Biochemistry Mock Exam - 1462 Verified Questions

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Biochemistry

Mock Exam

Course Introduction

Biochemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms. This course explores the molecular foundations of life, focusing on the structure and function of biological macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. Students will examine enzyme kinetics, metabolic pathways, and the regulation of biochemical reactions, gaining insights into how these processes are integrated and controlled within cells. The course combines theoretical concepts with practical laboratory techniques, equipping students with the skills to analyze and interpret biochemical data relevant to health, disease, and biotechnology.

Recommended Textbook

Beckers World of the Cell 8th Edition by Jeff Hardin

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24 Chapters

1462 Verified Questions

1462 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: A Preview of the Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true of fluorescence microscopy?

A)Fluorescent light is emitted throughout the specimen being viewed.

B)Fluorescence microscopy is best at viewing rounded, thicker specimens.

C)Fluorescence microscopy is used to view dead specimens only.

D)Fluorescence microscopy is able to overcome problems encountered with using confocal scanning microscopy.

E)Fluorescence microscopy presents images in three dimensions.

Answer: A

Q2) You wish to obtain a pure mitochondria sample from lysed cells.The best way to obtain this sample would be A)centrifugation.

B)chromatography.

C)polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis.

D)agarose gel electrophoresis.

E)both choices A and C

Answer: A

Q3) Because of the low penetration power of electrons,samples for transmission electron microscopy must be extremely thin.A(n)________ is able to cut sections as thin as 20 nm.

Answer: ultramicrotome

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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of the Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are common functional groups found in biological molecules except

A)phosphate groups.

B)carbonyl groups.

C)amino groups.

D)sulfhydryl groups.

E)butyl groups.

Answer: E

Q2) Which of the following is false regarding water's specific heat?

A)The specific heat of water is 1.0 calorie per gram.

B)Heat applied to water must initially break a number of hydrogen bonds.

C)Water's high specific heat has a temperature-buffering effect.

D)Water gains and loses heat more slowly than most other solvents do.

E)The specific heat of water is similar to most liquids.

Answer: E

Q3) Due to the directionality of polymer synthesis,proteins have distinct ________ and ________ ends.

Answer: amino (-NH ); carboxyl (-COOH)

Q4) In order to facilitate polymerization,monomers must be ________.

Answer: activated

Page 4

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Chapter 3: The Macromolecules of the Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) Small RNA molecules that specifically bind complementary mRNA sequences and facilitate the destruction of the message by nucleases are A)mRNAs.

B)siRNAs.

C)tRNAs.

D)rRNAs.

E)miRNAs.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following is not a steroid?

A)testosterone

B)estradiol

C)cortisol

D)aldosterone

E)epinephrine

Answer: E

Q3) ________ fatty acids are liquid at room temperature,while ________ fatty acids are solid.

Answer: Unsaturated; saturated

Q4) ________ and ________ are the two kinds of sugars found in bacterial cell walls.

Answer: N-acetylglucosamine (GlcNAc); N-acetylmuramic acid (MurNAc)

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Chapter 4: Cells and Organelles

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Sample Questions

Q1) In your own words and with your own examples,explain fully how cells are limited in size and how some cells have modifications that allow them to be larger or more adapted to a particular function in spite of these limitations.

Q2) The chromoplast is an organelle associated with

A)oxidation of sugars.

B)synthesis of secretory proteins.

C)plant pigment storage.

D)ribosome production in primitive plants.

E)storage of chromium.

Q3) When the size of a cell increases,the surface area/volume ratio

A)decreases initially and then begins to increase.

B)remains the same.

C)decreases.

D)increases initially and then begins to decrease.

E)increases.

Q4) Currently there is a great deal of scientific debate about whether or not viruses should be considered living organisms.Pick a side on the debate,and defend your position with scientific facts.In your discussion,be sure to include the properties of life and the impact of the taxonomic placement of viroids and prions.

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Chapter 5: Bioenergetics: the Flow of Energy in the Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fermentation is a process that proceeds without oxygen.Such a process can be described as ________.

Q2) In your own words,describe how energy flows through an ecosystem and how this contributes to a continuous increase in enthalpy.

Q3) In a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium,the concentration of X (the reactant)is 0.75 mol/L,and the concentration of Y (the product)is 2.25 mol/L.At 25°C,what would be the Keq?

A)0.33

B)3.0

C)1.69

D)1.50

E)37.5

Q4) ________ reactions require an input of energy when electrons are gained,such as in the conversion CO CH .

Q5) A ________ is the amount of energy required to warm 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius.

