Biological Science
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Biological Science explores the diverse and dynamic study of living organisms, encompassing their structure, function, growth, evolution, distribution, and taxonomy. Through foundational concepts in cell biology, genetics, ecology, physiology, and evolutionary biology, students gain an understanding of the principles governing life at molecular, organismal, and ecosystem levels. The course emphasizes the scientific method, research techniques, and critical thinking, preparing students for further study or careers in the biological, environmental, and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) most common multicellular decomposers
A)bacteria
B)protists
C)plants
D)fungi
E)animals
Answer: D
Q2) The most inclusive level of organization listed here is a(n)
A) heart.
B) carbon atom.
C) DNA.
D) zebra.
E) red blood cell.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A substance that does not dissolve in water
A)hydrophobic
B)hydrophilic
C)salt
D)solute
E)solvent
Answer: A
Q2) The ____ of an atom have no charge.
A) electrons
B) protons
C) neutrons
D) ions
E) nuclei
Answer: C
Q3) The sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms is called a(n)
Answer: double bond
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) responsible for sexual development
A)glycogen
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)phospholipid
E)wax
F)steroid
G)cholesterol
H)DNA
I)RNA
Answer: F
Q2) Hydrogenation is a chemical process that ____.
A) turns liquid oil to solid fats
B) turns amino acids into proteins
C) turns DNA into lipids
D) creates stable alternative energy sources
E) creates unstable alternative energy sources
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) houses chlorophyll
A)chloroplast
B)central vacuole
C)plasmodesmata
D)cell wall
E)chromoplasts
Q2) What is one function of the structure labeled A in the accompanying figure?
A) attachment
B) locomotion
C) protein-making
D) breathing
E) communication
Q3) This organelle is involved in lipid production and protein transport.
A)ribosome
B)mitochondrion
C)lysosome
D)Golgi body
E)endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) cytoskeleton components
Q5) smooth ER
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mosaic of the fluid mosaic model refers to ____.
A) specific proteins in membranes
B) the liquid inside a cell
C) the phospholipids in membranes
D) the passage of materials into cells
E) the diverse molecules making up membranes
Q2) Energy is commonly defined as ____.
A) a form of heat
B) thermodynamics
C) the capacity to change
D) the capacity to do work
E) the ability to do work
Q3) In oxidation-reduction reactions, ____.
A) both molecules give up electrons
B) both molecules gain electrons
C) cells harvest energy
D) the molecule that accepts electrons is reduced
E) hydrogen ions are usually absorbed
Q4) The loss of an electron by a molecule is called ____________________.
Q5) Compare and contrast facilitated and active transport.
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plant cells release hydrogen ions and oxygen from H O molecules in ____.
A) photosystem I
B) photosystem II
C) cyclic photophosphorylation
D) the light independent reaction
E) carbon fixation
Q2) A high concentration of H<sup>+</sup> in the thylakoid compartment provides potential energy for the ____ by ____.
A) breakdown of water; oxidation
B) production of ATP; ATP synthases
C) reduction of NADP+; an electron transfer chain
D) production of sugars; the light-independent reactions
E) production of O ; photolysis
Q3) Any light-driven reaction that attaches phosphate to a molecule is called
Q4) The splitting of water produces three products. Name and discuss the role of each.
Q5) Consider the Calvin-Benson cycle and the noncyclic photosynthetic pathway. Why is the cyclic pathway so important?
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the Krebs cycle, ____.
A) substrate-level phosphorylation occurs
B) oxaloacetate is consumed
C) electrons and H<sup>+</sup> are removed from the coenzymes NADH and FADH
D) molecules of carbon dioxide are consumed
E) oxidative phosphorylation occurs
Q2) What is the most important product of stage 2 of aerobic respiration?
Q3) Glycolysis depends upon a continuous supply of NAD+ and ____.
A) NADP
B) pyruvate
C) glucose
D) NADH
E) H O
Q4) Substrate-level phosphorylation transfers phosphate groups directly from ____ to ADP.
