Biological Science
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Biological Science is a multidisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course provides an in-depth understanding of fundamental concepts such as genetics, cell biology, ecology, physiology, and biodiversity. Through lectures, laboratory work, and real-world case studies, students will develop analytical and practical skills necessary to investigate biological processes at molecular, cellular, and ecosystem levels. The course also emphasizes current developments in biotechnology, environmental science, and ethical considerations in biology, preparing students for advanced studies or careers in health, research, and environmental management.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given basic information from observations of the orchid with a long nectary,and the moth with the long proboscis,what is the advantage to a plant like an orchid producing nectar over a plant like a pine tree that does not produce nectar?
A) Nectar helps disperse pollen by water.
B) Nectar attracts animals that perform pollination.
C) Nectar helps disperse pollen by wind.
D) Nectar provides a sticky surface for pollen to attach to, promoting fertilization.
E) Nectar provides food for the pollen and growing fruit.
Answer: B
Q2) Homeostasis means that
A) conditions inside a cell or organism remain within a constant range.
B) environmental conditions are held constant and do not change.
C) cells have enough water.
D) a population changes over time.
E) all organisms require an energy source.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Trees are able to transport water from the roots to the top branches because
A) cohesion bonds water molecules to each other strongly.
B) adhesion bonds water molecules to the insides of the plant cells.
C) liquid water has a higher density than the air in the plant cells of the roots, trunk and branches.
D) water acts as a solvent of the tree cells as it moves upwards to the branches.
Answer: B
Q2) The four nitrogen bases found in RNA are
A) adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil.
B) adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil.
C) adenine, thymine, cytosine, and uracil.
D) thymine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q3) A peptide bond is a covalent bond formed between the amino group of one amino acid and the R group of another amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of these is an incorrect comparison between flagella and cilia?
A) Flagella have essentially the same internal structure of cytoskeleton proteins as cilia.
B) Flagella are used for propulsion, while cilia are used to attach cells to other cells or surfaces.
C) Flagella are found in all three domains of organisms, while cilia are found only in Eukarya.
D) Flagella are longer structures than cilia.
Answer: B
Q2) The scientist(s)given credit for first using the term "cell" to describe the basic unit of life is (are)
A) Louis Pasteur.
B) Robert Hooke.
C) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann.
D) Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
E) Rudolf Virchow.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these membrane transport processes does not require membrane proteins?
A) active transport pumps
B) facilitated diffusion
C) endocytosis
D) osmosis
Q2) One in 25 Caucasians is a carrier for the defective CFTR gene,making it the most common genetic disease in this population.Why would the frequency of defects in CFTR be so common in this population,given the relationship between cholera and CFTR is similar in humans?
A) Carriers with one copy of the defective CFTR gene have decreased resistance to cholera compared to those with no defective copies.
B) Carriers with one copy of the defective CFTR gene have increased resistance to cholera compared to those with no defective copies.
C) Only carriers would be able to survive exposure to cholera.
D) These individuals were exposed to cholera, causing mutations in their CFTR gene that can then be passed on to their children.
E) Carriers will be more likely to have children who develop cystic fibrosis.
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6
Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Blue light has ___ energy than red light and is ____ by a green leaf.
A) less; reflected
B) more; absorbed
C) less; absorbed
D) more; reflected
Q2) The electrons flowing through the electron transport chains in photosynthesis come from ____ and end up being carried by _____.
A) oxygen; NADPH
B) NADPH; water
C) NADPH; oxygen
D) oxygen; water
E) water; NADPH
Q3) Grana,thylakoids,and chloroplasts are structures in cells that are important to the process of photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The light reactions use ATP as their energy source.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Q1) ATP is needed for metabolism in all cells,because six ATPs are covalently bonded together to form glucose for energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Krebs cycle produces
A) ATP, NADH, and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
B) carbon dioxide and oxygen.
C) oxygen and ATP.
D) NADH, FADH<sub>2</sub>, and oxygen.
E) pyruvate and PGAL.
Q3) Philodendron flowers pass electrons through a mitochondrial electron transport chain to generate heat.What step is bypassed in generating heat?
