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Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. This course explores the molecular foundations of biological activity, including the structure and function of proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. Students will examine enzyme action, metabolic pathways, and the regulation of biochemical reactions essential for life. Emphasis is placed on understanding how disturbances in these processes can lead to disease, using a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory techniques. The course provides a crucial link between biology and chemistry, equipping students with skills vital for careers in medicine, biotechnology, and research.
Recommended Textbook
Cellular and Molecular Immunology 8th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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20 Chapters
214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about MHC-TCR interactions is NOT true?
A) Antigen receptors on T cells bind to MHC molecules for only brief periods of time.
B) The affinity of most TCRs for peptide-MHC complexes is similar to the affinity of antibodies for their antigens.
C) Only 1% or less of the MHC molecules on any antigen-presenting cell (APC) display a peptide recognized by a particular T cell.
D) T cells usually require multiple engagements with an APC before a threshold of activation is reached.
E) A subthreshold number of MHC-TCR interactions can lead to T cell inactivation.
Answer: B
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Q1) The isotype only found in membrane-bound form on naive B cells
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: B
Q2) The proteolytic fragment of an antibody molecule that contains the heavy chain constant region
A)Conformational determinant
B)Linear determinant
C)Neoantigenic determinant
D)Hinge region
E)Immunocomplex
F)Fab
G)Fc
H)Tail piece
I)Hapten
Answer: G
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Q1) The molecule that binds to the final product of the class II antigen-presenting pathway
A)T cell receptor on CD4<sup>+</sup> T cells
B)Endosomes
C)Endoplasmic reticulum
D)MHC class II compartment/class II vesicle (MIIC/CIIV)
E)Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)
F)LMP-2 and LMP-7
G)Acidic proteases
H)T cell receptor on CD8<sup>+</sup> T cells
I)HLA-DM
Answer: A
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Q1) E-selectin
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q2) CD2
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q3) z protein
Q4) Constant Ig domain
Q5) CD28
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
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Q1) T cell-independent antigens
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q2) Phagocytosis
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q3) Binds to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract of infants for absorption into the serum
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
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Q1) Induces expression of endothelial selectins and Ig superfamily adhesion molecules, promoting effector T cell migration into inflammatory sites
A)P-selectin
B)L-selectin
C)CCR8
D)Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
E)VCAM-1
F)LFA-1
G)CCR5
H)CCR4
I)a4b7
J)Cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA)
K)Mip1-a
L)VLA-4
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Q1) The signaling pathways triggered by Toll-like receptors typically result in activation of which of the following pairs of transcription factors?
A) NFAT and T-bet
B) AP-1 and GATA-3
C) Fos and STAT-6
D) NFkB and AP-1
E) Lck and Jun
Q2) Which of the following statements about the innate immune system is NOT true?
A) Innate immunity is present in all multicellular organisms, including plants and insects.
B) Deficiencies in innate immunity markedly increase host susceptibility to infection, even in the setting of an intact adaptive immune response.
C) Innate immunity is better suited for eliminating virulent, resistant microbes than is adaptive immunity.
D) The innate immune response can be divided into recognition, activation, and effector phases.
E) The innate immune response against microbes influences the type of adaptive immune response that develops.
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Q1) Defect in lymphocyte activation due to mutations in the gene encoding the SAP adapter protein required for inhibition of signaling by the SLAM molecule. Lack of SAP results in uncontrolled B cell proliferation, hypogammaglobulinemia, and B cell lymphoma in the setting of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection.
A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
C)X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
D)Bare lymphocyte syndrome
E)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
F)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-1 (LAD-1)
G)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-2 (LAD-2)
Q2) Early gene product; required for elongation of viral transcripts
A)env
B)gag
C)nef
D)pol
E)rev
F)tat
G)vif
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Q1) Produced by T cells and binds to the same receptors as does TNF-a produced by macrophages
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
Q2) Expressed on osteoclasts, this receptor is important in remodeling bone.
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
Q3) Stimulates expression of class II MHC on various cell types
A)Interferon-g
B)Interleukin (IL)-4
C)IL-5
D)Transforming growth factor-b
E)Lymphotoxin
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Hypersensitivity and Autoimmunity
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Q1) A 5-year-old girl is taken to the emergency department with lethargy, confusion, vomiting, abdominal pain, and flushed skin that is warm to the touch. Respirations are fast and shallow (Kussmaul) and emanate a strong, fruity odor. The mother notes that the child has been excessively thirsty over the past week and that she began wetting her bed during naps. Urine dipstick testing reveals markedly elevated levels of glucose and ketones.