A) a substrate
B) coenzymes
C) the electron transfer chain
D) ATP
E) the Krebs cycle
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication is ____.
A) redundant
B) semiconservative
C) progressive
D) conservative
E) repetitive
Q2) Hydrogen bonding is strongest between ____.
A) adenine and guanine
B) uracil and thymine
C) guanine and uracil
D) adenine and thymine
E) cytosine and guanine
Q3) Three hydrogen bonds connect guanine to __________ in the DNA molecule.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q4) Is it possible to prevent mutations entirely?
Q5) In ____________________, one somatic cell is fused with an enucleated egg.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anticodons pair with A) codons on DNA
B) codons on mRNA.
C) codons on tRNA
D) codons on rRNA
E) messenger RNA and ribosomal RNA.
Q2) Each tRNA has a(n) __________ that base-pairs with a codon, and each binds to the amino acid specified by the codon.
Q3) In eukaryotes, all of the different types of RNA are transcribed in the A) mitochondria.
B) cytoplasm.
C) ribosomes.
D) nucleus.
E) endoplasmic reticulum.
Q4) DNA and RNA are alike in that they
A) both have same pentose sugar.
B) use the same nitrogenous bases to assemble the genetic code.
C) have the same number of strands.
D) both play vital roles in gene expression.
E) are both made in the cytoplasm.
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutation in a B group gene in Arabidopsis thaliana affects development in its flower's
A) first whorl only.
B) second whorl only.
C) third whorl only.
D) first and second whorls.
E) second and third whorls.
Q2) Mutation in an A group gene in Arabidopsis thaliana affects development in its flower's
A) first whorl only.
B) second whorl only.
C) third whorl only.
D) first and second whorls.
E) second and third whorls.
Q3) Differentiation is the process by which cells
A) mature into larger cells.
B) change from one type of muscle to another.
C) change to repair injuries.
D) turn on all the genomic genes.
E) express different subsets of their genes during development..
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Page 12
Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) The interval stage before the onset of DNA replication is called the
A) G1 stage.
B) G2 stage.
C) M stage.
D) S stage.
E) G3 stage.
Q2) centromere
A)cytoplasmic division
B)final phase of mitosis; daughter nuclei re-form
C)two sister chromatids are joined here
D)chromosomes condense and mitotic spindle begins to form
E)chromosomes line up at spindle equator
F)sister chromatids separate and move to opposite spindle poles
G)form the mitotic spindle
H)half of a chromosome in prophase
I)in pairs in some eukaryotic cells; move to poles during spindle formation
Q3) The __________ that facilitates cytokinesis in animal cells cannot work with plant cells because a stiff cell wall surrounds their __________.
Q4) The bipolar spindle is composed of __________.
Q5) After plant mitosis, the vesicles fuse into a disk-shaped __________.
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
A) It prevents adaptation in a changing environment.
B) It eliminates the possibility of harmful traits being passed on.
C) It passes on half of a parent's genome.
D) It reduces genetic variation, which may be useful in the future.
E) It yields offspring with novel combinations of traits.
Q2) __________ are regions in an organism's DNA that encode information about heritable traits.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE of asexual reproduction?
A) It allows an individual's genes to adjust to the environment.
B) It produces greater genetic diversity.
C) It is a good strategy if an organism lives in a constant, unchanging environment.
D) It slows the accumulation of potentially harmful mutations.
E) It allows only half of an individual's genes to be passed on.
Q4) With __________, offspring inherit the same number and kinds of genes from one parent.
Q5) What would happen if sister chromatids did not break apart during anaphase of mitosis?
Q6) Discuss the unique reproductive capacity of the bdelloid rotifer.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual with a genetic makeup of aa BB is called
A) true-breeding.
B) recessive.
C) hybrid.
D) dihybrid.
E) heterozygous.
Q2) The role of environmental factors on gene expression is illustrated by ____.