A) formation of a proton gradient
B) excitation of electrons by sunlight
C) release of electrons from water
D) transfer of electrons to oxygen
E) donation of electrons to the electron transport chain
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Q1) If you compared the DNA sequence of a gene with the sequence of the mature mRNA that was transcribed from the gene you would find
A) the mRNA is shorter because each codon of three bases encodes only one amino acid.
B) the mRNA is shorter because it does not contain introns.
C) the mRNA is longer because each codon of one amino acid encodes three bases.
D) both are the same length.
E) the mRNA is shorter because it does not contain exons.
Q2) How did the researchers estimate that the original FOXP2 mutation happened 300,000-400,000 years ago?
A) by examining the fossil record
B) They found the mutation in Neandertal DNA.
C) They found the mutation in chimpanzee DNA.
D) They found the mutation in 300,000-year-old human remains.
E) using a molecular clock
Q3) Because cells are very efficient in the processes that they carry out,very little energy is needed for the cell to make proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: DNA Replication, mitosis, and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure that organizes the protein subunits of the mitotic spindle is the A) centrosome.
B) centromere.
C) microfilaments.
D) kinetochore.
E) cytoskeleton.
Q2) The process by which a sperm cell combines with an egg cell is
A) replication.
B) germination.
C) mitosis.
D) fertilization.
E) recombination.
Q3) How does the space between our fingers arise?
A) The cells die by necrosis.
B) Mitosis of the cells is blocked.
C) The cells die by apoptosis.
D) The cells become part of the fingers.
E) Meiosis of the cells is blocked.
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) In humans,germ cells are located in the
A) ovaries and bone marrow.
B) bone marrow.
C) ovaries.
D) testes.
E) testes and ovaries.
Q2) Genes A and B are on the same chromosome.The genes have alleles A and B on one homologous chromosome,and the alleles a and b on its paired homolog.How could an individual with this allele arrangement produce a gamete with a chromosome containing the alleles Ab or aB?
A) crossing over
B) random fertilization
C) independent assortment
D) mitosis
E) fragmentation of the chromosome
Q3) Without genetic diversity,a population might more easily fall victim to parasites and pathogens.
A)True
B)False
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Diagrams depicting family relationships and phenotypes for a genetic disorder are A) bell-shaped curves.
B) linkage maps.
C) karyotypes.
D) pedigree charts.
E) Punnett squares.
Q2) In Huntington disease,a child will typically only get the disease if one parent also has it.It is as common in boys as in girls.This disease is A) pleiotropic.
B) autosomal dominant.
C) autosomal recessive.
D) X-linked dominant.
E) X-linked recessive.
Q3) For the traits Mendel studied in pea plants,each trait,or phenotype,is expressed in only the dominant or recessive form,depending on the genotype.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) The medical goal in applying gene therapy to diseased people is to find substitute genes from other organisms to cure the disease condition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number of nucleotides sequence in chimpanzees is approximately
A) three billion.
B) 400 thousand.
C) 15 million.
D) ten billion.
Q3) The method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is used to make enough exact copies of DNA for researchers to use in analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis uses DNA testing to examine the genes in sperm,egg,or embryo cells.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) The bottleneck effect occurs when
A) small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.
B) many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity.
C) many members of a population reproduce causing too much genetic diversity within the population.
D) large groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.
Q2) Darwin believed that because of "differential reproductive success" a population would change over time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sexually dimorphic features do not include
A) None of the answer choices are sexually dimorphic features.
B) antlers.
C) intelligence.
D) body size.
E) colored plumage.
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) The name of the specialized field of studies that examines fossils and other clues to past life or environmental conditions is
A) All of these answer options refer to the specific study of fossils.
B) genetics.
C) microevolution.
D) evolution.
E) paleontology.
Q2) A fossil is defined as any evidence of an organism from more than _____ years ago.
A) 10,000
B) 100,000
C) 1,000
D) 25,000
E) 500
Q3) Potassium-40 is useful in determining the age of a fossil in samples
A) 300,000 years of age and older.
B) less than 25,000 years of age.
C) less than 50,000 years of age.
D) aged between 50,000 and 100,000 years.
E) aged between 100,000 and 250,000 years.
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Q1) Scientists have a very complete fossil record showing the evolution of horses over millions of years,with the legs becoming longer and the teeth larger,as ancestors of the modern horse adapted from living in forest to grasslands.This is an example of A) extinction.
