Biological Science
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Biological Science is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles and concepts underlying the study of living organisms and their interactions with the environment. The curriculum covers a diverse range of topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, physiology, and biodiversity. Students will develop an understanding of scientific inquiry, experimental design, and data analysis while exploring the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels of life. Through lectures, laboratory work, and field investigations, students gain a solid foundation in biological concepts and their real-world applications in fields such as medicine, agriculture, environmental science, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 17th Edition by Cleveland P Hickman
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Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group within an experimental design that is subjected to all the conditions except the experimental variable is called the ______________.
Answer: control
Q2) Which statement about environmental interaction is NOT correct?
A)Study of organisms and their interactions with the environment is called ecology
B)To study ecology,we must separate living organisms from their environment
C)The evolutionary history of a lineage is connected to the environment where it lived
D)Organisms are intimately connected with their physical environment
Answer: B
Q3) All of the chemical energy transformations that occur within a cell constitute A)evolution.
B)metabolism.
C)adaptation.
D)homeostasis.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pasteur's work with spontaneous generation showed that A)life could not have evolved from non-living chemistry on the early earth.
B)mice came from mother mice and maggots from mother flies.
C)simple chemicals could become complex organic macromolecules without any living cell involved.
D)broth did not ferment spontaneously but required contamination with organisms. Answer: D
Q2) The three principal groups of lipids are neutral fats,phospholipids,and A)glycogen.
B)steroids.
C)amino acids.
D)fatty acids.
Answer: B
Q3) Prokaryotic cells are represented by fossils that are dated back as far as _____ billion years ago. A)1.5
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biologists label various carbohydrates,fats and amino acids with radio-isotopes,place them in a cell culture,and allow time for cell metabolism.Then by disrupting cells in a blender and separating out various cell organelles,they find the radioactive molecules can be detected as part of various cellular compounds although visible cell structures appear unchanged.Therefore
A)these "food" molecules are used only for energy.
B)most cell components are constantly being broken down and rebuilt.
C)molecules diffuse at random through the cytoplasm and into cell organelles.
D)radioactivity has an unusual role in metabolism of living cells.
Answer: B
Q2) Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?
A)Prophase,anaphase,metaphase,telophase
B)Prophase,telophase,anaphase,metaphase
C)Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase
D)Anaphase,metaphase,prophase,telophase
Answer: C
Q3) A multinucleate mass formed by the fusion of many cells rather than by nuclear proliferation is called a ____________.
Answer: syncytium
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes
A)lower the amount of energy present in the substrate.
B)raise the amount of energy present in the substrate.
C)lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding to the substrate.
D)raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding to the substrate.
Q2) What establishes an electrochemical gradient across a membrane to provide energy for ATP production?
A)The mitochondrion's electron transport system provides the ions
B)Hydrogen ions naturally collect on the outside of the organelle membrane
C)Hydrogen ions are pumped across the membrane by carrier proteins
D)All of the choices establish the electrochemical gradient
Q3) If anaerobic glycolysis is only one-eighteenth as efficient as complete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide,then why would an organism use such an inefficient pathway?
Q4) Why do some animals degrade amino acids to ammonia and others dispose of it as urea or uric acid?
Q5) Stored energy that is not doing work but has the capacity to do work is called
Q6) Before a chemical bond is stressed enough to break,___________ must be supplied.
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Q7) Can virtually any organic compound be broken down (assuming it is non-toxic)?
Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) Males are said to be ___________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.
Q2) If an egg of a worm contains 6 chromosomes following meiosis,it comes from a worm that has ______ chromosomes in each body cell.
A)3
B)6
C)12
D)24
Q3) Down syndrome is an example of A)aneuploidy.
B)changes in the liner arrangement of genes within one chromosome. C)monosomy.
D)polyploidy.
Q4) Which type of molecule produces variable lengths of DNA with "sticky ends"?
A)DNA ligase
B)RNA polymerase
C)Reverse transcriptase
D)Restriction enzyme
Q5) The most familiar form of aneuploidy in humans results in Down Syndrome or ________ _________.
Q6) mRNA molecules attach themselves to a _______ for the production of proteins.
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concept that each successive stage in the development of an individual represents the adult form that appeared in development of its evolutionary history is termed
A)Larmarckism.
B)Heterochrony.
C)Paedomorphosis.
D)Recapitulation.
Q2) Evolution by natural selection was independently proposed by Darwin and __________.