A) the varying plant height of genetically identical yarrow plants when grown at different elevations
B) the flower color of hydrangeas
C) the coloration in snapdragon plants
D) male-pattern baldness
E) genetic variety in eye color
Q3) In which of the following does the environment play a causal role?
A) Marfan syndrome
B) cystic fibrosis
C) dog coat color
D) sickle-cell anemia
E) depression and schizophrenia
Q4) An individual that has two dominant alleles for a trait (AA) is __________.
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Males tend to be affected in greater numbers by X-linked recessive genetic disorders than are females because
A) females have two dominant genes for the disorder.
B) males have only one X chromosome.
C) males have a double dose of the gene.
D) Y chromosomes are not as strong as X chromosomes.
E) females have only one X chromosome.
Q2) A woman heterozygous for color blindness (an X-linked recessive allele) marries a man with normal color vision. What is the probability that their first child (male or female) will be color blind?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
E) 0%
Q3) Some conditions like progeria do not run in families despite being autosomal dominant. How is this possible?
Q4) __________ is a diagnostic tool that reveals missing or extra chromosomes and some structural changes in an individual's chromosomes.
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identifying an individual by his or her DNA is referred to as ____.
A) structural genomics
B) genomic fingerprinting
C) RNAprofiling
D) DNA profiling
E) individual genomics
Q2) Restriction enzymes ____.
A) work at recognition sites
B) function only at "sticky ends"
C) produce uniform lengths of DNA
D) function in viruses
E) are produced by viruses to break down bacterial DNA
Q3) Why are cDNA libraries desirable for the expression of eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes?
Q4) Genetic engineering started with ____.
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) fungi
D) plants
E) animals
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tailbone of humans is an example of a(n) ____.
A) developing feature
B) accidental feature
C) vestigial feature
D) great chain of being
E) fossil structure
Q2) An asteroid that impacted Earth about 66 million years ago is believed to be responsible for ____.
A) the creation of life on Earth
B) a global catastrophe that may have wiped out the dinosaurs
C) the splitting of one land mass into continents
D) a mass extinction of land plants
E) the evolution of Earth's oceans
Q3) Natural selection results in changes in ____.
A) individuals
B) populations
C) kingdoms
D) phyla
E) animals only
Q4) Which fossil would be the oldest in a given strata and why?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occurrence of mimicry is best explained as the ultimate result of this process.
A)Mutation
B)gene flow
C)genetic drift
D)natural selection
Q2) Microevolution is change in the __________ of a population.
Q3) q<sup>2</sup>
A)a reference point that implies stability of gene frequencies through generations
B)encompasses all of those actually or potentially interbreeding populations that are reproductively isolated from other such groups
C)the genes of an entire population
D)the frequency of homozygous dominants in a population
E)the frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles in a population
F)the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
G)the frequency of homozygous recessives in a population
H)heterozygote advantage in regions where malaria is found
I)pesticide-resistant pests
Q4) __________ occurs when two species act as agents of selection upon one another.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) The five-toed limb of stem reptiles was modified into a limb suitable for digging. This is an exampleof ____.
A) convergent evolution
B) morphological divergence
C) analogous evolution
D) morphological convergence
E) distal modification
Q2) Mutations in genes that affect __________ may cause morphological shifts in a lineage.
Q3) Four of these statements are true about mitochondria. Which one is not true?
A) They have DNA.
B) Their DNA can experience mutations.
C) In animals, the mitochondria come from the mother.
D) They undergo genetic recombination during fertilization.
E) Their DNA can be used as molecular clock.
Q4) Neutral mutations tend to accumulate in DNA at a predictable rate; like the ticks of a(n) __________, they can help researchers estimate how long ago two lineages diverged.
Q5) __________ is a set of methods that allow us to reconstruct phylogeny.
