
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Biochemistry explores the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms, serving as a bridge between biology and chemistry. This course delves into the structure, function, and metabolism of biomolecules such as proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. Students will gain an understanding of enzyme action, genetic information flow, bioenergetics, and cellular signaling pathways. By integrating molecular concepts with cellular activities, biochemistry provides foundational knowledge for advanced studies in medicine, biotechnology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Cellular and Molecular Immunology 8th Edition by Abul K. Abbas
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20 Chapters
214 Verified Questions
214 Flashcards
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Page 2
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Q1) Binding of this molecule to Jun is needed for transcriptional activation of the IL-2 gene.
A)CD3
B)Lck
C)Zap-70
D)LAT
E)Ras
F)PLC
G)PIP2
H)PIP3
I)IP3
J)DAG
K)Calcineurin
L)NFAT
M)Jun
N)Fos
O)NF- B
Answer: N
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Q1) The most abundant Ig isotype in the blood
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Answer: D
Q2) A three-dimensional shape, formed by a portion of a macromolecule, to which an antibody binds
A)Conformational determinant
B)Linear determinant
C)Neoantigenic determinant
D)Hinge region
E)Immunocomplex
F)Fab
G)Fc
H)Tail piece
I)Hapten
Answer: A
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Q1) Required for proteolytic generation of class I MHC-binding peptides
A)T cell receptor on CD4 T cells
B)Endosomes
C)Endoplasmic reticulum
D)MHC class II compartment/class II vesicle (MIIC/CIIV)
E)Class II-associated invariant chain peptide (CLIP)
F)LMP-2 and LMP-7
G)Acidic proteases
H)T cell receptor on CD8 T cells
I)HLA-DM
Answer: F
Q2) A helper T cell response to a protein antigen requires the participation of antigen-presenting cells that express which of the following types of molecules?
A) Class II MHC and costimulators
B) Class I MHC and CD4
C) Class II MHC and CD8
D) CD4 and costimulators
E) Class II MHC and CD4
Answer: A
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Q1) CD3 protein
Q2) Complementarity-determining regions
Q3) Variable Ig domain
Q4) Constant Ig domain
Q5) CD2
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q6) E-selectin
A)B<sub>7</sub>-1, B<sub>7</sub>-2
B)Class II MHC
C)LFA-3
D)VCAM-1
E)Sialylated Lewis X
Q7) Antigen-binding region
Q8) z protein
Q9) Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) Page 6
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Q1) An allergy attack
A)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgG
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q2) Which one of the following statements about primary and secondary antibody responses is NOT true?
A) Antibodies in primary responses generally have lower affinity for antigen than those produced in secondary responses.
B) Secondary responses reach peak levels more quickly than primary responses.
C) Primary responses require higher concentrations of antigen for initiation than secondary responses.
D) Primary responses occur to all types of antigens, but secondary responses mostly occur only to protein antigens.
E) Primary responses are characterized by IgG antibodies, whereas secondary responses are dominated by IgM antibodies.
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Q1) Mediates homing of a subset of T cells into the intestinal mucosa
A)P-selectin
B)L-selectin
C)CCR8
D)Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
E)VCAM-1
F)LFA-1
G)CCR5
H)CCR4
I)a4b7
J)Cutaneous lymphocyte antigen (CLA)
K)Mip1-a
L)VLA-4
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Q1) Superoxide anion, hydroxyl radical, or hydrogen peroxide, produced by activated phagocytes
A)Defensin
B)Opsonin
C)Natural antibody
D)Adjuvant
E)Complement
F)Inflammation
G)C-reactive protein
H)Mannose-binding lectin
I)Reactive oxygen intermediate
J)Inducible nitric oxide synthase
Q2) The signaling pathways triggered by Toll-like receptors typically result in activation of which of the following pairs of transcription factors?
A) NFAT and T-bet
B) AP-1 and GATA-3
C) Fos and STAT-6
D) NFkB and AP-1
E) Lck and Jun
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Q1) Impaired CD4+ T cell development and activation due to lack of class II MHC expression, resulting in defective cell-mediated immunity and impaired T cell-dependent humoral immunity
A)X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B)X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
C)X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
D)Bare lymphocyte syndrome
E)Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
F)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-1 (LAD-1)
G)Leukocyte adhesion deficiency-2 (LAD-2)
Q2) Late gene product; encodes nucleocapsid core and matrix proteins
A)env
B)gag
C)nef
D)pol
E)rev
F)tat
G)vif
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Q1) Expressed on macrophages and B lymphocytes, this receptor plays an important role in the helper T cell-mediated effector functions.
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
Q2) Expressed on osteoclasts, this receptor is important in remodeling bone.
A)TNF-RI
B)CD40
C)Fas ligand
D)RANK
E)Lymphotoxin
Q3) Inhibits proliferation and differentiation of T cells and the activation of macrophages
A)Interferon-g
B)Interleukin (IL)-4
C)IL-5
D)Transforming growth factor-b
E)Lymphotoxin
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Hypersensitivity and Autoimmunity
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Q1) In which of the following disorders is the underlying pathogenic mechanism NOT due to antibody-mediated damage to cells or tissues?
A) Pernicious anemia
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Pemphigus vulgaris
D) Acute rheumatic fever
E) Hyperacute allograft rejection
Q2) All of the following are effector mechanisms of antibody-mediated disease EXCEPT: A) Opsonization and phagocytosis of cells
B) Fas-dependent apoptosis of cells
C) Complement- and Fc receptor-mediated inflammation and tissue injury
D) Antibody stimulation of cell surface receptors in the absence of the physiologic ligands
E) Fc R crosslinking
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Q1) The two major functional classes of effector T lymphocytes are:
A) Helper T lymphocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B) Natural killer cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C) Memory T cells and effector T cells
D) Helper cells and antigen-presenting cells
E) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes and target cells
Q2) Which of the following infectious diseases was prevented by the first successful vaccination?