B) punctuated equilibrium.
C) adaptive radiation.
D) gradualism.
E) a prezygotic barrier to evolution.
Q2) The type of reproductive isolation in which the two populations are separated due to their habitat is
A) ecological isolation.
B) behavioral isolation.
C) mechanical isolation.
D) temporal isolation.
E) hybrid inviability.
Q3) The outgroup in this cladogram of vertebrate animals is the amphibians.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: The Origin and History of Life
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Q1) It is thought that the first cells probably arose about _____ years ago.
A) two billion
B) 1.2 billion
C) six billion
D) 500 million
E) 3.5 billion
Q2) Humans and chimps are both able to
A) communicate.
B) use tools and communicate.
C) walk upright.
D) walk upright and use tools.
E) use tools.
Q3) The early report that Stanley Miller had created "Life in a Test Tube" in his prebiotic simulations was correct.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The two major extinctions of living species occurred during the Mesozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Viruses
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Q1) Oral infections with herpes simplex virus 1 can lie dormant in nerve cells for years.When a patient becomes stressed,the virus is released,forming cold sores on the lips.Why is the cold sore adaptive to the virus?
A) Cold sores allow the virus to move to another part of the body.
B) Cold sores warn other people that the host is infected.
C) Cold sores allow the virus to avoid the immune system.
D) Cold sores allow the virus to spread to a new host.
E) Cold sores allow the virus to mutate and survive antibiotic treatments.
Q2) The shape of a virus is determined by its
A) RNA.
B) coat protein organization.
C) envelope.
D) DNA.
E) host.
Q3) The genetic information in viruses
A) is found in the nucleus of the virus.
B) is a specialized capsid protein.
C) is always DNA.
D) is always RNA.
E) can be DNA or RNA.
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Chapter 17: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) You have the opportunity to stain a sample of prokaryote cells to verify the chemical composition of their cell walls.The primary component you should stain for in the cell walls of bacteria,even if gram-negative or gram-positive categories,is
A) chitin.
B) cellulose.
C) a complex lipid.
D) peptidoglycan.
E) glucose.
Q2) In a tetanus shot,patients are injected with small amounts of tetanospasmin,a toxin produced by the Clostridium tetani,the bacterium that causes tetanus.The gene for this protein is carried on a plasmid in the bacterium.Which of the following is true of this gene?
A) It can enter another bacterium by transformation.
B) It cannot go through vertical gene transfer.
C) It is found in the nucleus of the Clostridium tetani.
D) It cannot go through horizontal gene transfer.
E) It is part of the Clostridium tetani chromosome.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Protists
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Q1) Silica walls are characteristic of
A) red algae.
B) diatoms.
C) slime molds.
D) euglenoids.
E) brown algae.
Q2) Where in a diatom would you find their yellowish photosynthetic pigment?
A) in chloroplasts
B) in the nucleus
C) in the plasma membrane
D) in the cell wall
E) in the cytoplasm
Q3) Slime molds may exist as either single amoeboid cells or large masses of cells that behave as one multicellular organism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All protists are single-celled.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Plants
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Q1) Fossil evidence places the origin of angiosperms in the early Cretaceous period,at least 130 million years ago.By 100 million years ago,all of today's major lineages of angiosperms were in place.Angiosperms make up 95% of all modern plant species.Which of the following may help explain the rapid success of angiosperms?
A) use of the wind to disperse pollen and seeds
B) Animals eating the plants helped to disperse both pollen and seeds.
C) use of the wind to disperse spores
D) use of water to disperse pollen and seeds
E) Flowers and fruits help protect and disperse both pollen and seeds.
Q2) In gymnosperms and angiosperms,a plant embryo (young sporophyte)packaged with a food supply in a tough outer coat is a
A) gemmae.
B) fruit.
C) seed.
D) sperm.
E) pollen grain.
Q3) In bryophytes,the sporophyte is conspicuous or dominant.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Fungi
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Q1) Ascomycetes are fungi that cause disease and are not beneficial to humans in any way.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A yeast is a multicellular fungus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The familiar growth form represented by edible mushrooms,as well as some poisonous mushrooms,is associated with the ______ phylum.
