Biological Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles and processes underlying all forms of life. Students will study key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, physiology, and biodiversity. Emphasis is placed on scientific reasoning, laboratory techniques, and the integration of biology with other scientific disciplines, preparing students for advanced studies or careers in health, research, and environmental fields.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Biology for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Michele Shuster
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caffeine can
A) help enhance memory.
B) cause anxiety.
C) cause seizures.
D) increase urination.
E) All of the above.
Answer: E
Q2) A placebo is given to the:
A) dependent group.
B) control group.
C) independent group.
D) experimental group.
E) variable group.
Answer: B
Q3) Why does having a large sample size give more reliable results?
Answer: The larger the sample size,the less likely the results are due to chance alone.
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Chapter 4: Nutrition,metabolism,enzymes the Peanut Butter Project
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Q1) When an enzyme is involved in a catabolic reaction
A) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, lowering the activation energy, and breaking the bond.
B) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together, lowering the activation energy, and creating a bond.
C) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, increasing the activation energy, and breaking the bond.
D) its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, creating a bond by increasing the activation energy.
E) None of the above.
Q2) What is a macronutrient? What are the three primary macronutrients we obtain from our diet?
Q3) What important macronutrient(s)would you be missing if you ate a diet that contained only meat? What would be the consequences to your cells if you were missing this/these component(s)?
Q4) Explain the difference between essential and non-essential amino acids in the human diet.
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Chapter 5: Energy Flow and Photosynthesis the Future of Fuel
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Sample Questions
Q1) Visible light has wavelengths in the range of A) 100-450 nm.
B) 300-675 nm.
C) 375-920 nm.
D) 400-750 nm.
E) 600-900 nm.
Q2) The ultimate source of energy for most living organisms is
A) geothermal energy.
B) sunlight.
C) wind.
D) algae.
E) heat.
Q3) The organelle responsible for carrying out photosynthesis is the __________.
Q4) All energy in the biological world ultimately originates from A) chemical energy.
B) radiant energy.
C) potential energy.
D) kinetic energy.
E) mechanical energy.
Q5) Energy cannot be _____ or _____,but it can be ________.
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Chapter 6: Dietary Energy and Cellular Respiration
Supersize Me
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Q1) Fermentation occurs in
A) the mitochondria.
B) the chloroplasts.
C) the vacuoles.
D) the cytoplasm.
E) the nucleus.
Q2) ATP stores energy in which bond(s)?
A) adenine-ribose
B) adenine-phosphate
C) ribose-phosphate
D) ribose-ribose
E) phosphate-phosphate
Q3) What role do the lungs and red blood cells play in aerobic respiration?
Q4) Plants produce food and oxygen by what process?
A) fermentation
B) glycolysis
C) photosynthesis
D) the citric acid cycle
E) electron transport
Q5) What happens when a phosphate is removed from ATP?
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Replication Biologically
Unique
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since 1992,the Innocence Project has overturned the convictions and freed more than A) 3 people.
B) 30 people.
C) 300 people.
D) 3,000 people.
E) 30,000 people.
Q2) PCR amplification of DNA requires
A) DNA, primers, RNA polymerase, and deoxyribonucleotides.
B) DNA polymerase and deoxyribonucleotides.
C) DNA, primers, DNA polymerase, and deoxyribonucleotides.
D) DNA polymerase, deoxyribonucleotides, and primers.
E) DNA, primers, RNA polymerase, and ribonucleotides.
Q3) Identical chromosomal DNA sequences would most likely be found between an individual and his/her
A) mother.
B) sibling.
C) step-brother.
D) identical twin.
E) fraternal twin.
Page 9
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Chapter 9: Cell Division and Mitosis Natures Pharmacy
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Q1) Most adults survive chemotherapy,but unborn children frequently do not.Why do you think that is? Specifically,what is the difference between an adult and an unborn child that would account for this difference?
Q2) Explain how radiation leads to apoptosis.
Q3) Radiation and chemotherapy typically have all of the following side-effects EXCEPT A) blurry vision.
B) nausea.
C) diarrhea.
D) vomiting.
E) hair loss.