Q6) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are called __________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) cyanobacteria
A) a substance that occurs only or predominantly in cells of a specific type
B) simple transitional forms between early organic compounds and the first living cells
C) a bacterial species thought to be a close relative of the bacteria ancestral to mitochondria
D) first organisms with the noncyclic pathway of photosynthesis
E) bacteria able to withstand high levels of mutation-causing radiation
F) offered support for endosymbiosis
G) dome-shaped fossil remains of photoautotrophic bacteria (some nonfossil structures also form)
H) RNAs that function as enzymes
I) earliest known organism that can be assigned to a modern group
Q2) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
Q3) The oldest proposed cell microfossils are from ____ year-old rocks.
A) 3.5 billion
B) 1.25 billion
C) 1.8 billion
D) 1.5 billion
E) 500 million
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Cyanobacteria ____.
A) are heterotrophs
B) have evolved from ancient chloroplasts
C) cannotfix carbon
D) cannotfix nitrogen
E) produce ammonia from gaseous nitrogen
Q2) These produce CH .
A)halophiles
B)cyanobacteria
C)thermophiles
D)proteobacteria
E)methanogens
Q3) Bacteriorhodopsin is a light-sensitive pigment found in ____ archaeans used to supply energy for ____ production.
A) halophilic; ATP
B) thermophilic; carbohydrate
C) methanogenic; methane
D) halophilic; carbohydrate
E) thermophilic; ATP
Q4) Why are viruses not considered to be alive?
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) The kelp shown in the accompanying figure represents the ____ stage in its life cycle.
A) spore-bearing
B) gamete-forming
C) haploid
D) motile
E) feeding
Q2) Which letter points to the counterpart of a stem in a flowering plant?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Four of the following are true of euglenoids. Which statement is false?
A) Many move by pseudopods.
B) Many contain chloroplasts.
C) Many absorb nutrients from their environment in a heterotrophic manner.
D) Their cell body is surrounded by a pellicle.
E) They use a contractile vacuole to maintain water balance.
Q4) Euglenoids live in freshwater; a(n) __________ rids them of excess water.
23
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) angiosperm
A)have rhizoids, cuticle, and protected embryo sporophyte
B)one cotyledon
C)non-seed-bearing, heart-shaped gametophytes; spore-bearing leaves with sori
D)Lycopodium; cone-bearing sporophyte; free-living gametophyte
E)only one species left
F)cypress and redwood; heterosporous; mostly evergreen
G)confined to tropics or warm, temperate zones; resemble squat cone-bearing palm trees
H)two cotyledons
I)Equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems jointed; scouring rushes
J)have coevolved with pollinating vectors
Q2) Why is it important to maintain a collection of wild relatives of crop plants?
A) Humans have a natural urge to collect things.
B) It allows future generations to see plants that are gone.
C) Seeds are not stable.
D) Crop plants do not produce their own seeds.
E) It provides insurance in the form of genetic diversity.
Q3) Will our modern forests eventually become coal?
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) The structure labeled "4" in the figure is a(n) ____.
A) asexual spore
B) haploid spore
C) zygospore
D) gamete
E) spore sac
Q2) Lichens are formed by a symbiotic relationship between a ____ and ____.
A) club fungus; green algae
B) club fungus; cyanobacteria
C) sac fungus; green algae
D) zygote fungus; cyanobacteria
E) zygote fungus; green algae
Q3) Four of the following are fungal diseases. Which one is the exception?
A) Candida infections
B) Ringworm
C) athlete's foot
D) vaginal yeast infection
E) Tuberculosis
Q4) The filaments typically grow as an extensive mesh called a(n) __________.
Q5) Why is it very dangerous to eat wild mushrooms without proper training?
25
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) The larval stage in this phylum has bilateral symmetry, whereas the adult stage exhibits radial symmetry.
A)Porifera
B)Cnidaria
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Nematoda
E)Annelida
Q2) Four of the following statements about cone snail venom are true. Which one is false?
A) It is a potential source of new drugs of medical interest.