Q6) Any process that results in a decrease in the free energy of the system is called

Q7) ________ reactions release energy when electrons are removed from a substance.

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Chapter 6: Enzymes: the Catalysts of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) An enzyme is active in the stomach of an animal but quickly loses its activity when it leaves the stomach.This example illustrates that enzymes are

A)specific to the organs in which they are produced.

B)inactivated by movement.

C)sensitive to changes in pH.

D)inactivated by inhibitors in the small intestine.

E)consumed by the quantities of substrate in the small intestine.

Q2) ________ is the turnover number for a given enzyme.

Q3) Azidothymidine (AZT)is a(n)________ used in the treatment of AIDS and targets the enzyme reverse transcriptase.

Q4) The ________ velocity of an enzymatic reaction is the velocity at substrate concentration.

Q5) A noncompetitive inhibitor will

A)bind to free enzyme.

B)bind to free product.

C)decrease Vmax.

D)decrease Km.

E)both choices A and C

Q6) Nonprotein catalysts are known as ________.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Membranes: Their Structure, function, and Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) With respect to the outer and inner faces of the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane,the composition of proteins is

A)asymmetrical.

B)identical.

C)not identical but symmetrical.

D)highly random and varies throughout the cell.

E)a mirror image.

Q2) ________ are organisms that are unable to regulate their body temperature.

Q3) The current understanding of the membranes of the cell is based on the ________ model.

Q4) A prokaryotic organism is isolated from a hydrothermal vent,where it has been observed to be thriving.Based on your knowledge of the plasma membrane,you would expect to find a predominance of

A)largely saturated fatty acids.

B)equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids, as long as the chain was close to 12 carbons in length.

C)polar fatty acids.

D)largely unsaturated fatty acids.

E)none of the above

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Chapter 8: Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the

Permeability Barrier

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Sample Questions

Q1) In all organisms,active transport across a membrane requires A)equal concentrations of ions on both sides of the membrane.

B)a resting potential of 0 mV.

C)exergonic movement indicated by the direction of the electrochemical potential.

D)an asymmetric distribution of ions across a membrane.

E)both choices B and D

Q2) What are the two most important properties that allow a molecule to cross a phospholipid bilayer by simple diffusion? What are two such molecules?

Q3) Design an experiment whereby you would be able to distinguish between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion of a substance.(Include graphs,if this aids in your discussion.)

Q4) A special class of ABC-type ATPases associated with tumors that allow movement of antibiotics and other drugs out of the cell are known as

A)multidrug resistance transport protein.

B)import transporter proteins.

C)cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator.

D)human catalytic convertase.

E)none of the above; no such transporter has been identified in eukaryotes.

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes the special "high-energy" bond of ATP?

A)phosphoester

B)phosphoanhydride

C)hydrogen

D)ionic

E)hydrogenation

Q2) How many enzymatic steps are involved in converting glucose to pyruvate?

A)3

B)6

C)8

D)10

E)12

Q3) Hereditary fructose intolerance is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by the lack of the enzyme aldolase B.Symptoms include convulsions,excessive sleepiness,irritability,vomiting,and hypoglycemia. What intermediate accumulates in these individuals,and how may this be associated with the observed symptoms?

Q4) When we eat dairy products,we need ________,the enzyme used to hydrolyze ________ into glucose and galactose.In the absence of this enzyme,we may experience cramps and diarrhea,a condition called ________.

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Chapter 10: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Aerobic Respiration

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following processes is associated with the outer mitochondrial membrane?

A)phospholipid synthesis

B)metabolite transport

C) -oxidation of fats

D)transcription

E)ATP synthesis

Q2) ________ (FAD)is a molecule similar to NAD in function,but it is a lower-energy coenzyme.

Q3) As pyruvate is prepared for the TCA cycle,it undergoes a process of

A)reductive carboxylation.

B)oxidative decarboxylation.

C)oxidative carboxylation.

D)reductive decarboxylation.

E)CoQ reproduction.

Q4) Respiration includes glycolysis,the ________,electron transport,and ________.

Q5) The site of DNA replication is localized to the ________ within the mitochondrion.

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Q6) ATP synthesis that involves phosphorylation events linked to oxygen-dependent electron transport is called ________.

Chapter 11: Phototrophic Energy Metabolism: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bacteriochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll a and b in structure and function.Which of the following statements correctly contrasts these types of chlorophyll?

A)Bacteriochlorophyll has a porphyrin ring, whereas chlorophyll does not.

B)Chlorophyll has a phytol side chain, but bacteriochlorophyll does not.