Q4) The "S" phase of the cell cycle occurs during which of the following stages?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) interphase
Q5) What do you think might happen to the embryo if a fertilized egg could not divide normally during embryonic development?
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Chapter 10: Mutations and Cancer Fighting Fate
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Q1) Which set of mutations in a cell would you expect to be LEAST tumorigenic?
A) BRCA1 and BRCA2
B) BRCA1
C) BRCA1, BRCA2, Her2, and p53 mutations
D) BRCA1, BRCA2, and p53 mutations
E) BRCA1, Her2, and p53 mutation
Q2) Most new alleles arise via
A) large rearrangements of genes.
B) exchanges of genes during crossing over.
C) mutations in existing genes.
D) changes in DNA polymerase that alter how polymerase copies DNA.
E) changes in the beginning and ending of a gene.
Q3) Which sequence is a result of a single mismatch in DNA replication of the sequence ATG GGC CTG?
A) ATG GGC CTC
B) AAG GGC CTC
C) TAC CCG GTC
D) TGC CCG GAG
E) TUC CCG GUC
Q4) List at least five carcinogens.
Page 12
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Chapter 12: Complex Inheritance Qa: Genetics
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Q1) A study was conducted among the Yaqui people in Mexico.The Yaqui who had migrated to the valley adopted Westernized agriculture,including use of pesticides and herbicides.Those who remained in the hills maintained a lower-impact form of agriculture.When the children of these two groups were examined,those in the valley had lower memory and hand-eye coordination and slower mental development than those in the hills.Yet these children were from closely related families,many of them being first cousins.Explain how they could be so different.What type(s)of inheritance might be involved?
Q2) Blood type (blood group plus the Rh factor)is an example of two types of inheritance patterns.These patterns are
A) codominance and incomplete dominance.
B) codominance and classic dominant/recessive inheritance.
C) incomplete dominance and classic dominant/recessive inheritance.
D) polygenic inheritance and incomplete dominance.
E) polygenic inheritance and classic dominant/recessive inheritance.
Q3) How does codominance differ from incomplete dominance?
Q4) The rate of aneuploidy _____ as the age of the mother increases.
Q5) Hemophilia is a recessive mutation on the X chromosome.Who is more likely to express the hemophilia phenotype,a son or a daughter? Explain.
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Chapter 13: Stem Cells and Cell Differentiation Grow Your
Own
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Q1) Stem-cell therapy
A)is not current practice.
B)has been used successfully for years.
C)is still undergoing clinical trials.
D)will be successful in the future.
E)is on its way out.
Q2) Why does a hepatocyte (liver cell)look and function differently from a neuron (brain cell)?
A) Different genes are turned on and off in each cell.
B) They originate from different cells.
C) They have different genes in them.
D) They have the same genes, but there are mutations in one cell's DNA that make it different.
E) All of the above.
Q3) Define the term tissue.
Q4) Describe the process of building a replacement organ from stem cells.
Q5) Explain the difference between multipotent,pluripotent,and totipotent stem cells.Which one(s)is/are likely to be adult stem cells,and which one(s)is/are likely to be embryonic stem cells?
Q6) List the steps involved in somatic-cell nuclear transfer. Page 16
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Chapter 14: Natural Selection and Adaptation Bugs That Resist Drugs
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Q1) If the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus fails to form properly,water will
A) create a secondary wall around the cell.
B) drain out of the cell rapidly, causing it to dehydrate.
C) drown the bacteria.
D) rush into the cell, causing it to explode.
E) create a bridge of hydrogen bonds to repair the wall.
Q2) After bacterial asexual reproduction,the daughter cells produced
A) are identical to each other.
B) have half the chromosome number.
C) are genetically different.
D) have double the DNA content.
E) exchange genes by transformation
Q3) Why doesn't a ß-lactam antibiotic prevent the growth of new host (human)cells?
Q4) If two alleles are incompletely dominant to each other and heterozygotes almost never survive,which pattern of natural selection would you expect to see?
A) bifurcating selection
B) directional selection
C) diversifying selection
D) intermediate selection
E) stabilizing selection
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Chapter 15: A: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Q1) If a flood causes the death of 50% of small mammals,which population would exhibit the most loss of genetic diversity in its future generations?
