in angiosperms,have a much greater internal diameter than tracheids,the only xylem-conducting cells found in gymnosperms.The tallest living trees,redwoods,are gymnosperms.Which of the following is an advantage of tracheids over vessels for long-distance transport to great heights?
A)Adhesive forces are proportionally greater in narrower cylinders than in wider cylinders.
B)The smaller the diameter of the xylem, the more likely cavitation will occur.
C)Cohesive forces are greater in narrow tubes than in wide tubes of the same height.
D)Adhesive forces are proportionally greater in narrower cylinders than in wider cylinders, and cohesive forces are greater in narrow tubes than in wide tubes of the same height.
E)Adhesive forces are proportionally greater in narrower cylinders than in wider cylinders, and the smaller the diameter of the xylem, the more likely cavitation will occur.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are epiphytes?
A)aerial vines common in tropical regions
B)haustoria used for anchoring to host plants and obtaining xylem sap
C)plants that live in poor soil and digest insects to obtain nitrogen
D)plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts
E)plants that have a symbiotic relationship with fungi
Q2) If you wanted to increase the cation exchange and water retention capacity of loamy soil,what should you do?
A)adjust the soil pH to 7.9
B)add clay to the soil
C)practise no-till agriculture
D)add fertilizer containing potassium, calcium, and magnesium to the soil
E)increase the number of sand particles in the soil
Q3) Most of the mass of organic material of a plant comes from A)water.
B)carbon dioxide.
C)soil minerals.
D)atmospheric oxygen.
E)nitrogen.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to
A)protect against animal predation.
B)ensure double fertilization.
C)form a seed coat.
D)direct development of the endosperm.
E)produce hormones that ensure successful pollination.
Q2) Under which conditions would asexual plants have the greatest advantage over sexual plants?
A)an environment that varies on a regular, predictable basis
B)an environment with irregular fluctuations of conditions
C)a relatively constant environment with infrequent disturbances
D)a fire-maintained ecosystem
E)an environment with many seed predators
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a multiple fruit?
A)apple
B)strawberry
C)raspberry
D)pineapple
E)corn on the cob
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are part of a desert plant research team trying to discover crops that will be productive in arid climates.You discover a plant that produces a hormone under water-deficit conditions that triggers a suite of drought responses.Most likely the hormone is A)ABA.
B)GA.
C)IAA.
D)2, 4-D.
E)salicylic acid.
Q2) The detector of light during de-etiolation (greening)of a tomato plant is (are)
A)carotenoids.
B)xanthophylls.
C)phytochrome.
D)chlorophyll.
E)auxin.
Q3) The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to A)attract pollinators for seed dispersal.
B)attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits.
C)defend the plant against herbivores.
D)defend the plant against microbes.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the effectiveness of exchange surfaces lining the lungs and the intestines,evolutionary pressures have
A)increased the exchange surface area with folds and branches.
B)increased the thickness of the membranes in these linings.
C)increased the number of cell layers in these linings.
D)decreased the metabolic rate of the cells in these linings.
E)increased the volume of the cells in these linings.
Q2) "Winter acclimatization" in cold-zone mammals can include
A)the production of antifreeze compounds within cells.
B)the production of enzymes that have lower temperature optima.
C)hibernation for several weeks.
D)changing the proportion of saturated and unsaturated fats in cell membranes.
E)the denaturation of proteins that cannot withstand extreme temperature.
Q3) Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by A)cardiac muscle.
B)smooth muscle.
C)voluntary muscle.
D)striated muscle.
E)skeletal muscle.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examine the digestive system structures in the figure above.Bacteria that produce vitamins as products are residents of location
A)3)
B)4)
C)5)
D)7)
E)8)
Q2) Which enzyme is involved in the breakdown of olive oil?
A)nuclease
B)trypsin
C)carboxypeptidase
D)amylase
E)lipase
Q3) Which of the following is not a major activity of the stomach?
A)mechanical digestion
B)HCl secretion
C)mucus secretion
D)nutrient absorption
E)enzyme secretion
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an open circulatory system,where is blood found?
A)always inside of vessels and under higher pressure than in closed circulatory systems
B)not always confined to blood vessels and under higher pressure than in closed circulatory systems
C)always inside of vessels and under lower pressure than in closed circulatory systems
D)not always confined to blood vessels and under lower pressure than in closed circulatory systems
E)not always confined to blood vessels and under the same pressure as in closed circulatory systems
Q2) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by humans is
A)converted to bicarbonate ions by an enzyme in red blood cells.
