Biological Science
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Biological Science is an expansive field that explores the study of living organisms and their interactions with each other and their environments. This course covers foundational concepts such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Students will also engage with contemporary issues and advances in biology, including biotechnology, conservation, and human health. By integrating laboratory and theoretical approaches, the course develops critical thinking and scientific skills essential for careers in research, healthcare, and environmental management.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now Core 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the self-correcting nature of science.
Answer: The process of science is based on evidence that can be demonstrated through observations and/or experiments.Scientific findings are subject to peer review and independent validation and can,therefore,be challenged by anyone on the basis of evidence.When new evidence demonstrates that current scientific thinking is incorrect,hypotheses are adjusted or discarded and investigation continues.
Q2) Which of the following sequences correctly represents the biological hierarchy of a multicellular organism?
A)cells tissues organs individual
B)tissues organs cells individual
C)individual cells organ systems tissues
D)organ systems organs tissues individual
Answer: A
Q3) After observing that students who regularly attend class appear to be making good grades,I propose the hypothesis that regular class attendance increases the probability that students earn higher grades.If I attend classes regularly this semester,I should make higher grades than I did last semester when I often missed class.This is a ________.
Answer: prediction
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Lithium,with an atomic number of 3,has a tendency to lose electrons when it chemically bonds to another atom.What type of chemical bonds does lithium usually form with other atoms? Explain how you determined your answer.
Answer: When lithium loses electrons it becomes positively charged and participates in ionic bonding.Since lithium is positively charged it will interact with negatively charged atoms.
Q2) A disaccharide consists of two A)sugars.
B)hydrocarbons.
C)fatty acids.
D)amino acids.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following factors explains carbon's prominence in living systems?
A)Carbon forms weak reversible bonds.
B)Carbon bonds with up to three other atoms.
C)Carbon-based molecules can form long chains and rings.
D)Carbon does not form small molecules.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flexible poles providing structure to a soft-sided tent most closely resemble the
A)endoplasmic reticulum in a bacterial cell.
B)Golgi apparatus in a plant cell.
C)cytoskeleton in an animal cell or other cell without a cell wall.
D)nucleus in an eukaryotic cell.
Answer: C
Q2) chloroplast
A)photosynthesis
B)regulate what moves in and out of cell
C)structure and support for cell
D)lipid synthesis
E)tags proteins for movement
F)enzymatic breakdown of large molecules
G)protein synthesis
H)cellular respiration
I)water and solute storage
J)location of DNA
K)internal organization and structural support
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) used by plant cells
A)photosynthesis only
B)cellular respiration only
C)both photosynthesis and cellular respiration
D)neither photosynthesis nor cellular respiration
Q2) Cells contain the molecule GTP (guanosine triphosphate).Would this molecule be useful as an energy carrier (similar to ATP)?
A)No,because it does not contain the adenosine necessary for storing energy.
B)No,because it contains fewer phosphates than ATP.
C)Yes,because it contains a nitrogenous base just like ATP.
D)Yes,because it contains the same number of phosphates as does ATP.
Q3) used by animal cells
A)photosynthesis only
B)cellular respiration only
C)both photosynthesis and cellular respiration
D)neither photosynthesis nor cellular respiration
Q4) A mutation in a plant cell produces rubisco enzymes,which can only bind O (and not CO ).What would be the outcome of this mutation?
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) Which of the following statements about cell division is correct?
A)It is the process by which organisms grow and maintain their tissues.
B)It is no longer necessary once an organism reaches maturity.
C)It occurs in two sequential stages in all cells: mitosis and meiosis.
D)It is the process by which fertilization occurs.
Q2) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ phase of the cell cycle.
Q3) Gametes are produced by meiosis rather than mitosis because
A)mitosis would produce too many sister cells.
B)meiosis reduces the chromosome number so that zygotes produced will have one full genome.
C)meiosis doubles the chromosome number so that each gamete has twice the usual number of genes.