A)Alfred Russel Wallace
B)Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
C)Captain Robert FitzRoy
D)Charles Lyell
Q3) The concept that features of an ancestral ontogeny can be shifted earlier or later in development is termed A)Larmarckism.
B)Heterochrony.
C)Paedomorphosis.
D)Recapitulation.
Q4) Define sexual selection and provide an example.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary sexual characteristics in the male are developed and maintained by A)FSH.
B)TSH.
C)testosterone.
D)estrogen.
E)progesterone.
Q2) Approximately how many mature egg cells are released by a woman during her fertile years?
A)20.
B)120.
C)400.
D)several thousand.
E)several million.
Q3) A cross-section through the testes would show
A)large chambers lined with wiggling sperm.
B)small tubules lined with developing sperm.
C)flat layers of tissue like pages,lined with developing sperm.
D)individual sperm follicles with all future immature sperm present.
E)none of the choices is correct.
Q4) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual versus asexual reproduction.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."
Q2) A characteristic of development of Deuterostomia is A)spiral cleavage.
B)mosaic development.
C)the mesoderm developing from a special blastomere called the 4d cell.
D)radial cleavage.
Q3) Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm,mesoderm,and ectoderm.
Q4) What prevents a foreign species' sperm from fertilizing an egg?
A)Nothing prevents fertilization if chemical and other behavioral cues allow mating
B)Egg recognition proteins on the acrosomal process bind to specific sperm receptors on the vitelline envelope
C)The size and shape of sperm must fit the hole in the egg membrane
D)The cortical reaction by the egg actively draws in the sperm
Q5) Outline the significance of the amniotic egg.Discuss the various layers and their functions in embryogenesis.
Q6) The cortical reaction that follows fertilization causes a hardening of the vitelline envelope to produce the _________ _________.
Q7) A true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined by ___________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Architectual Pattern of an Animal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial tissue is classified into A)muscle and nervous tissues.
B)loose and tight connective tissues.
C)simple and stratified epithelia.
D)primary and secondary epithelia.
Q2) Which tissue receives,interprets,and produces a response to stimuli?
A)Muscle tissue
B)Nervous tissue
C)Epithelial tissue
D)Connective tissue
Q3) Blood is an example of a tissue known as A)connective.
B)circulatory.
C)epithelial.
D)muscular.
Q4) The tissue type composed of fibers and fixed and wandering cells suspended in a fluid matrix is _________ __________ ________.
Q5) The study of tissues is called ________________.
Q6) Serial repetition of similar body segments along the longitudinal axis of the body is called ___________.
11
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) A taxon is polyphyletic if it
A)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and all of its descendants.
B)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group and some,but not all,of its descendants.
C)does not include the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
D)includes the most recent common ancestor of all members of the group.
Q2) The biological species concept by Theodosius Dobzhansky and Ernst Mayr defines a species in the textbook as a group of interbreeding natural populations reproductively isolated from other such groups and occupying a specific niche.Such a definition cannot be used for A)fossils.
B)asexual organisms.
C)determining species based on dead or preserved specimens.
D)organisms that cannot be raised in captivity,easily bred,or with very long generation times.
E)All of the choices pose problems for the biological species concept.
Q3) What is DNA barcoding of species and why might it be a useful tool for scientists?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organelle was once an independent aerobic prokaryote engulfed by an anaerobic prokaryote?
A)nucleus
B)mitochondrion
C)plastid
D)ribosome
E)endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) Which of the following represents the arrangement of microtubules in axonemes of cilia?
A)nine peripheral triplets of microtubules
B)nine peripheral pairs of microtubules plus one central pair
C)nine peripheral triplets of microtubules plus one central pair
D)nine peripheral pairs of microtubules plus two central pairs
E)three peripheral pairs of microtubules and no central pairs
Q3) The various species of Plasmodium vary in
A)their incubation period.
B)the intensity of their physical symptoms.
C)the number of times they initiate schizogony in liver cells.
D)mortality,or risk of death,to the human host.
E)All of the choices are variables in Plasmodium.
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tough protein fibers sometimes found in sponge skeletons are of a substance called _____________.
Q2) The minute,needle-like structures that act as a skeletal support system in sponges are called _________________.
Q3) The modified cells of sponges that form circular bands and provide just a little constriction to control water flow are A)amoebocytes.
B)choanocytes.
C)spicules.
D)myocytes.Myocytes are modified pinacocytes and constrict to regulate water flow.