B)bound to hemoglobin.
C)transported in the erythrocytes as carbonic acid.
D)simply dissolved in the plasma.
E)bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane)to a given recipient (Jane's cousin Bob),even though Jane has previously given blood for one of Bob's needed transfusions,because
A)even though Jane's blood type is a match to Bob's, her MHC proteins may not be a match.
B)a blood type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant of change.
C)for each gene, there is only one blood allele but many tissue alleles.
D)Jane's class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow.
E)Bob's immune response has been made inadequate before he receives the transplant.
Q2) Which of the following is crucial to activation of the adaptive immune response?
A)memory cells
B)presentation of MHC (major histocompatibility complex)-antigen complex on a cell surface
C)somatic hypermutation
D)phagocytosis of antibody-antigen complex by macrophages in the blood (the humoral response)
E)histamine release by mast cells
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)functions at the cellular level by
A)stimulating the reabsorption of glucose through channel proteins.
B)triggering the synthesis of an enzyme that makes the phospholipid bilayer more permeable to water.
C)causing membranes to include more phospholipids that have unsaturated fatty acids.
D)causing an increase in the number of aquaporin molecules of collecting duct cells.
E)decreasing the speed at which filtrate flows through the nephron, leading to increased reabsorption of water.
Q2) You feel thirsty because
A)you ate very salty pub food.
B)you abstained from alcohol and drank water.
C)you drank a few beers.
D)you ate salty pub food and drank a few beers.
E)you drank water and ate salty pub food.
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucocorticoids do which of the following?
A)promote the immune response
B)promote the release of fatty acids
C)increase blood glucose levels
D)increase insulin production
E)promote reabsorption of sodium
Q2) A paracrine signal that relaxes smooth muscle cells is
A)nitric oxide.
B)vitamin D.
C)testosterone.
D)cortisol.
E)antidiuretic hormone.
Q3) Endocrine glands that are sources of steroid hormones
A)secrete the steroids through ducts into the blood.
B)store those hormones in membrane-bound vesicles.
C)have a very short latency between steroid synthesis and steroid release.
D)are all controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
E)operate independently of other hormonal cuing systems.
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In correct chronological order,the three phases of the human uterine cycle are
A)menstrual ovulation luteal.
B)follicular luteal secretory.
C)menstrual proliferative secretory.
D)follicular ovulation luteal.
E)proliferative luteal ovulation.
Q2) The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that
A)the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed, whereas the shed endometrium of menstrual cycles is excreted from the body.
B)behavioural changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of menstrual cycles.
C)season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycles than they do on menstrual cycles.
D)copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation.
E)most estrous cycles are of much longer duration compared to menstrual cycles.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animal cells that are present only for a brief developmental phase will,following completion of that phase,undergo
A)diapause.
B)apoptosis
C)meiosis.
D)oxidative phosphorylation.
E)re-differentiation.
Q2) If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the grey crescent,then
A)the daughter cell with the entire grey crescent will die.
B)both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage.
C)only the daughter cell with the grey crescent will develop normally.
D)both daughter cells will develop abnormally.
E)both daughter cells will die immediately.
Q3) Which of the following is a correct description of an anatomical relationship?
A)The mesoderm gives rise to the notochord.
B)The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles.
C)The ectoderm gives rise to the liver.
D)The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs.
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Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the neurons in the human brain are
A)sensory neurons.
B)motor neurons.
C)interneurons.
D)auditory neurons.
E)peripheral neurons.
Q2) Neurotransmitters affect postsynaptic cells by
A)initiating signal transduction pathways in the cells.
B)causing molecular changes in the cells.
C)affecting ion-channel proteins.
D)altering the permeability of the cells.
E)All of these options are correct.
Q3) Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction?
A)The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction.
B)The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na channels.
C)The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon.
D)Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction.
E)Voltage-gated channels for both Na and K open in only one direction.
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Learning a new language during adulthood alters activity in the brain's language-processing locations by
A)altering synaptic effectiveness in these locations.
B)increasing the rate of mitosis in these locations.
C)inhibiting synapses that work in the previously learned language.
D)causing established neurons to produce different neurotransmitter molecules.