A) 60<sup>2</sup> mammals
B) 60 mammals
C) 600 mammals
D) 60<sup>3</sup> mammals
E) 6000 mammals
Q2) Which population would have the most loss of diversity from a genetic bottleneck?
A)100 elephants
B)1000 mice
C)10³ E.coli
D)10 cats
E)100 humans
Q3) Which of the following are types of nonadaptive evolution?
A) natural selection
B) bottleneck effect
C) founder effect
D) Both B and C
E) A, B, and C
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Chapter 15: B: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) This mechanism is NOT responsible for random changes in allele frequency in the gene pool of a population.
A) natural selection
B) genetic drift
C) mutations in the gene pool
D) founder effect
E) bottlenecks
Q2) From the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium you can conclude that all populations are evolving.Explain.
Q3) You are a geneticist studying the population genetics of barn swallows.You are particularly interested in one gene,and upon examining the 100 alleles present in 50 individuals,you find that one allele is quite common,accounting for 30 of those alleles.The allelic frequency of this allele is
A) 0.3.
B) 0.5.
C) 0.6.
D) 2.0.
E) 3.3.
Q4) Why is genetic diversity important for the survival of a species?
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Chapter 16: Evidence for Evolution a Fish With Fingers
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Q1) What circumstances would keep an animal from becoming a fossil?
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes a type of fossil and the way in which it is formed?
A) A spider imprint can be created when the spider is trapped in amber.
B) A fish fossil can be created when the fish is rapidly buried in sediment, then dessicated.
C) A dinosaur may leave a mineralized fossil if it is rapidly buried in sediment and slowly compressed over millions of years.
D) A plant fossil may take the form of a leaf imprint, created when the leaf was rapidly buried in soft mud, which hardened around it.
E) Rapid freezing or desiccation may leave a fossil imprint if the organism is rapidly buried in sediment.
Q3) A tetrapod is
A) an animal with two fins.
B) an animal with four fins.
C) an animal with two limbs.
D) an animal with four limbs.
E) an animal with four appendages intermediate between fins and limbs.
Q4) Is the fossil record complete? Explain.
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Chapter 17: Life on Earth Qa: Evolution
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Q1) The idea that the entire solar system and all the planets in it were formed at the same time is called
A) the black hole hypothesis.
B) the derivation hypothesis.
C) the extraterrestrial hypothesis.
D) the nebular hypothesis.
E) the solar hypothesis.
Q2) If a rock contains 75% lead-206,you would estimate it to be about ____ billion years old.
A) 13.5
B) 9
C) 1
D) 6.75
E) 11.25
Q3) An isotope is the same element with a different number of A) protons.
B) neutrons.
C) electrons.
D) electrons and protons.
E) protons and neutrons.
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Chapter 18: Prokaryotic Diversity Lost City
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Q1) If you explore the life inside a hydrothermal vent,you will most likely find a ________ cell,which is a member of domain ________.
A) eukaryotic; Bacteria
B) eukaryotic; Archaea
C) prokaryotic; Bacteria
D) prokaryotic; Archaea
E) prokaryotic; Eukarya
Q2) Which is NOT true of prokaryotes?
A) They are found on you.
B) They are found in you.
C) They are the first colonizers of Earth.
D) They are exclusive to land.
E) They can inhabit extreme environments.
Q3) This structure differs in its composition in Archaea and Bacteria.
A) cytoplasm
B) cell wall
C) nucleus
D) golgi
E) nucleic acid
Q4) Explain the role of heterotrophic bacteria in recycling nutrients.
Page 23
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Q1) List at least three of the four distinguishing characteristics of the arthropod group.
Q2) Fungi are found
A) on, in ,and under vegetation.
B) on and in animals.
C) in and on top of soil.
D) in dead trees and animal carcasses.
E) All of the above.
Q3) The diversity of organisms found in an area is directly related to A) the diversity of temperature.
B) the diversity of elevation.
C) the diversity of rainfall.
D) the diversity of the physical terrain.
E) All of the above.