B) It may be lethal to humans.
C) It immobilizes the cone snail's prey.
D) It is lethal to cone snail prey.
E) Synthetic versions are used as a pain reliever in humans.
Q3) What evidence is there that choanoflagellates were the ancestors to animals?
Q4) __________, such as jellyfishes, corals, and sea anemones, are radially symmetrical.
Q5) ___________, or water bears, have a reduced coelom and an external body covering.
Page 26
Q6) In annelids, ____ regulate the composition of body fluid.
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) crocodile
A)cartilaginous skeleton; jaws
B)reptile with four-chambered heart
C)placental mammal
D)legless amphibian
E)invertebrate chordate; no metamorphosis
F)endotherm with feathers
G)limbless reptile
H)most primitive fishes with jaws; extinct
I)modern-day parasitic jawless vertebrate
J)marsupial
K)adult is called "sea squirt"
L)egg-laying mammal
M)swim bladder for buoyancy
N)may be sexually mature in larval form
Q2) Members of one unusual group may have been ancestors of tetrapods.
A)cartilaginous fishes
B)bony fishes
C)amphibians
D)reptilians
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Four of the following are modern apes. Which is not a modern ape?
A) gibbon
B) new world monkey
C) chimpanzee
D) gorilla
E) orangutan
Q2) The last known population of Neanderthals lived as recently as ____ years ago.
A) 8,000
B) 18,000
C) 28,000
D) 38,000
E) 48,000
Q3) The hominin evolutionary line diverged from that leading to the great apes about ____ million years ago.
A) 1.5
B) 2
C) 3
D) 7
E) 13
Q4) Why is it so difficult to identify the beginnings of the hominin line?
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) The absorption of water and minerals occurs at the structure labeled __________.
Q2) For a mineral nutrient to get to the leaves, the mineral must make it to the plant xylem. Which layers would the nutrient need to traverse in a dicot?
Q3) Chloroplast-containing parenchyma tissue is called ____.
A) sclerenchyma
B) collenchyma
C) meristem
D) mesophyll
E) periderm
Q4) Which environment is most likely to produce trees without annual rings?
A) tropical rain forest
B) northern evergreen forest
C) areas with alternating wet and dry seasons
D) temperate-deciduous forests
E) none of these, because annual rings are characteristic of all trees
Q5) The seeds are located inside the structure labeled __________.
Q6) Do trees really sequester carbon permanently or does this take place simply while they are alive?
Q7) Why does vascular cambium produce annual rings in xylem but not in phloem?
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) This nutrient plays an important role in cell wall formation.
A)iron
B)boron
C)manganese
D)zinc
E)copper
Q2) The Army and the Environmental Protection Agency are decreasing the contamination at the Army's Aberdeen Proving Grounds by ____.
A) removing contaminated soil
B) planting hybrid poplar trees
C) chemically degrading the contaminants
D) covering the contaminated soil with a sealant
E) injecting the soil with clean water to dilute the contaminated groundwater
Q3) Companion cell assisted loading of organic compounds is indicated by letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) The seed is produced by the maturation of the ____.
A) embryo
B) ovule
C) ovary
D) sperm
E) pollen
Q2) Inside the corolla is a whorl of ____, the organs that produce male gametophytes.
A) sepals
B) petals
C) carpels
D) ovaries
E) stamens
Q3) A stamen is ____.
A) composed of a stigma, a style, and an ovary
B) the mature male gametophyte
C) composed of an anther and filament
D) part of the vegetative phase of an angiosperm
E) the structure that gives rise to the female gametophyte
Q4) __________ is the arrival of pollen grains on a receptive stigma.
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) The mechanism that causes a vine's tendrils to grow around an object, such as a wire fenceline, is called ____.
A) thigmotropism
B) phototropism
C) gravitropism
D) vernalization
E) photoperiodism
Q2) Cycles of biological activity that are repeated every 24 hours are called ____.