A) glomeromycetes
B) basidiomycetes
C) zygomycetes
D) ascomycetes
E) chytridiomycetes
Q4) Valley fever,a medical condition caused by Coccidioides immitis,is caused by A) common allergic reactions that many people have to the fungus.
B) entry of the fungal spores by inhalation.
C) a mutation of the common fungal inhabitant of human hair, nails, and skin.
D) toxins produced by the fungus.
E) eating the fruiting body, rather than the mycelium of the fungus.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Animals
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Q1) The distinguishing animal trait "A," that separates the body forms of the Eumetazoa and the Parazoa is
A) whether it is the mouth or the anus which forms first from the opening in the developing embryo.
B) whether or not the animal has true tissues.
C) whether the animal must periodically molt in order to grow, or has characteristic soft larval stages.
D) whether the animal has bilateral symmetry and three germ layers, or radial symmetry and two germ layers.
E) None of these answer options is correct.
Q2) Flatworms have complete digestive tracts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The bony or cartilaginous cranium in chordates is adaptive because it
A) protects the brain.
B) develops into the postanal tail.
C) allows movement, as a lightweight exoskeleton structure.
D) replaces the notochord in most chordates.
E) forms the vertebrae.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The main difference between adventitious roots and other root types is that
A) there is no woody or starch storage tissue within the adventitious roots.
B) adventitious roots do not conduct water or nutrients for the plant, as do other specialized root types.
C) other specialized root types do not provide the same advantages as adventitious roots.
D) None of these answer options are correct.
E) adventitious roots are formed from any part of the plant other than the root.
Q2) The two main parts of a leaf are the
A) blade and petiole.
B) node and internode.
C) axillary bud and blade.
D) blade and fruit.
E) node and axillary bud.
Q3) Stems that grow underground and produce roots and new shoots are
A) rhizoids.
B) rhizomes.
C) tubers.
D) stolons.
E) tendrils.
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Chapter 23: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Water is pulled from a plant's roots to its leaves by transpiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nitrogen is needed in plants to manufacture
A) All of the answer choices are correct.
B) amino acids.
C) chlorophyll.
D) proteins.
E) nucleic acids.
Q3) What can you conclude about the grass in your lawn if the recommended fertilizer has an N-P-K ratio of 29-3-4?
A) It has a taproot.
B) It is not a legume.
C) It is parasitic.
D) It needs a lot of water.
E) P and K are not essential nutrients.
Q4) Mycorrhizal fungi decrease the ability of a plant's roots to absorb water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) You plant a seed into a pot containing some soil,and then add water and place the pot under a light.In the first week,before the seedling even emerged from the soil,carbon dioxide levels increased in the closed chamber.The developing plant was using which of the following as a source of energy during this first week?
A) sugars from the soil
B) water from the soil
C) starch from the seed
D) nutrients from the soil
E) light
Q2) The whorl of a flower that consists of all petals is the
A) stamen.
B) calyx.
C) stigma.
D) carpel.
E) corolla.
Q3) All tropisms result from differential growth in which one side of the responding organ grows faster than the other.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) The systems that support and move the body are
A) skeletal and muscular.
B) nervous and endocrine.
C) circulatory and respiratory.
D) digestive and circulatory.
E) urinary and immune.
Q2) The type of connective tissue which stores lipids is called
A) adipose.
B) bone.
C) cartilage.
D) dense connective.
E) blood.
Q3) Which pairs of organs interact to regulate body temperature?
A) lungs, brain
B) lungs, skin
C) brain, skin
D) skin, bones
E) lungs, kidneys
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Chapter 26: The Nervous System
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Q1) If you read about a drug designed to lead to more release of dopamine from the synaptic terminals of certain brain neurons,you would know that the drug was designed to fix synaptic function and thus cure
A) epilepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) Alzheimer disease.
D) Huntington disease.
E) Parkinson disease.
Q2) If you were asked to point to the site in the brain which controls automatic functions like breathing,you would put your finger on a picture of the brain at the A) cerebellum.
B) hypothalamus.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) pons.
E) cerebrum.
Q3) During an action potential,sodium ions pour into the cell.
A)True
B)False
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28
Chapter 27: The Senses
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Q1) If you wanted to design a drug to stop the sense of smell,what kind of receptor would you target?