A) Polio
B) Tuberculosis
C) Smallpox
D) Tetanus
E) Rubella
Q3) The principal function of the immune system is:
A) Defense against cancer
B) Repair of injured tissues
C) Defense against microbial infections
D) Prevention of inflammatory diseases
E) Protection against environmental toxins
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Q1) Inbred mouse strain MHC haplotype
A)HLA- 1 , -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q2) Polymorphic region
Q3) CD8-binding site
Q4) Mouse major histocompatibility complex
A)HLA- 1 , -B7, -Cw4, -DPw5, -DQw10, -DR8
B)H-2
C)HLA-DQ7
D)I-Ad
E)HLA-B5
F)H-2KdI-AdI-EdDdLd
Q5) Peptide-binding groove
Q6) 2-Microglobulin
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Q1) Generated by factor I-mediated proteolysis, this opsonizing complement fragment binds to CR3 on phagocytes.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q2) This complement fragment is a component of the membrane attack complex.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
Q3) This complement fragment is a chemoattractant for neutrophils.
A)C3b
B)iC3b
C)C3d
D)C5b
E)C5a
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Q1) Biogenic amine that transiently increases vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction
A)Histamine
B)Tryptase
C)Prostaglandin D<sub>2</sub>
D)Leukotriene C<sub>4</sub>
E)Platelet-activating factor
F)Interleukin-5
G)Tumor necrosis factor-a
Q2) All of the following are key mediators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions EXCEPT:
A) Mast cells
B) Basophils
C) IgE
D) Macrophages
E) TH2 cells
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Q1) Site of least mature T cell precursors in the thymus
A)Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
B)Thymic medulla
C)Thymic cortex
D)Parafollicular cortex of lymph node
E)Hematopoietic bone marrow
F)Afferent lymphatic
G)Efferent lymphatic
H)Marginal zone
I)Red pulp of spleen
J)White pulp of spleen
K)Epidermis
L)Dermis
M)Peyer's patch
Q2) Which of the following is the generative lymphoid organ for T lymphocytes?
A) Bone marrow
B) Spleen
C) Lymph node
D) Thymus
E) Tonsil
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Q1) Failure of self-tolerance is the cause of which one of the following types of diseases?
A) Allograft rejection
B) Autoimmunity
C) Atopy
D) Anergy
E) Acne
Q2) Mechanism of peripheral tolerance induction of B cells but not T cells
A)Immature (IgM<sup>+</sup>IgD<sup>-</sup>)
B)Thymic cortex
C)Bone marrow
D)Antigen recognition without T cell help
E)Receptor editing
F)Activation-induced cell death
G)Regulatory T cell-mediated suppression
H)Antigen recognition with costimulation
I)Double positive (CD4<sup>+</sup>CD8<sup>+</sup>)
J)Anergy
K)Thymic medulla
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a checkpoint in lymphocyte maturation that contributes to the selective maturation of cells with useful antigen receptors?
A) B cell precursors that cannot express Ig g heavy chains die by apoptosis.
B) T cell precursors that cannot express TCR b chains die by apoptosis.
C) Immature B cells that bind to self antigen with high affinity die by apoptosis.
D) Developing T cells that fail to express TCR a chains die by apoptosis.
E) Developing T cells that recognize self major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules with high affinity die by apoptosis.
Q2) A type of gene segment involved in somatic recombination events in Ig heavy chain and light chain as well as TCR a and b chain gene loci
Q3) A segment that encodes Ig-like domains that form part of the antigen-binding region of an Ig molecule
Q4) Encodes the isotype of antibodies made by naive B cells
Q5) Homologous segments of this type of gene segment that encode part of the third complementarity determining region (CDR3) of Ig heavy chains and TCR b chains but not Ig light chains or TCR a chains
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Q1) Composed of antigens purified from microbes or inactivated toxins, such as the tetanus toxoid vaccine
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
Q2) Composed of a recombinant nonpathogenic virus carrying genes of a pathogenic virus, such as HIV
A)Live attenuated or killed bacteria
B)Live attenuated oral virus
C)Synthetic viral subunit vaccines
D)Conjugate vaccines
E)Recombinant viral vectors
F)DNA vaccines
G)Purified subunit vaccines
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Q1) Inhibits macrophage cytokine secretion
A)Azathioprine
B)Cyclosporine
C)Mycophenolate mofetil
D)Rapamycin
E)Anti-CD40L antibody
F)Anti-IL-2R antibody
G)CTLA4-Ig
H)OKT3
I)Corticosteroids
Q2) Formation requires fucosyltransferase activity
A)A
B)B
C)O
D)RhD
E)Lewis
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Q1) Mutations in both allelic copies of this gene are required for malignant transformation
A)AFP
B)Bcr/Abl
C)CA-125
D)CD20
E)CEA
F)EBNA
G)MAGE
H)p53
I)PSA
J)Ras
Q2) Prostate-specific antigen
A)Product of a cellular oncogene
B)Overexpressed unmutated cellular proteins
C)Product of unmutated genes normally silent in most tissues
D)Overexpressed surface glycolipid
E)Oncofetal antigen
F)Tissue differentiation antigen
G)Product of an oncogenic virus
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