Q4) The water outlet in sponges is known as a/an __________________.
Q5) About 95% of the sponges belong to the class __________.
Q6) Internal buds of freshwater sponges that can withstand adverse conditions are ____________________.Gemmules are found in freshwater and a few marine sponges.They are internal buds that withstand harsh environmental conditions.
Q7) Molecular data support the hypotheses that metazoans have a single origin or are
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Chapter 13: Cnidarians and Ctenophores
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ctenophores are propelled by eight plates bearing long,fused _____________.
Q2) A living anemone must detect non-living debris that floats by from potential food that also move past it.How does it detect the difference?
A)It responds to anything with DNA as living
B)It has a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine C)They respond to vibrations that match the frequency of prey
D)There is a feeding response to certain chemicals such as glutathione and asparagine;additionally they respond to vibrations that match the frequency of prey E)They merely sample everything that moves and discard the inorganic debris
Q3) The long thread-like structures that help to overcome prey and provide defense in sea anemones are called ________ ________.
Q4) Describe the evidence for the likely order of appearance of life-cycle stages in the evolution of Cnidarians.Evaluate the validity of conclusions that are drawn from this evidence.
Q5) The body wall of a hydra consists of an outer epidermis and an inner gastrodermis with _______________ between them.
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha, Platyzoa, and Mesozoa
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main reproductive body "segment" of the cestode is called the ____________.
Q2) Since flatworms and ribbon worms lack a coelom or a pseudocoel,they are termed _____________ animals.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Trochophore larvae?
A)Have a prominent circlet of cilia
B)Are top-shaped
C)They occur in the early development of marine forms of Annelida
D)Their bodies are opaque
E)They sometimes contain accessory cilia circlets
Q4) Taenia solium is a dangerous tapeworm because humans can serve as its ______________ host.
Q5) Which phyla have a characteristic number of cells the epithelia of different regions? Check all that apply.
Q6) Turbellarians have light-sensitive organs called _______________ or eyespots.
Q7) Because they have three germ layers,flatworms and ribbon worms are
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lophophorate phylum that is primarily marine,but also has some freshwater members is ____________ (Bryozoa).
Q2) Ectoprocta live in
A)only freshwater sediment.
B)bivalved shells they secrete.
C)colonies and form protective masses.
D)secreted tubes in sand or attached to rocks.
E)echinoderm intestines as parasites.
Q3) Reproduction and development in phoronid worms involves
A)monoecious species.
B)dioecious species.
C)asexual species.
D)a radial cleavage pattern.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) The three lophophorate phyla are Phoronida,Ectoprocta,and
Q5) Compare lophotrochozoans developmental features.Do they share a similar body plan?
Q6) Resistant capsules containing germinative cells formed by freshwater ectoprocts are _____________.
Q7) The larva of phoronids is called the _____________.
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The solenogasters
A)live free on the sea bottom and feed on cnidarians.
B)have a shell of eight articulating plates.
C)resemble the squids.
D)are called chitons.
E)have the primitive radula and gill mollusc plan.
Q2) Snails that lack gills are called "pulmonate" and their mantle cavity functions
A)for propulsion.
B)to produce pearls.
C)as a lung.
D)to store wastes.
E)All of the choices are correct functions
Q3) The caudofoveates
A)are mostly worm-like,burrowing,marine organisms.
B)possess an oral shield associated with food selection and intake.
C)possess a radula (reduced in some species).
D)may have more features in common with the common ancestor of all molluscs than any other living group.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) The shell of Polyplacophora is divided into _______ _______ valves.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Darwin observed earthworm behavior where a worm would seize a leaf fragment by its narrow end in order to pull the leaf into its burrow.This behavior is
A)evidence of high level reasoning.
B)mainly a product of trial and error.
C)genetic or innate.
D)proof of an extensive ability to learn.
E)now known to be totally random.
Q2) The Branchiobdellida,is a group of small annelids that contains parasites or commensals of crayfish.They show similarities to both oligochaetes and leeches in that they bear a head sucker.In your analysis,is the evolution of a head sucker a derived trait in an oligochaete lineage or would the loss of posterior sucker place them in the Hirudinea?
Q3) The blood of an earthworm contains
A)hemoglobin packaged in red blood cells similar to the blood of mammals.
B)only hemolymph with no respiratory pigments,similar to the hemolymph of insects.
C)white blood cells that assume the job of carrying respiratory gases.