E)forming electrical synapses between cells.
Q2) Calculation,contemplation,and cognition are human activities associated with increased activity in the A)pituitary gland.
B)hypothalamus.
C)cerebrum.
D)cerebellum.
E)spinal cord.
Q3) Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to
A)decreased heart rate.
B)increased secretion by the pancreas.
C)increased secretion by the gallbladder.
D)increased contraction of the stomach.
E)relaxation of the airways in the lungs.
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "motor unit" in vertebrate skeletal muscle refers to
A)one actin binding site and its myosin partner.
B)one sarcomere and all of its actin and myosin filaments.
C)one myofibril and all of its sarcomeres.
D)one motor neuron and all of the muscle fibres on which it has synapses.
E)an entire muscle.
Q2) Mechanoreceptors that react to low frequency waves are part of the A)human sense of taste.
B)pain receptors in birds.
C)human sense of smell.
D)lateral line systems in fish.
E)eyes in arthropods.
Q3) Action potentials in the heart move from one contractile cell to the next via
A)chemical synapses using acetylcholine.
B)chemical synapses using norepinephrine.
C)electrical synapses using gap junctions.
D)myelinated motor neurons.
E)non-myelinated motor neurons.
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52
Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fru gene in fruit flies
A)controls sex-specific development in the fruit fly.
B)is a master regulatory gene that directs expression of many other genes.
C)can be genetically manipulated in females so that they will perform male sex behaviours.
D)programs males for appropriate courtship behaviours.
E)All of the options are correct.
Q2) The mating system in which females are more ornamented than males is A)monogamy.
B)promiscuity.
C)polygamy.
D)polygyny.
E)polyandry.
Q3) Animals use pheromones to communicate A)reproductive readiness.
B)species recognition.
C)gender recognition.
D)danger.
E)All options are correct.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true?
A)The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next "frontier" for feeding humanity.
B)Because it is so immense, the pelagic ocean biome is globally uniform.
C)Globally, more photosynthesis occurs in the ocean neritic biome than in the pelagic biome.
D)Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome.
E)The most abundant animals are vertebrate fishes.
Q2) "How do seed-eating animals affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?" This question
A)would require an elaborate experimental design to answer.
B)would be difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required.
C)would be difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required.
D)is one that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask.
E)All options are correct.
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54
Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an example of density-dependent regulation?
A)competition and predation
B)intrinsic physiological factors
C)territoriality
D)disease
E)a severe frost
Q2) Which curve best describes survivorship in marine molluscs?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Starting from a single individual,what is the size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes at the end of a 2-hour time period? (Assume unlimited resources and no mortality.)
A)6
B)18
C)128
D)512
E)1024
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which letter represents an organism that could be a carnivore?
E)E
Q2) Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn about competitive interactions?
I. selectivity of nest sites among cavity-nesting songbirds
II. the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison
III.stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist
A)only I and II
B)only I and III
C)only II and III
D)I, II, and III
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56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal of restoration ecology?
A)to replace a ruined ecosystem with a more suitable ecosystem for that area
B)to speed up the restoration of a degraded ecosystem
C)to completely restore a disturbed ecosystem to its former undisturbed state
D)to prevent further degradation by protecting an area with park status
E)to manage competition between species in human-altered ecosystems
Q2) A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n)
A)primary consumer.
B)secondary consumer.
C)decomposer.
D)autotroph.
E)producer.
Q3) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems?
A)cellular respiration
B)photosynthesis
C)rock weathering
D)vulcanism
E)atmospheric phosphorous gas
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biggest challenge that Costa Rica will likely face in its dedication to conservation and restoration in the future is
A)the pressures of its growing population.
B)its small size (as a country), which may not be able to maintain large enough reserves.
C)the potential for disturbance of sensitive species in reserves by ecotourists.
D)spread of disease and parasites via corridors from neighboring countries.
E)the large number of Costa Rican species already in the extinction vortex.
Q2) Modern conservation biology increasingly aims at
A)protecting federally listed endangered species.
B)lobbying for strict enforcement of the U.S. Endangered Species Act.
C)sustaining biodiversity of entire ecosystems and communities.
D)maintaining genetic diversity in all species.
E)saving as much habitat as possible from development and exploitation.
Q3) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?
A)deciduous forests
B)tropical rain forest
C)grasslands
D)islands
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 58