D)meiosis ensures that the gametes are identical to the cell that produced them.
Q4) The goal of meiosis is to
A)create genetically identical offspring.
B)protect cells from getting cancer.
C)produce eggs and sperm.
D)regulate progression through the cell cycle.
Q5) A cell has completed S phase and is preparing to divide via mitosis.How is the genetic material arranged in G phase?
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following did Mendel use to help him form the law of independent assortment?
A)dihybrid crosses between pea plants
B)monohybrid crosses between pea plants
C)traits that were codominant
D)traits with incomplete dominance
Q2) If Gregor Mendel had studied a polygenic trait that did not follow the straightforward single-gene,single-phenotype pattern,do you believe he would have been able to describe how genes are passed from parents to offspring? Justify your answer.
Q3) Most traits in humans involve complex inheritance where the trait is governed by the action of more than one ________.
Q4) Feather color in a certain species of bird is controlled by a pair of alleles that exhibit incomplete dominance.If birds that are homozygous for one allele are black and birds that are homozygous for the other allele are white,then heterozygous birds would be
A)black.
B)white.
C)gray.
D)black with white stripes.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Autosomal dominant diseases are exhibited by anyone who carries at least one dominant allele for that gene.How is it that dominant lethal genes,such as the one that causes Huntington disease,can persist in a population?
A)The disease-causing allele can "hide" in the heterozygous condition.
B)The disease develops only under the influence of other genes.
C)These diseases usually take effect later in life after people have had children.
D)The environment plays a large role in determining whether the gene is expressed.
Q2) Which of the following genotypes represents a human male?
A)XY
B)YY
C)XX
D)XO
Q3) In humans,X-linked genetic diseases
A)are associated with autosomes.
B)tend to be expressed more in females than males.
C)only affect males.
D)tend to be expressed more in males than in females.
Q4) An allele that "hides" in heterozygous carriers is called a ________ allele.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist is interested in studying the mechanism of horizontal gene transfer.
A)The scientist should select a prokaryotic cell.
B)The scientist should select a eukaryotic cell.
C)The scientist can select either a prokaryotic or a eukaryotic cell.
D)The scientist will need to design a novel cell using DNA sequencing.
Q2) This is the smallest in size.
A)gene
B)base
C)nucleotide
D)genome
E)base pair
Q3) Along one side of a DNA molecule,the nucleotides are connected to each other by
A)covalent bonds between phosphate groups and sugar molecules.
B)hydrogen bonds between adenine and guanine.
C)covalent bonds between bases and sugar molecules.
D)hydrogen bonds between adjacent sugar molecules.
Q4) In the first step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR),the two strands of the DNA being amplified must be separated by exposing the DNA to high ________.
Q5) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Q1) The importance of tRNA is that it
A)carries a specific amino acid to the mRNA.
B)reads the DNA molecule.
C)contains codons that specify amino acids.
D)is important in the construction of ribosomes.
Q2) In bacteria,a particular gene codes for a protein that helps the bacteria break down and use lactose as a food source.If no lactose is present,
A)the gene will be broken down so no enzyme is made.
B)the gene will mutate to produce another,more useful,enzyme.
C)the promoter for this gene will be blocked so RNA polymerase can't bind.
D)the promoter for this gene will be enhanced so RNA polymerase binds more readily.
Q3) Which of the following is a codon?
A)U
B)UU
C)UUU
D)UUUU
Q4) The genetic code is ________,which means that all cells use the same code.
Q5) The process of using an RNA template to make proteins is called ________.
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Humans bred cows specialized for milk production by allowing female cows that produce large quantities of milk to mate only with male cows with mothers that also produced large quantities of milk.This is an example of ________ selection.
Q2) What is biological evolution?
A)the process of direct observation of the fossil record
B)adaptations to common descent over time
C)the unchanging nature of life on Earth
D)change in the inherited characteristics of a group of organisms over generations
Q3) The fossil record
A)proves that all known species of organisms appeared at the same time.