D)chloragogen as a substitute respiratory pigment.
E)colorless ameboid cells and hemoglobin molecules dissolved in the fluid.
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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dogs commonly suffer from heartworm caused by A)dirofilaria nematodes.
B)a tapeworm consumed in raw meat.
C)eating raw meat infected with Trichinella.
D)nematodes consumed as eggs in contaminated water.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Discuss the structure and formation of the noncellular cuticle of nematodes.
Q3) Elephantiasis is transferred by
A)eating uncooked elephant meat.
B)worms burrowing into skin of feet.
C)drinking contaminated water or food.
D)mosquitoes injecting larval worms into the bloodstream.
E)exchanging body fluids with an infected person.
Q4) The entire forepart of the body of a loricifera can be withdrawn into the
Q5) What specific factors protect the average North American from all of the parasitic cycles of flukes,tapeworms,and roundworms,etc.? Be sure to address social attitudes,clothing,climate,food preparation,use of human wastes as fertilizer,general medical care,sanitation facilities,and economics.
Q6) Adult Ascaris worms are found in the host's _________________.or
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The arthropodan cuticle is not entirely hardened.Why not (think of the need to be mobile and flexible)?
Q2) There is a hypothesis that euryterid predation on early fish induced the selection for armor in these vertebrates.What kind of evidence would you require to show that there might be a causation here,rather than just a correlation in the fossil record?
Q3) Scorpions
A)feed during the day.
B)are most common in the temperate areas of the world.
C)are docile animals that,in spite of their reputation,cannot harm humans.
D)are sensitive to surface waves produced by movement on the ground.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) What are the various uses for spider's silk?
Q5) Tactile organs on the ventral side of scorpions are ________________.
Q6) The excretory system of spiders and insects is a structure known as ________
Q7) During the process of "arthropodization," the role of the coelomic compartments as a _________ ________ was lost.
Q8) Members of the subphylum ________________ were abundant during the Cambrian period.
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Position sensors in the base of the first antennae of crayfishes are called
Q2) The photoreceptor cells in the crustacean compound eye are called A)statocysts.
B)statoliths.
C)tactile hairs.
D)gastroliths.
E)ommatidia.
Q3) The various specialized body structures along the body of Malacostracans are thought to be derived from a common biramous appendage,which suggests A)serial homology.
B)telsonization.
C)arthropodization.
D)analogous homology.
E)convergent evolution.
Q4) The procuticle of crustaceans is often impregnated with __________________.
Q5) How do the various pigments in the ommatidium work to provide images of variable field of vision or a continuous image in variable degrees of light and dark?
Q6) The major body space in arthropods is called the ______________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Hexapods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the philosophy and the strategies used in integrated pest management.
Q2) The dorsal sclerite of a body segment is the ________________.
Q3) The only superficially marine insects are
A)insects that are parasites of marine fish.
B)herbivorous insects that live on kelp.
C)crustaceans.
D)marine water striders that skate on the surface.
E)larval forms of dragonflies and damselflies.
Q4) A genetically programmed arrest in development of some insects is called _____________.
Q5) Wing muscles that are attached to the wing itself are considered ____________ flight muscles.
Q6) Integrated pest management
A)never uses pesticides for insect control.
B)combines use of resistant plants,crop rotation,timing of sowing,and use of biological controls with limited insecticide use.
C)is synonymous with organic farming.
D)requires a willingness to harvest far less food of poorer quality.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Q7) Wings of butterflies,order _________________,are covered with minute scales.
Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) These odd little echinoderms were formerly considered a class of their own.They possess tube feet distributed around the periphery of their disclike body and belong to the group ___________.
Q2) Hemichordates live
A)in the open ocean with a similar lifestyle to arrow-worms (which is why they are considered related).
B)in kelp beds.
C)in deep oceans,especially the rich and oxygenated Arctic Ocean.
D)on the bottom of shallow oceans,sometimes colonially and in secreted tubes.
E)just around thermal vents.
Q3) In brittle stars,water circulates into the _______________ for gaseous exchange.
Q4) If you went to the ocean and brought back a sea star to keep in a marine aquarium,what would you feed it?
A)Algae
B)Live clams
C)Live fish
D)Water in plankton since they are filter feeders
E)Living coral
Q6) The madreporite of sea cucumbers is located in the ________________. Page 24
Q5) On the inner end of each tube foot is a muscular sac called an ______________.