C)Chlorophyll has a methyl group attached to the porphyrin ring, whereas bacteriochlorophyll has a formyl group.

D)Bacteriochlorophyll has a saturated carbon-carbon bond at one location in the porphyrin ring, whereas chlorophyll does not.

E)both choices A and D correctly contrast these types of chlorophyll.

Q2) Plastocyanin (PC)

A)is a mobile electron carrier.

B)is also called plastoquinol.

C)carries only a single electron at a time.

D)both choices A and C

E)choices A, B, and C

Q3) ________ (CAM)plants open their stomata only at night to minimize water loss.

Q4) The energy transduction reactions of photosynthesis convert solar energy into chemical energy in the form of ________ and ________.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following molecules stabilizes the cell membrane during coated pit formation?

A)mannose-6-phosphate

B)KDEL signals

C)clatherin

D)botulinum toxin

E)stabilin

Q2) The ________ is the organelle involved in the posttranslational modification of proteins and sorting of proteins to various intracellular and extracellular compartments.

Q3) If you were looking within a cell for organized clathrin structures,you would find them associated with which of the following structures?

A)lysosomes

B)trans Golgi complex

C)endoplasmic reticulum

D)inner membrane of mitochondria

E)extracellular matrix

Q4) The investigation of the movement of proteins and lipids to their appropriate location within a cell is known as ________.

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Chapter 13: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Ielectrical and Synaptic Signaling in Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) The resting potential of a particular nerve cell is -66 mV.Depolarization of the membrane will shift the membrane potential toward A)-90 mV.

B)-66 mV.

C)0 mV.

D)There will be no change.

E)There is not enough information to tell.

Q2) All of the following are glial cells except A)interneurons.

B)oligodendrocytes.

C)astrocytes.

D)Schwann cells.

E)both choices A and D

Q3) Which neurotransmitter is not an amino acid derivative?

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)histamine

D)dopamine

E)acetylcholine

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Q4) ________ receptors act more slowly because they act in a(n)________ manner.

Chapter 14: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Iimessengers and Receptors

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compare and contrast cell signalling via receptor serine/threonine kinases and Ras.

Q2) The key mediators of apoptosis are the ________.

Q3) All of the following are second messengers except A)calcium ions.

B)IP .

C)DAG.

D)cameleons.

E)PDGF.

Q4) In heterotrimeric G proteins,the ________ subunit stimulates adenylyl kinase.

Q5) The ultimate,coordinated response of cells to a vast array of signals from the environment is known as ________.

Q6) IP receptors are associated with A)plasma membranes.

B)intracellular membranes.

C)mitochondrial membranes.

D)ER membranes.

E)lysosomes.

Q8) The G subunit is responsible for activation of ________. Page 16

Q7) ________ produces the second messenger diacylglycerol (DAG).

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Page 17

Chapter 15: Cytoskeletal Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Microtubules have an inner diameter of ________ and an outer diameter of

A)15 mm; 25 mm

B)8 nm; 12 nm

C)25 nm; 30 nm

D)15 nm; 25 nm

E)7 mm; 14 mm

Q2) F-actin filaments

A)are composed of four linear strands.

B)are composed of polymerized G-actin monomers wound around each other in a helix.

C)are oriented similar to DNA, with strands helical and antiparallel to one another.

D)are composed of G-actin dimers.

E)polymerize at the same rate in both directions from both ends of the filament.

Q3) The structure,function,and assembly of microtubules are regulated by ________ proteins (MAPs).

Q4) You have discovered a new cytoskeletal element and need to identify and characterize it for further work.How would you go about examining this protein to ultimately classify it as a cytoskeletal element?

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Chapter 16: Cellular Movement: Motility and Contractility

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Sample Questions

Q1) Movement of animals is dependent on skeletal muscle.The ability of muscle to contract is dependent on the structural organization of muscle fibers.

a. What is the fundamental contractile unit of skeletal muscle,which is composed of bands,lines,and a zone?

b. What are the letters that describe the bands,lines,and the zone?

c. What do these letters represent?

d. During contraction,the length of the muscle shortens due to changes within the contractile unit.What are the changes that take place with respect to the bands,lines,and the zone?

Q2) In relaxed muscle,calcium is found in high concentration in the A)myofibril.

B)T tubules.

C)sacroplasmic reticulum.

D)sarcolemma.

E)neuromuscular junction.

Q3) Cytoplasmic streaming depends on the protein ________.

Q4) Troponin is a complex of three polypeptide chains called ________,________,and ________.