A) systemic acquired rhythms
B) tropisms
C) physiological requirements
D) circadian rhythms
E) photoperiods
Q3) Farmers spray seedless grape plants with synthetic __________, which increases the size of the resulting fruit.
Q4) In some plants, the direction of growth changes in response to contact with an object. This is called __________.
Q5) A(n) __________ is an extracellular signaling molecule that exerts its effect at very low concentrations.
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) How does bipedalism relate to sweat glands, skin color and hair density?
Q2) blood
A)comprises ligaments and tendons
B)contains collagen and elastin; acts as a packing material that supports internal organs
C)receives, conducts, and initiates signals in response to environmental changes
D)stores fat
E)offers resistance to mechanical injury and loss of internal fluids; also a barrier against microorganisms
F)secretes extracellular products such as sweat, mucus, tears, and saliva
G)fluid ground substance plus free cells; involved in transport, pH, and temperature stability
H)extracellular fluid that bathes cells and tissues
Q3) ____________________ tissues cover the body's surfaces, and line its internal spaces.
Q4) Specialized epithelial cells called ____________________ secrete substances that function outside the cell.
Q5) duct of sweat gland
Q6) sweat gland
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) Explain why the autonomic nervous system could also be called the involuntary nervous system.
Q2) The resting potential across a typical neuron membrane is approximately ____ inside relative to outside.
A) -70microvolts
B) -70millivolts
C) -70volts
D) +70millivolts
E) +70megavolts
Q3) slows digestion
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q4) The parietal lobe is responsible for ____.
A) vision
B) sensory input
C) hearing
D) generating a motor response
E) inhibiting unsuitable behaviors
Q5) Activity of the two halves of the cerebrum is coordinated by means of the __________ that connects them.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) A stretch receptor is classified as a ____.
A) chemoreceptor
B) mechanoreceptor
C) photoreceptor
D) thermoreceptor
E) nociceptor
Q2) This structure is found in the compound eyes of insects but not in the eyes of vertebrates.
A)cornea
B)lens
C)retina
D)ommatidium
E)vitreous body
Q3) Rods and cones are located in the ____.
A) lens
B) cornea
C) pupil
D) iris
E) retina
Q4) Why is color blindness more common in males?
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) What would happen if a peptide hormone receptor was expressed in the nucleus like a steroid hormone receptor?
Q2) The releasing site for the hormones of this figure is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) The synthesis site for the hormones of this figure is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) pituitary gland
Q5) 34.4 The Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland
Q6) hypothalamus
Q7) parathyroid gland
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) What type of skeleton is found in an earthworm, as illustrated in the accompanying figure?
A) cartilaginous
B) bone
C) hydrostatic
D) chitinous
E) exoskeleton
Q2) When a sarcomere is at rest, the myosin binding sites on actin are blocked by _____.
A) phosphorous
B) sodium
C) tropomyosin
D) the myosin heads
E) AMP
Q3) __________ are cells that synthesize bone, whereas __________ break bone down.
Q4) In the absence of a nerve connection or electrical stimulation, can a muscle cell be made to contract in a laboratory setting? Explain your answer.
Q5) The __________ is the pelvic girdle, pectoral girdle, and paired limbs.
Q6) Why is back pain so common in humans?
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) One important function of the lymphatic system is to _____.
A) move bile from the gall bladder to the small intestine
B) drain plasma proteins and deliver them to the kidney to be excreted
C) deliver fats absorbed from food in the small intestine to the blood
D) produce red blood cells
E) produce white blood cells
Q2) The __________ circuit carries blood from the heart to body tissues, and then returns it to the heart.
Q3) In an open circulatory system, the fluid pumped is called ____.
A) hemoglobin
B) lymphatic fluid
C) hemolymph
D) blood
E) capillary fluid
Q4) This blood component engulfs bacteria and cellular debris.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q5) __________ is mostly water in which diverse ions and molecules are dissolved.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) The human voice is generated by air moving through the _____.