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Page 25
Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) Discuss the contention that the ammocoete larva of lampreys is a successful model of the primitive vertebrate body plan.
Q2) The skeletal rod found in all chordates is called a _________.
Q3) All chordates have
A)a single,dorsal,tubular,nerve cord.
B)a ventral heart.
C)pharyngeal slits.
D)a postanal tail as some stage.
E)all of the choices are chordate features.
Q4) Cephalochordates
A)are small fish-like,freshwater animals.
B)have a notochord only in their immature stage.
C)digest food in a hepatic cecum or liver diverticulum.
D)have a ventral nerve cord.
E)have a heart that circulates blood cells with hemoglobin in a closed system.
Q5) Unlike most invertebrate phyla,the nerve cord of chordates is single,tubular,and located ___________ to the alimentary canal.
Q6) Why are traditional grouping such as Reptilia and Agnatha not recognized in cladistics? Explain why that does or does not make evolutionary sense.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) Representatives of the most primitive non-teleost neopterygians are the
A)gar and bowfin.
B)sturgeon and paddle-fish.
C)coelacanths.
D)minnows and suckers.
E)carp and buffalo fish.
Q2) In schooling,fish rely on sensitivity to vibration and water currents.This is provided by cells called neuromasts located inside what structure?
A)Caudal fin
B)Gills
C)Swim bladder
D)Lateral-line
E)Placoid scales
Q3) Hagfishes
A)are entirely fresh water animals.
B)are parasitic.
C)have a complex but well-researched reproductive cycle.
D)generate enormous quantities of slime if disturbed.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) Teleost fishes have a type of tail that is called a __________ tail.
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) Adaptations for terrestrialism in early tetrapods resulted in an air-filled cavity along with
A)mucous membrane-lined nostrils.
B)a complex nervous system.
C)internal embryo gestation.
D)an abdominal cavity.
E)double circulation.
Q2) Which is true regarding frog skin?
A)The dermis contains chromatophores,which provide skin color.
B)The dermis contains large serous glands derived from the inner epidermis that produce a skin poison.
C)The epidermis contains keratin.
D)The epidermis has mucous glands that secrete mucus to waterproof the skin.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) In addition to the sinus venosus and the conus arteriosus the heart of a frog has two __________ and one __________.
Q4) What is the significance of paedomorphosis in the evolution of tetrapods?
Q5) Outline the circulatory pathways of amphibians.
Q6) Frogs and toads belong to the order _________,a name that means "without a tail."
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) Outline the biological contributions of the Reptilia.What advances do they exhibit over the Amphibia?
Q2) Snakes that have special heat-sensitive pits on their heads are called ______
Q3) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.
Q4) Nonavian reptiles that lay shelled eggs with development occurring outside the mother's body are __________.
Q5) When do lizards appear and radiate in the fossil record?
A)Lizards appeared in the Permian and rapidly radiated to give rise to the dinosaurs that dominated the next time periods.
B)Lizards appeared in the Jurassic but did not radiate until the Cretaceous when dinosaurs were near the end of their reign.
C)Lizards appeared in the Jurassic as a branch of small dinosaurs and radiated rapidly in the Cretaceous.
D)Lizards appeared in the Cretaceous and rapidly radiated.
E)Snakes took to the surface in the Permian and gradual selection for limbs allowed lizards to radiate in the Triassic.
Q6) Why should limbs be secondarily lost in so many lineages of nonavian reptiles?
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) Trace the air flow through a bird from inhaling to exhaling,indicating where absorption of gases occurs and for what percent of the time.Why does it take two cycles of breathing to move a molecule in the air through this system?
Q2) Birds fly through the air at relatively high speeds.This is possible in part because they have
A)a crop and gizzard.
B)highly sensitive sensory systems.
C)less power per unit weight.
D)ability to store large amounts of water.
E)All of the choices are the result of having to accommodate flight
Q3) The stomach of a bird is comprised of the enzyme-secreting proventriculus and the muscular ____________.
Q4) The exchange region in the bird lung is tube-like ________ through which air flows continuously.
Q5) The large breast muscle that depresses the wing during flight is the _____ muscle.
Q6) More than 90% of all birds follow a type of mating system in which an individual mates with only one partner each breeding season,called ___________.
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) The mammal that makes one of the longest migrations to breeding areas in the Pribilof Islands is the
A)barren-ground caribou.
B)northern fur seal.
C)humpback whale.
D)sperm whale.
E)lemming.