A)Type I hypersensitivity
B)Type II hypersensitivity
C)Type III hypersensitivity
D)Type IV hypersensitivity
Q2) All of the following are effector mechanisms of antibody-mediated disease EXCEPT: A) Opsonization and phagocytosis of cells
B) Fas-dependent apoptosis of cells
C) Complement- and Fc receptor-mediated inflammation and tissue injury
D) Antibody stimulation of cell surface receptors in the absence of the physiologic ligands
E) Fc R crosslinking
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Q1) The two major functional classes of effector T lymphocytes are:
A) Helper T lymphocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B) Natural killer cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C) Memory T cells and effector T cells
D) Helper cells and antigen-presenting cells
E) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes and target cells
Q2) Which of the following cell types is required for all humoral immune responses?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Dendritic cells
C) Cytolytic T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
E) Helper T lymphocytes
Q3) Antibodies and T lymphocytes are the respective mediators of which two types of immunity?
A) Innate and adaptive
B) Passive and active
C) Specific and nonspecific
D) Humoral and cell-mediated
E) Adult and neonatal
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Q1) Inbred mouse strain MHC haplotype
A)HLA- 1 , -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q2) CD8-binding site
Q3) Polymorphic region
Q4) Human class I MHC allele
A)HLA- 1 , -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q5) Peptide-binding groove
Q6) 2-Microglobulin
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Q1) Generated by factor I-mediated proteolysis, this complement fragment binds to complement receptor 2 (CR2) on B cells and enhances B cell activation.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q2) Produced by C3 convertases, this opsonin promotes phagocytosis of microbes.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q3) This complement fragment is a chemoattractant for neutrophils.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
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Q1) Cyclooxygenase-pathway product of arachidonic acid metabolism that causes vascular dilatation, smooth muscle contraction, and neutrophil chemotaxis
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
Q2) Soluble factor that promotes inflammation and late-phase reaction and activates endothelial expression of adhesion molecules critical for sequential neutrophilic infiltrate
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
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Q1) Vessels that drain lymph away from a lymph node
A)Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
B)Thymic medulla
C)Thymic cortex
D)Parafollicular cortex of lymph node
E)Hematopoietic bone marrow
F)Afferent lymphatic
G)Efferent lymphatic
H)Marginal zone
I)Red pulp of spleen
J)White pulp of spleen
K)Epidermis
L)Dermis
M)Peyer's patch
Q2) Which of the following is the generative lymphoid organ for T lymphocytes?
A) Bone marrow
B) Spleen
C) Lymph node
D) Thymus
E) Tonsil
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Q1) Site of central T cell tolerance induction
A)Immature (IgM<sup>+</sup>IgD<sup>-</sup>)
B)Thymic cortex
C)Bone marrow
D)Antigen recognition without T cell help
E)Receptor editing
F)Activation-induced cell death
G)Regulatory T cell-mediated suppression
H)Antigen recognition with costimulation
I)Double positive (CD4<sup>+</sup>CD8<sup>+</sup>)
J)Anergy
K)Thymic medulla
Q2) Failure of self-tolerance is the cause of which one of the following types of diseases?
A) Allograft rejection
B) Autoimmunity
C) Atopy
D) Anergy
E) Acne
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Q1) Which of the following statements about negative selection during lymphocyte development is most accurate?
A) The mechanism of negative selection is the death of cells whose antigen receptors are not stimulated by self antigens.
B) The mechanism of negative selection is apoptosis actively induced by antigen-receptor recognition of self antigens.
C) Negative selection ensures a self MHC restricted repertoire of T lymphocytes.
D) Negative selection occurs only in T cell maturation and not in B cell maturation.
E) The major mechanism of negative selection is inhibition of antigen receptor expression.
Q2) Homologous segments of this type of gene segment that encode part of the third complementarity determining region (CDR3) of Ig heavy chains and TCR b chains but not Ig light chains or TCR a chains
Q3) Encodes the isotype of antibodies made by naive B cells
Q4) A segment that encodes Ig-like domains that form part of the antigen-binding region of an Ig molecule
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Q1) Composed of antigens purified from microbes or inactivated toxins, such as the tetanus toxoid vaccine
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
Q2) Composed of viral proteins synthesized from recombinant viral genes
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
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Q1) Common glycan that is fucosylated to form the H antigen
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)RhD
E)Lewis
Q2) Binds FKBP and inhibits cell cycle progression in T cells
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
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Q1) E6 antigen
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
Q2) Prostate-specific antigen
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
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