Q4) You are in charge of making a new national park in your home state.Your goal is to protect as many species as possible,and you have narrowed your choices down to two areas.These areas are identical in every way except that one area also contains a large lake.Would you choose the area with or without the lake? Explain your answer.
Q5) List three types of fungi.
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Q1) Protists share this feature with other eukaryotes.
A) They are single celled.
B) They have chloroplasts.
C) They have a vacuole.
D) They have a nucleus.
E) They are photosynthetic.
Q2) Define both radial symmetry and bilateral symmetry.Why have animals with bilateral symmetry been more successful than animals with radial symmetry?
Q3) You are in charge of creating a new national park to protect as many species as possible.What are some of the characteristics of a park you feel are the most important for preserving a diverse array of species?
Q4) List three of the four kingdoms belonging to domain Eukarya.
Q5) The diversity of living organisms in Olympic National Park is largely due to A) the Pacific Ocean.
B) the Olympic mountains.
C) the many habitats contained within the park.
D) freshwater lakes.
E) Mount Olympus.
Q6) Why are the protists so difficult to classify?
Page 25
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Chapter 20: Human Evolution Skin Deep
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Q1) The family tree that includes humans and chimpanzees is BEST described how?
A) As a simple tree with two branches-one leading to chimps and one leading from early to modern humans. Only one species of early human was present on Earth at a time.
B) As a complex tree with two major branches-one leading to chimps and one leading to modern humans. The "human" tree itself has many branches, and multiple early human species were present at various times during human evolution.
C) As a complex tree with three major branches-one leading to chimps, one leading to Neanderthal Man, and one leading to modern humans. Only one species of early human was present on Earth at a time.
D) As a complex tree with two major braches-one leading to chimps and one leading to modern humans. The "human" tree has many branches, but only one species of early human was present on Earth at a time.
E) As a complex tree with many major branches-one to chimps and one to each of many early human species. A dozen or more early human species were present on Earth before anatomically modern humans arose.
Q2) List at least three health problems associated with a deficiency of vitamin D.
Q3) How is mitochondrial DNA different from nuclear DNA?
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Chapter 21: A: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Q1) Define population.
Q2) You work on a large nature preserve full of a variety of habitats,including dry uplands,wooded lowlands,meadows,and many creeks and ponds in the low-lying areas.You are given the task of estimating the population size of a rare species of fern.Knowing that ferns can only grow in soils with high moisture,how might you go about estimating population size?
Q3) Climate change and warmer temperatures may
A) alter vegetation growth patterns.
B) affect food sources of populations.
C) increase a population's disease susceptibility.
D) increase pest populations.
E) All of the above.
Q4) You have a population of 1000 individuals that is increasing at a growth rate of 10% per year.What will the population be in 5 years?
A) 1500
B) 1610
C) 1250
D) 1110
E) 2000
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Chapter 21: B: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Q1) Climate change and warmer temperatures may
A) alter vegetation growth patterns.
B) affect food sources of populations.
C) increase a population's disease susceptibility.
D) increase pest populations.
E) All of the above.
Q2) When a population reaches its carrying capacity,its growth rate will
A) increase exponentially.
B) increase arithmetically.
C) slow and remain near zero.
D) decrease slowly.
E) decrease rapidly.
Q3) Define population.
Q4) Which behavior would most likely result in a uniform distribution pattern?
A) migration
B) defensive strategies
C) predator avoidance
D) territorial and nesting behaviors in birds
E) social network of bees
Q5) Can a population exceed its carrying capacity?
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Chapter 22: A: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Q1) If only 10% of the energy available in a plant is turned into body tissue of a cow,what happens to the other 90%?
Q2) Two non-native species of bees are introduced into a new ecosystem.One species has a broad ecological niche,while the other has a narrow specialized niche.Which species is most likely to be successful in the new environment? Explain your answer.
Q3) Competition for resources by two species occupying the same or similar niches is usually alleviated by
A) mutualism.
B) commensalism.
C) extinction of one species.
D) resource partitioning.
E) symbiosis.
Q4) If honey bees become extinct,which food supply would also be negatively impacted?
A) apples
B) oranges
C) melons
D) pears
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 22: B: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Q1) In the United States,how many crops are dependent on bees for pollination?