Q2) The four kinds of teeth that are generally recognized in mammals are molars,premolars,canines,and ________.
Q3) A duckbilled platypus is an exception to many mammals because it
A)doesn't give live birth but lays eggs.
B)is "cold-blooded" or not homeothermic/endothermic.
C)lacks hair.
D)doesn't secrete milk.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) With the evolution of a new jaw joint between the dentary and squamosal (temporal)bones in mammals,bones of the previous jaw joint,the articular and quadrate continued their gradual reduction in size and became relocated.Identify what these two bones became.
Q5) The only mammals having true flight are the __________ or Chiroptera.
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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) The protein complex located at intervals along the actin strand of skeletal muscle is a calcium-dependent switch called ___________ that acts as the control point in the contraction process.
A)myosin
B)tropomyosin
C)sarconin
D)troponin
E)myoglobin
Q2) Hyaline cartilage contains
A)collagenous fibers surrounding numerous blood vessels.
B)osteocytes surrounded by a calcium gel and a meshwork of collagenous fibers.
C)chondrocytes surrounded by a protein gel complex and a meshwork of collagenous fibers.
D)lacunae containing osteocytes and a meshwork of collagenous fibers.
E)a highly variable mixture of protein gel and carbohydrate crystals.
Q3) Outline the microscopic structure of compact bone.Be sure to include a discussion of the functions of the various parts.
Q4) The number of cervical vertebrae is nearly constant in all vertebrate animals,whether the neck is short or long.Explain this evolutionary phenomenon.
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) In the evolution of bony fish,
A)modern freshwater bony fish originated from marine bony fish ancestors.
B)modern marine bony fish originated from freshwater bony ancestors.
C)modern marine bony fish had marine bony ancestors and modern freshwater bony fish had freshwater bony ancestors.
D)modern marine bony fish has bony freshwater ancestors and modern freshwater bony fish had marine bony fish ancestors.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Sharks maintain osmotic equilibrium with the ocean water by the kidney conserving _______,allowing it to accumulate in the blood until osmolarity is near that of seawater.
A)ammonia
B)sodium ions
C)calcium
D)all salts
E)urea
Q3) Why is homeostasis so important to animals? Why should any kind of constancy of the internal environment be important?
Q4) Freshwater animals tend to lose too much salt and gain too much ____________.
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Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) The volume of blood forced from either ventricle each minute is known as
Q2) Discuss the physiological mechanism by which the heartbeat is set (e.g. ,discuss the pacemaker cells,Purkinje fibers,and the cardiac control center in the brain).
Q3) Describe the differences between insect and vertebrate ventilation.Which one is more effective in terms of being able to function without oxygen debt?
Q4) Explain the reason for the differences in blood pressure during systole and diastole.
Q5) Which blood vessels will have walls only one cell thick?
A)Capillaries
B)Venules
C)Veins
D)Arterioles
E)Arteries
Q6) Oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood capillaries by a process called __________________ along partial pressure gradients.
Q7) Outline the functions of the lymphatic system.
Q8) Compare and contrast the internal fluid components within a vertebrate organism.
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) The release of secretin is stimulated by the action of A)the alkaline material in the duodenum.
B)the bile.
C)muscular contractions in the stomach.
D)nerves to the duodenum.
E)strong acid and food in the stomach and small intestine.
Q2) A bird,insect or worm gizzard is a
A)food storage area.
B)site of food molecule absorption comparable to our small intestine.
C)food crushing and grinding organ.
D)site of water absorption similar to our large intestine.
Q3) Which of these do the pancreatic enzymes digest?
A)proteins.
B)carbohydrates.
C)lipids.
D)All of the choices are correct.
E)The pancreatic enzymes do not digest any of these molecules.
Q4) The pancreatic juice contains two powerful proteases,trypsin and ____________.
Q5) Digestion in the small intestine is accomplished by enzymes produced by the intestine and the ________.
Page 35
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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) Why is the giant squid or the marine snail Aplysia so important in neurology?
A)They were the first primitive organisms to have neurons
B)They are the first primitive organisms to "think"
C)They lack sensory or motor neurons so all their neurons are uniform and easy to study
D)They have large neurons that allow us to probe neuron physiology and trace nervous pathways in anatomy
E)Their neurons are different from neurons of other animals
Q2) Describe how the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system interact to provide a vertebrate organism with complete information about the internal and external environments.
Q3) What function does the sodium pump play in neural transmission?