A) photoreceptor
B) chemoreceptor
C) proprioreceptor
D) electroreceptor
E) thermoreceptor
Q2) In humans,which of the following is used primarily to detect sharp blows and excessive heat?
A) mechanoreceptor
B) chemoreceptor
C) proprioreceptor
D) thermoreceptor
E) pain receptor
Q3) The senses of equilibrium and balance derive from the
A) cochlea.
B) semicircular canals.
C) vestibule.
D) cochlea and vestibule.
E) semicircular canals and vestibule.
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Chapter 28: The Endocrine System
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Q1) As the editor of a textbook dealing with signalling in animals,which statement would you remove?
A) Both the nervous system and the endocrine system use neurotransmitters to affect target cells.
B) A nerve impulse is virtually instantaneous, but hormones take from seconds to hours to exert their effects.
C) Hormones and neurotransmitters may share the same target cell.
D) A single neuron influences only a few cells at a time, whereas hormones circulate throughout the body in the blood.
E) Some chemicals act as both neurotransmitters and hormones.
Q2) Seasonal Affective Disorder can be treated with supplemental lighting. A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the glands of the vertebrate endocrine system are regulated by the A) hypothalamus and pons.
B) hypothalamus and pituitary gland.
C) cerebrum and medulla oblongata.
D) pineal gland and pituitary gland.
E) cerebellum and pituitary gland.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) The long bones of the human body begin as cartilaginous structures in embryos.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you were to cut the biceps so that it no longer had an attachment to bone,why would this limit motion of the upper arm?
A) The biceps and triceps antagonize one another in the motion of the arm; cutting removes one antagonist.
B) The biceps is where arm connects to all relevant nerve cells.
C) The biceps is the main muscle for moving the arm.
D) The other arm muscles all connect to the biceps and would also become detatched as a result.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) The biceps has the triceps for an antagonist.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The temporalis muscle is critical for chewing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: The Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would icefish lose their alpha and beta globin genes through mutation?
A) If hemoglobin was not necessary, there was no selective pressure to keep mutations from accumulating.
B) The fish wanted to stop producing red blood cells, so they mutated the globin genes.
C) Fish with red blood cells absorbed too much heat from sunlight filtering through the ice.
D) Mistakes in DNA replication are more likely to occur at colder temperatures.
E) Fish living in the cold cannot obtain enough iron to make hemoglobin.
Q2) An irregular heartbeat in which the ventricles do not fill completely could be due to a malfunction in the atriventricular node.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Systolic pressure reflects the
A) contraction of the atria.
B) relaxation of the atria.
C) contraction of the ventricles.
D) relaxation of the ventricles.
E) heart rate.
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Chapter 31: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are approximately ________________ alveoli in the adult human lung.
A) 500,000
B) 50 million
C) 500 million
D) 300,000
E) 300 million
Q2) ATP is required by cells for
A) DNA replication.
B) movement.
C) production of proteins.
D) growth.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than oxygen.Which of the following would you predict to be a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A) hyperactivity
B) increased blood pH
C) decreased exhalation of oxygen
D) increased heart rate
E) decreased ATP production
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nutrient is a substance that an organism uses for A) growth.
B) metabolism.
C) maintenance.
D) repair of tissues.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) The enzyme that breaks down starch is A) lipase.
B) lactase.
C) pepsin.
D) amylase.
E) bile.
Q3) Rings of muscle in the digestive tract that can open and close,regulating the movement of food into or out of parts of the digestive system,are A) rumens.
B) sphincters.
C) chymes.
D) villi.
E) uvulas.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The simplest nitrogenous waste product of protein breakdown is A) urea.
B) ammonia.
C) uric acid.
D) nucleic acid.
E) allatonin.
Q2) A mammal is _____ and has a body temperature _____.
A) ectothermic; that changes with fluctuation in environmental temperature
B) endothermic; that changes with fluctuation in environmental temperature
C) ectothermic; maintained by its own metabolism
D) endothermic; maintained by its own metabolism
E) None of the answer choices is correct.
Q3) The major excretory organ of the human urinary system is the
A) gall bladder.
B) pancreas.
C) liver.
D) adrenal gland.