A) pharynx
B) glottis
C) epiglottis
D) pleura
E) trachea
Q2) Contraction of the diaphragm ____.
A) diminishes the volume of the thoracic cavity
B) increases the volume of the thoracic cavity
C) pushes the rib cage downward
D) causes external intercostal muscles to relax
E) decreases lung capacity
Q3) These cells destroy cells infected by viruses.
A)macrophages
B)helper T cells
C)B cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)natural killer cells
Q4) __________ is the only disease to have been eradicated from causing natural infections.
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) diaphragm
A) flexible windpipe reinforced with cartilage
B) surrounds each lung
C) oxygen-rich form of a respiratory protein
D) contains two true vocal cords
E) with the diaphragm, alter chest cavity volume
F) part of the brainstem; controls breathing
G) throat passage behind the mouth
H) inhalation and exhalation
I) connect trachea to lungs
J) flaplike structure that points upward allowing air to enter trachea, but blocks the larynx during swallowing
K) contraction increases thoracic volume
L) microscopically small pockets lined with moist epithelium
Q2) Non-smokers live about ____ years longer than smokers.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
E) ten
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) The structure designated by the letter "B" in the above figure is called the ____.
A) pyloric sphincter
B) esophagus
C) small intestine
D) duodenum
E) appendix
Q2) Which of the following enzymes digests starches?
A) pepsin
B) catalase
C) amylase
D) lipase
E) trypsin
Q3) Organic molecules found in plant foods that reduce the risk of certain disorders are known as ____.
A) vitamins
B) essential amino acids
C) minerals
D) phytochemicals
E) lipids
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Maintaining the volume and composition of extracellular fluid is an essential aspect of __________.
Q2) Kidney __________ are small, tubular structures that interact with nearby capillaries to form urine.
Q3) Acidic urine can indicate ____.
A) pregnancy
B) intoxication
C) toxins and drugs
D) metabolic problems
E) infection
Q4) The region where filtration occurs is indicated by the letter(s) ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) A and D
Q5) What are the downsides of sweat as a cooling mechanism?
Q6) In insects and spiders, __________ take up fluid, uric acid, and solutes from the blood and deliver them to the gut.
Q7) __________ such as reptiles control core temperature mainly by behavior.
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) This cell divides by mitosis during the fetal stages of development until all of the approximately two million potential eggs have been formed.
A)oogonium
B)primary oocyte
C)secondary oocyte
D)polar body
E)corpus luteum
Q2) A germ cell is indicated by the letter(s) ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) B, C, and D
Q3) One of the problems associated with assisted reproduction is that ____.
A) technology for effective gamete freezing has not been developed
B) the techniques for intrauterine implantation have not been fully explored
C) deleterious recessive alleles can be passed on to offspring
D) sperm cannot live outside the human body
E) the potential harm to the mother is largely unknown
Q4) seminal vesicle
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) The chorionic cavity is indicated by ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) These reorganize themselves into the gastrula.
A)somites
B)blastomeres
C)ectoderm
D)mesoderm
E)endoderm
Q3) Without _____, humans might have a tail.
A) differentiation
B) epigenetics
C) cell migrations
D) apoptosis
E) the maternal gene effect
Q4) Diffusion of morphogens influence the differential expression of other genes such as __________, which govern the formation of specific body parts.
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) The alarm signal one snail sends to another is most likely to be this.
A)tactile
B)auditory
C)visual
D)chemical
Q2) Genes that affect the __________ system often affect behavior.
Q3) A dance that recruits other bees into foraging 90 degrees to the right of the sun is indicated by flying ____.
A) straight up the comb
B) straight down the comb
C) to the left of vertical
D) to the right of vertical
E) in circles
Q4) Habituation can best be described as a form of _____.
A) fixed action
B) learned behavior
C) stereotyping
D) instinctual response
E) observational learning
Q5) With __________, an animal stops responding to an ongoing stimulus.
Page 45
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