A) > 100
B) < 100
C) 50
D) < 50
E) < 25
Q2) Which is NOT a top-level consumer in a food chain?
A) hawk
B) coyote
C) wolves
D) human carnivore
E) human vegetarian
Q3) What percentage of the total energy is lost due to metabolism,heat,and waste between trophic levels in a food chain?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 50%
D) 90%
E) 1%
Q4) Name at least three factors implicated in causing colony collapse disorder.
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Chapter 23: A: Ecosystem Ecology the Heat Is on
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Q1) Some animals have a very broad,varied diet,while others have very specialized diets.Which type of diet do you think will allow an animal to adapt to climate change the easiest? Explain your answer.
Q2) Which land mass is showing the most dramatic increase in surface temperatures in recent years?
A) North America
B) Arctic
C) Europe
D) Africa
E) South America
Q3) List at least three ways humans are increasing the levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Q4) Which of the following statements about global temperature change is TRUE?
A) Over the last 30 years, Arctic sea ice has shrunk by more than 1 million acres.
B) The equator is warming faster than the poles.
C) The equator is predicted to increase 4° to 7°C over the next 100 years.
D) Eurasia warmed less than most other areas of the globe.
E) Although temperatures may warm, sea levels will remain stable.
Q5) List three sources of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
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Chapter
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Q1) List three sources of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Q2) All of the following are reasons that Canada is selling more maple syrup than the United States,EXCEPT
A) Canada has planted millions of maple trees.
B) Canada has increased its marketing.
C) Canada has provided government subsidies to their maple syrup industry.
D) Canada has improved its technology for producing maple syrup efficiently.
E) climate change has shortened the maple syrup season in Vermont.
Q3) Why would a plant species go extinct but an animal survive when temperature change alters a habitat?
A) Plants are less tolerant of rapid temperature change.
B) Animals are more tolerant of heat changes.
C) Animals are more mobile than plants.
D) Animals are more adaptable.
E) All of the above.
Q4) Explain how the greenhouse effect warms Earth and list two greenhouse gases.
Q5) Do you think polar bears are particularly sensitive to global warming? Speculate on the effects of global warming on polar bears.
Q6) Explain how the industrial revolution led to global warming.
Page 32
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Chapter 24: A: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Q1) What does an ecological footprint measure?
A) the amount of land required to feed a population
B) the damage a population has on an ecosystem
C) the impact on nature as determined by a population's lifestyle
D) the amount of fossil fuel a population uses
E) the amount of energy a population produces and consumes
Q2) An environmentally friendly city's ecological footprint of 2.6 would need to become this in order to be in agreement with global sustainability.
A) 7.6
B) 4.4
C) 3.6
D) 2.6
E) 1.8
Q3) Although _____ of Earth's surface is water,only _____ is available for human consumption.
A) 50%; 2%
B) 55%; 8%%
C) 63%; 5%
D) 70%; 1%
E) 82%; 3%
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Chapter 24: B: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Q1) A graph of the growth of the human population has what shape?
A) J
B) S
C) inverted U
D) inverted V
E) a straight line
Q2) To maintain a balanced water cycle,what needs to occur?
A) Per-capita consumption must decrease.
B) Water withdrawals cannot exceed replenishment.
C) Irrigation for agriculture must stop.
D) Per-capita consumption must increase.
E) Water withdrawals must exceed replenishment.
Q3) How do trees and green rooftops fit into a plan for an environmentally friendly city?
Q4) Explain the role of women in limiting population growth.
Q5) What is an ecological footprint?
Q6) Describe how water cycles on Earth.
Q7) Explain how a vegetarian diet can reduce water use.
Q8) Define biocapacity and explain the relationship of biocapacity to the human ecological footprint.
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Chapter 25: A: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Q1) Because of ________,hands,feet,and noses get cold before the rest of the body does.
A) vasoconcentration
B) vasoconstriction
C) vasodilation
D) pH regulation
E) insulin
Q2) Define homeostasis.
Q3) The regulation of which of the following is NOT part of maintaining homeostasis?