E) kidney.
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Chapter 34: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells direct humoral immunity while B cells govern cell-mediated immune reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a reason why fever is considered a defense mechanism?
A) Fever inactivates (kills) some viruses.
B) Fever speeds up the rate of phagocytosis.
C) Fever reduces the iron level in the blood, thereby retarding the growth of some bacteria.
D) Fever kills some bacteria.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) White blood cells are produced
A) by mitotic division of other white blood cells.
B) from platelets.
C) from chondrocytes.
D) from bone marrow stem cells.
E) from plasma proteins.
Q4) A transfusion can provide passive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The caplike _____ covers the head of the sperm and releases enzymes that will help the sperm penetrate the egg.
A) epididymis
B) vas deferens
C) acrosome
D) mitochondrion
E) nucleus
Q2) A diaphragm is a shallow,dome-shaped rubber disk with a flexible rim that fits within the vagina and covers the cervix.How does this act as a contraceptive to prevent pregnancy?
A) It would prevent sperm from reaching the egg.
B) It would prevent ovulation.
C) It would cause the embryo to die.
D) It would prevent implantation on the uterine wall.
E) If would act as a spermicide, killing sperm.
Q3) Birth control pills generally contain only estrogen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monogamous animals live with their one mate and help take care of their young.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Imprinting is a type of innate behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chimpanzees given food will readily share with other chimpanzees,even if not related.Which of the following is an explanation for this observation?
A) Dominance hierarchy is occurring.
B) They anticipate reciprocal altruism.
C) They are engaging in kin selection.
D) It is a reflex.
E) Sexual dimorphism is occurring.
Q4) In which case is a male vertebrate exhibiting stronger confidence in paternity?
A) A male fish will help rear his young to adulthood.
B) A male fish will guard eggs that he fertilized.
C) A male dog will guard a female that he fertilized.
D) A male dog will help rear his young to adulthood.
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Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Sample
Questions
Q1) Why are the leading causes of death in high-income countries heart disease,stroke,and cancer,while in low-income countries infectious diseases are the leading causes of death?
A) The population density in high-income countries is clustered.
B) The population density in high-income countries is larger.
C) Access to sanitation, vaccines, and antibiotics is greater in high-income countries.
D) The ecological footprint in high-income countries is larger.
E) There are genetic differences between populations.
Q2) Conservation biologists are often trying to protect or create habitat for endangered species.How would this directly affect the equation G = rN(K - N)/K for an endangered animal?
A) It would raise r.
B) It would lower N.
C) It would lower K.
D) It would raise N.
E) It would raise K.
Q3) Immigration is the migration out of a particular area.
A)True
B)False
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Eutrophication can be caused by excess accumulation of which of the following in a body of water?
A) phosphorus
B) nitrogen
C) nitrogen or carbon
D) nitrogen or phosphorous
E) carbon
Q2) Lichens and mosses that can grow on and erode rock would be considered pioneer species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ states that two species cannot coexist indefinitely in the same niche.
A) Endosymbiotic theory
B) Co-inclusion principle
C) Competitive exclusion principle
D) Zonal exclusion theory
E) Second law of thermodynamics
Q4) Energy is constantly being recycled within an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Biomes
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Q1) If you were told that you would be blindfolded and left in the taiga,what characteristic of this biome could help you confirm that you had indeed been left there?
A) The trees are mostly coniferous.
B) The taiga has nutrient-rich soil.
C) The year has a long growing season.
D) The air is warm and dry.
E) The flora consists of mosses and lichens.
Q2) Small plants that grow on the bark or leaves of another plant are called A) epiphytes.
B) endophytes.
C) parasites.
D) lichens.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) Studies in the Southern Hemisphere have shown that plants that shifted biomes between generations usually migrated to a biome similar to the one that they left.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) Any chemical,physical,or biological change in the environment that harms living organisms is
A) nitrification.
B) an upwelling.
C) deforestation.
D) ozone depletion.
E) pollution.
Q2) Melting of ice from sources on land (glaciers)raises sea levels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Since the settling of North America by Europeans,only about _____ of the original temperate forest area survives.
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 20%
E) 25%
Q4) Fish ladders can help fish populations deal with obstructions created by dams.
A)True
B)False
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