Q4) The inside of the neuron membrane at rest is
A)negatively charged.
B)positively charged.
C)neutral or equal to the exterior charge.
D)None of the choices are true since neurons never rest.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q5) Discuss the difference between electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
Q6) Discuss the function(s)of the vomeronasal organ.
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) Discuss the potential effects of anabolic steroid abuse by teenagers.
Q2) Why do you suppose there is only one hormone produced by the intermediate lobe of the anterior pituitary?
Q3) Many hormones,upon arriving at a target cell,combine with a receptor site on the membrane to cause the release of an enzyme called the ______ ______.
Q4) Outline the basic operational mechanisms of a generalized hormone.Be sure to explain mode of transport,receptor molecules,and target cells.
Q5) Tadpoles metamorphose into frogs because of
A)decreases in iodine leading to less thyroid hormone.
B)decreases in juvenile hormone from the corpora alata.
C)increases in epinephrine from the adrenals.
D)activation of the thyroid gland and increases in growth hormone.
E)sex hormones.
Q6) The molting hormone or ecdysone in insects
A)favors the development of adult structures.
B)favors the development of larval structures.
C)does not appear to act directly on the chromosomes.
D)is not a steroid hormone.
E)is toxic to humans.
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) In a process called __________,an antibody becomes coated with antibody molecules and then macrophages recognize the projecting antibody regions and are stimulated to engulf the particle.
A)co-receptor toxicity
B)cytokinesis
C)antigen-presentation
D)opsonization
E)inflammation
Q2) The terms "neutrophil" and "basophil" and "eosinophil" refer to A)whether they are active in acidic,neutral,or basic conditions.
B)their tissue origins.
C)the type of chemical they use to kill cells.
D)stains that are used to identify them.
E)the researchers who described them.
Q3) An immune response against an invading organism or other tissue damage that involves mobilizing leukocytes from capillaries to the site of injury is called the ___________ response.
Q4) Rh incompatibility accounts for a peculiar and often fatal disease of the newborn called ___________________ __________.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Compare and contrast habituation and sensitization.Are the two concepts really different? If so,explain how.
Q2) Explain the complexity of the hereditary transmission of most innate behavior.Why is it so difficult to study?
Q3) Discuss the properties of imprinting.How could any kind of imprinting have evolved?
Q4) Compare the properties of innate behavior with those of learned behavior.How does a researcher separate the two in nature?
Q5) The waggle dance helps bees
A)Communicate when they are hungry.
B)Show aggression.
C)Communicate the location of food.
D)Sound the alarm to protect the hive when it is invaded.
E)Find mates.
Q6) Explain the difference between proximate causation and ultimate (evolutionary)causation.
Q7) Identify the significance of the following: aggression,agonistic behavior,ritualized displays,ritualization,and dominance hierarchy.
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Chapter 37: Animal Distribution
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Q1) About how much of the earth's water supply is freshwater,including ice caps,rivers,freshwater lakes,etc.?
A)25%
B)10%
C)2.5%
D)0.25%
E)0.0025%
Q2) How would you explain the vicariant distribution of the dawn redwood (restricted to a small area of China)with the disjunct distribution of its fossils and close living relatives in California?
Q3) Water vapor and ________ ________ in the atmosphere absorb heat energy reradiated from the earth,leading to warming of atmospheric air.
Q4) Why does continental drift theory not help explain the distribution of placental mammals?
A)Placental mammals were agile enough to cross all continental barriers
B)Placental mammals evolved after the breakup of the major plates
C)Their fossils were subject to more deformation
D)We just haven't located enough fossils of them
E)None of the choices is correct
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) When pioneers settled the Midwest and Plains states,they killed or drove off the American bison,cougar,wolf,etc.Why does the elimination of such natural predators cause ecological problems?
Q2) A study of both a living community and all of its physical factors would focus on what level of organization?
A)Trophic levels
B)Various biomes
C)The biosphere
D)Ecosystem
Q3) The term "ecology" was first introduced by whom?
A)George Gaylord Simpson
B)Charles Elton
C)Ernst Haeckel
D)Lawrence J.Henderson
E)E.O.Wilson
Q4) Discuss how the following terms are interrelated: niche overlap,competitive exclusion,character displacement,and guild.How do all these terms relate to the concept of competition?
Q5) Only ______ are able to purposely and directly increase their carrying capacity.
Page 41
Q6) Almost all life depends on the energy from the _______.
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