A) blood-glucose levels
B) salt concentration of body fluids
C) blood pressure
D) body temperature
E) room temperature
Q4) Name the types of animal tissues.
Q5) One of the first responses the body has to hypoxia is vasodilation in most parts of the body.Explain how this reaction would interact with thermoregulation and osmoregulation in a high-altitude mountain climber.
35
Q6) A tissue is composed of ________ that work together to carry out a specific function.
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Chapter 25: B: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus is
A) the size of a lemon.
B) located in the throat.
C) in the frontal lobe of the brain.
D) located at the base of the brain.
E) part of the liver.
Q2) Dehydration is associated with _______ osmolarity and _______ blood pressure.
A) low; high
B) low; low
C) high; low
D) high; high
E) no change in; no change in
Q3) A hormone that regulates blood-glucose levels is
A) glycogen.
B) phosphofructokinase.
C) glucagon.
D) insulin.
E) both glucagon and insulin
Q4) Using the concept of sensor and effector,describe the response of the body to a drastic decrease in temperature.
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Chapter 26: Digestive System Drastic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the upper digestive tract,enzymes are produced by the __________.
A) tongue
B) salivary glands
C) esophagus
D) stomach
E) B and D
Q2) The main role of the large intestine is the absorption of __________.
A) carbohydrates
B) water
C) lipids
D) mineral salts
E) vitamin C
Q3) The organ labeled 4 is the __________.
A) pancreas
B) stomach
C) large intestine
D) small intestine
E) rectum
Q4) The enzyme ______ breaks down fats.
Q5) Describe the journey of food from the mouth to the stomach.
Page 38
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Chapter 27: A: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) What did researchers discover about the correlation between risk factors and fatty streaks in the aorta and coronary arteries?
A) The more fatty streaks found correlate with the severity of a single risk factor.
B) Only two risk factors correlate with more fatty streaks.
C) Less than four risk factors do not correlate with more fatty streaks.
D) Fatty streaks increase with an increasing number of risk factors for an individual.
E) No studies are available observing the number of fatty streaks correlated with risk factors.
Q2) What is the typical amount of time it takes for blood to flow through the entire cardiovascular system in the body?
A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 5 minutes
D) 10 minutes
E) It only stays in one circuit.
Q3) How do the different components of blood provide the entry of reactants and export of products for tissue cellular respiration?
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Chapter 27: B: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the results of Dr.Berenson's heart disease study,what is the primary focus going forward?
A)Teach prevention measures in adults.
B)Develop a curriculum for high-risk populations.
C)Teach prevention measures in elementary schools.
D)Learn how to treat fatty deposits in children before they become plaques.
E)The study is not concluded, so future directions have not been discussed.
Q2) Capillaries allow for diffusion of oxygen into cells because A)blood flow is slowed.
B)of the lower concentration of oxygen in the blood.
C)of thin capillary walls.
D)A and C
E)All of the above.
Q3) Blood contains ____________,which do not have a nucleus.
A) leukocytes
B) erythrocytes
C) platelets
D) plasma
E) white blood cells
Q4) Why do LDL and HDL have to accompany cholesterol in the blood?
Page 40
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Chapter 28: Respiratory System Peak Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do we get the correct amount of oxygen absorption and carbon dioxide removal from any particular tissue in the body if the process relies on diffusion?
Q2) How do the structure and function of the bronchioles dictate the eventual distribution of gasses to the alveoli,and why is this feature important?
Q3) Why are gasses exchanged in the respiratory systems of insects and fish?
A)Insects and fish require oxygen as a reactant for cellular respiration.
B)Insects use nitrogen gasses as both a reactant and product of cellular respiration,and fish use oxygen as a reactant and carbon dioxide as a product of cellular respiration.
C)Insects and fish create carbon dioxide as a waste product of cellular respiration.
D)Both A and C.
E)All of the above are hurdles.
Q4) Describe the gas exchange diffusion process that occurs at the respiratory surface.
Q5) Provide two unique explanations as to why many experts consider the cardiovascular system and the respiratory system to be one system working together (sometimes termed the cardiorespiratory system).
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Chapter 29: A: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) An action potential begins when,in response to a stimulus,_______.