B)contains strong evidence that major new groups of organisms arose from previously existing organisms.
C)indicates that humans date back as far as the first indications of life.
D)has often been artificially created by evolutionary biologists.
Q4) A fossil is found in Africa and South America,but nowhere else in the world.What does this tell us about this organism?
Q5) Continental drift is the ________ of Earth's landmasses through geologic time.
Q6) The human appendix is an example of a(n)________ structure.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT likely to be a cause of rapid evolution in a population?
A)a changing environment
B)an organism that exhibits a rapid rate of mutation
C)an organism that reproduces very slowly
D)the immigration of individuals carrying a new allele that significantly increases reproductive success
Q2) In natural selection,________ that increase survival and reproductive success become more common in a population.
A)genotypes
B)allele frequencies
C)bottlenecks
D)phenotypes
Q3) Disruptive selection operates whenever
A)natural selection is disrupted by genetic drift.
B)there is a balanced gene pool.
C)only the smallest individuals survive.
D)both extremes of the phenotype are more successful.
Q4) A chance evolutionary change occurring in small populations is referred to as
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Which of the following statements gives an example of coevolution?
A)Two unrelated species form at the same time after ancestral species populate a newly formed volcanic island.
B)Two closely related mice species on different mountaintops in the southwest United States both adapt the same trait because food sources are similar.
C)An ant species and a plant species both develop adaptations in response to changes in the other species.
D)A wild cat species and a wild dog species both have similar bacteria living in their guts,which allow them to produce vitamin K.
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be expected after a population undergoes geographic isolation?
A)a decrease in gene flow
B)an increase in gene flow
C)allopatric speciation
D)formation of adaptive traits
Q3) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by the formation of new species in a process known as ________.
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Q1) Monotremes,like the duck-billed platypus,are egg-laying mammals (oviparous)covered in hair,have mammary and skin glands,three ear ossicles,are diphyodont (their permanent teeth replace their "baby" teeth),and possess dentary-squamosal jaw articulation (the jaw bone hinges with the squamosal bone of the skull).Marsupials,such as kangaroos and koalas,are pouched mammals that have a vertical tympanic membrane in addition to being covered in hair,have mammary and skin glands,three ear ossicles,are diphyodont,and possess dentary-squamosal jaw articulation.Eutherians are the placental mammals that most people easily recognize as mammals.They are covered in hair,have mammary and skin glands,three ear ossicles,are diphyodont,possess dentary-squamosal jaw articulation,and have a vertical tympanic membrane. What one shared derived trait sets marsupials and eutherians apart from monotremes?
A)being diphyodont
B)having a vertical tympanic membrane
C)having a dentary-squamosal jaw
D)being covered in hair
Q2) In an evolutionary tree,a given ancestor and all its descendants make up a ________,or branch.
Q3) The domain ________ encompasses the traditional four kingdoms of Protista,Plantae,Fungi,and Animalia.
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Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Q1) Fossil evidence from around the world indicates that anatomically modern humans first evolved in Africa about 195,000-200,000 years ago from a population of archaic Homo sapiens and then successfully migrated to and inhabited almost all continents by 13,000 years ago.During literally tens of thousands of years,modern humans lived alongside other ________ populations,eventually replacing them.
Q2) In light of the "out-of-Africa" hypothesis,which of the following is a parsimonious reason why species like Homo neanderthalensis,Homo floresinensis,and Homo erectus do not exist today?
A)Modern Homo sapiens out-competed and replaced other hominin species as they migrated around the world.
B)Extensive gene flow between human populations led to a blending of traits that resulted in the evolution of Homo sapiens.
C)As modern Homo sapiens developed new and more accurate hunting skills they were able to hunt other hominin species to extinction.
D)Climate change in Africa caused the extinction of all hominin populations except for the ones that gave rise to modern Homo sapiens.