A) sodium channels open and sodium enters the neuron
B) sodium channels open and sodium exits the neuron
C) potassium channels open and potassium enters the neuron
D) potassium channels open and potassium exits the neuron
E) sodium channels close and sodium is pumped out of the neuron
Q2) List and describe the steps by which a neuron transmits an action potential (AP)to a neighboring cell.
Q3) Which of the labeled structures are the dendrites?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q4) What is the role of the myelin sheath in a neuron?
Q5) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q6) Compare an action potential to the sodium potassium pump.
Q7) What is the diencephalon?
Q8) What is an action potential?
Q9) Explain the steps required for smoking to cause a feeling of pleasure. Page 42
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Chapter 29: B: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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107 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is TRUE to say that _______.
A)dopamine in the only neurotransmitter involved in addiction
B)the cerebellum,which controls decision making,may not properly develop in teenage addicts
C)when dopamine receptors are reduced,dopamine will simply remain in the synapse unused
D)A and C.
E)None of the above.
Q2) The arrival of an action potential at an axon terminal stimulates _______.
A) the release of sodium ions
B) the uptake of neurotransmitters
C) the release of neurotransmitters
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q3) Does knowing more about the physiology of addiction change your attitudes about it? Provide examples of how addiction affects the brain and body.
Q4) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q5) Do you believe that addiction is an illness? Use your knowledge of the physiology of addiction to support your answer.
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Chapter 30: Reproductive System Too Many Multiples
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the testis.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Q2) A vasectomy is a surgical procedure in which each vas deferens is cut or clamped shut above the testis.Explain why this procedure renders a man sterile.Does it also reduce a man's testosterone level or the amount of semen he produces during ejaculation? Why?
Q3) Compare and contrast costs and benefits of internal fertilization,such as in mammals,and external fertilization,such as in fish.
Q4) What is the first step of in vitro fertilization?
Q5) This is a seminiferous tubule.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Q6) What are some of the reasons that ovaries may fail to produce eggs?
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Chapter 31: Immune System Viral Mysteries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alleles that carry new hemagglutinin and/or neuraminidase due to antigenic shift are likely to cause which of the following immune responses?
A) a slow primary immune response
B) a large secondary immune response
C) a large primary immune response
D) a slow secondary immune response
E) Neither a primary nor secondary immune response will be elicited.
Q2) Four alleles that were specific to the 1918 flu virus caused the virus to initiate a strong inflammatory response.What other change did these four new alleles allow that contributed to the extensive mortality of the 1918 flu?
Q3) The physical barriers that are part of the immune system function by having
A) tightly packed epithelial cells that prevent pathogens from entering tissues
B) mucus that traps pathogens and other foreign substances
C) cilia that sweep mucus out of the throat
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q4) Is a virus alive?
Q5) Explain how viruses are similar to living cells but not considered alive.
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Chapter 32: A: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In temperate (not extremely hot,dry)climates,plants typically _______.
A) keep stomata open all day
B) perform both parts of photosynthesis at the same time
C) have thick, waxy cuticles on their leaves to prevent water loss
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q2) Explain how auxin controls phototropism.
Q3) This is the anther.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q4) The male sexual organ of the plant is the _______.
A) flower
B) pistil
C) filament
D) stamen
E) receptacle
Q5) Why do leaves of deciduous trees change color in the fall?
Page 47
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Chapter 32: B: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) High levels of _______ promote seed dormancy.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) ethylene
D) cytokinins
E) abscisic acid
Q2) How would a reduction in surface area reduce water loss?
Q3) A plant whose leaves and other tissues are white is missing _______ and must be a(n)_______.
A) chloroplasts; heterotroph
B) chloroplasts; autotroph
C) nucleus; heterotroph
D) nucleus; autotroph
E) central vacuole; autotroph
Q4) If you were trying to tap maple trees to gather sap for maple syrup and had your choice of trees with yellow,orange,or flaming red leaves,which would you pick? Why?
Q5) A typical cactus found in an American desert has a green,fleshy stem and leaves reduced to brown and/or white needles and/or fine hairs.Why are the leaves reduced,and where do you think photosynthesis takes place? Explain.
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