Q3) All of your mitochondrial DNA was inherited from your ________.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Earth
A)biotic
B)abiotic
C)biosphere
D)weather
E)climate
Q2) Describe how a decrease in plant populations can affect the water cycle.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT represent evidence for global warming?
A)The 10 hottest years on record have occurred since 1990.
B)In Europe,bird and butterfly species have shifted their ranges northward.
C)The hole in the ozone layer over Antarctica has been growing in size.
D)Plants in northern latitudes have increased the length of their growing seasons.
Q4) a rock formation
A)biotic
B)abiotic
C)biosphere
D)weather
E)climate
Q5) Describe how burning fossil fuels can warm the planet.
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Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Which of the following situations illustrates a link between the effects of density-dependent and density-independent factors?
A)A flood causes a river to overflow and drown a herd of deer.
B)A drought occurs;a small herd of deer is able to survive,whereas a larger herd in the same area perishes.
C)A population of deer increases to a size at which individuals are competing with each other to get enough food.
D)None of the above are correct because density-dependent and density-independent factors cannot affect the same population of organisms at the same time.
Q2) The top of the "S" in an S-shaped curve indicates that the population
A)is on the verge of collapse.
B)is experiencing abnormally heavy pressure from predators.
C)has reached its carrying capacity.
D)is poised for further exponential growth.
Q3) China's population ________ is 137 people per square kilometer.
Q4) China's one-child policy was designed to reduce the population ________ in China.
Q5) Explain why logistic growth curves have an "S" shape.
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) During ________ a newly created habitat is inhabited.
A)primary succession
B)climax community formation
C)disturbance colonization
D)keystone recovery
Q2) If a disease quickly spreads through a desert and kills moths that are the sole pollinators of long-lived yucca plants,the most likely outcome would be
A)another pollinator would quickly take over and begin to pollinate the yucca plants.
B)the yucca plants would self-pollinate.
C)the yucca plants would die the season after the last yucca moth died.
D)the yucca plants would not be pollinated and would eventually go extinct.
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Predators can restrict the distribution of their prey.
B)Predators can cause the abundance of their prey to rise.
C)Predators can quickly alter the behavior of their prey.
D)Predators can drive their prey to extinction.
Q4) An ecological ________ is an association of populations of different species that live in the same area.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) You are studying a grassland ecosystem with 400,000 kcal of energy stored in the primary producer level.Grasshoppers eat the grass,meadowlarks eat the grasshoppers,and a hawk eats the meadowlarks.How many kcals are now stored,and available,in the hawk?
A)40,000
B)4,000
C)400
D)40
Q2) When humans consume herbivores such as cattle,they occupy which trophic level of a food chain?
A)primary consumer
B)secondary consumer
C)tertiary consumer
D)primary producer
Q3) Which of the following would be abiotic components of an arctic,marine ecosystem?
A)saltwater,ice,snow,sun,wind,rocks,sand
B)polar bears,seals,salmon,seaweed,puffins
C)buffalo,meadowlarks,eagles,grasses,cottonwood trees
D)deer,skinks,squirrels,oak trees,pine trees,mosses
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Applying the Science
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Q1) You are reading an article written by Neil Shubin et al.regarding the pectoral fin of Tiktaalik roseae in the peer-reviewed journal Nature.This article is an example of A)primary literature.
B)secondary literature.
C)tertiary literature.
D)quaternary literature.
Q2) Evaluate the following and determine whether or not the treatment method is most likely based on science or pseudoscience.Provide a brief explanation of your answer. "The symptoms of your cold are similar to those of mercury poisoning,so mercury should be the remedy you use.Of course,you should dilute it by using one part mercury to one trillion parts of pure water.This one all-natural remedy will treat all of your symptoms.You can trust this method because it is a very widely used system of medicine in the world and its popularity is growing.Babies and pregnant women can use this method with no adverse effects and it works in harmony with your immune system."
Q3) review articles found in peer-reviewed scientific journals
A)primary
B)secondary
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Page 21