Q5) ________ muscle is nonstriated,whereas ________ and ________ muscle is striated.

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Sample Questions

Q1) The type of cellular junction prominent in the stomach and kidney is the A)plasmodesmata.

B)gap junction.

C)adhesive junction.

D)tight junction.

E)laminin junction.

Q2) The autoimmune response to desmosomes or desmosomal components (not hemidesmosomes)leads to a blistering skin disease known as A)pemphigus.

B)EhlersDanos syndrome.

C)syndecan.

D)junctional epidermolysis bullosa.

E)listeriosis.

Q3) In the extracellular matrix of animal cells,collagen and elastin fibers are embedded with this matrix.

A)glycoaminoglycans

B)proteoglycans

C)pectins

D)lignins

E)both choices A and B

Page 20

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Chapter 18: The Structural Basis of Cellular Information:

DNA, chromosomes, and the Nucleus

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following shows Chargaff's equivalence?

A)mRNA

B)single-stranded DNA

C)tRNA

D)synthetic DNA (one strand all A, the other all T)

E)all of the above

Q2) The name given to double-stranded DNA that is twisted upon itself is ________.

Q3) Which one of the following is not characteristic of prokaryotic genomes?

A)gene arranged in operons

B)distinct replication site

C)presence of introns

D)may have histone-like proteins associated with the chromatin

E)found in the nucleoid

Q4) The name given to the area of study that is involved with the determination of the entire DNA sequence of an organism is known as ________.

Q5) The protein ________ is very important for the investigation of protein products produced by an organism.

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Q6) ________ demonstrated that there were equivalent amounts of adenine and thymine and equivalent amounts of guanine and cytosine.

Chapter 19: The Cell Cycle, DNA Replication, and Mitosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The region of the centromere contains repeated DNA sequences known as

Q2) Which of the following eukaryotic DNA polymerases replicates mitochondrial DNA?

A)alpha

B)beta

C)delta

D)epsilon

E)gamma

Q3) Ultraviolet (UV)light-treated bacteria would most likely have DNA damage in the form of

A)analog incorporation.

B)pyrimidine dimer formation.

C)intercalation of the bases.

D)direct transition of the bases.

E)deamination.

Q4) All of the following participate in apoptosis except A)caspases.

B)death-promoting proteins.

C)mitochondria.

D)Bcl-2.

E)calcium ions.

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Chapter 20: Sexual Reproduction, meiosis, and Genetic

Recombination

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Sample Questions

Q1) A series of three genes is known to be on the same chromosome.In examining recombination events,you obtain the data shown below.

No observable recombination 30%

Between A and B 15%

Between B and C 35%

Between A and C 20%

What is the order of genes on this chromosome?

A)ABC

B)ACB

C)BAC

D)BCA

E)cannot determine from this information

Q2) Fungi produce gametes by which of the following processes?

A)binary fission

B)mitosis

C)meiosis

D)gene conversion

E)cloning

Q3) Some mice,known as ________ mice,are genetically bred to be missing particular genes.

Page 23

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Chapter 21: Gene Expression: Ithe Genetic Code and Transcription

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Sample Questions

Q1) The DNA technique used to initially identity promoter sequences was

A)DNA fingerprinting.

B)chromosomal walking.

C)DNA footprinting.

D)chromatin immunoprecipitation assay.

E)RNA protection.

Q2) One of the NASA land rovers returns from its mission with a variety of samples.From one,a unique bacterial species has been isolated and cultured.Your job is to investigate whether or not the genetic code is overlapping or nonoverlapping.Another researcher has discovered that rather than a codon of three nucleotides,this organism uses groups of four nucleotides.Show how you would verify the presence of overlapping versus nonoverlapping frames when you thought the codon was read in groups of three nucleotides and in groups of four nucleotides.How would your data have been different without the knowledge of codons as groups of four nucleotides?

Test mRNA sequence: 5'-AUUGGCCAAUUUACGGUAAUGGCCAAUUUACGGU-3'

Q3) An example of a retrovirus in the human genome is the ________ family of sequences.

Q4) In eukaryotic transcription,TFIID recognizes and binds the ________ box in the DNA. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 24

Chapter 22: Gene Expression: Iiprotein Synthesis and Sorting

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss some of the possible ways in which nonsense mutations can potentially be suppressed in a cell.

Q2) Which of the following organisms utilizes polycistronic mRNAs?

A)E. coli

B)C. elegans

C)mammals

D)choices A and B only

E)all of the above

Q3) Segments of polypeptides that are retained following protein splicing are called A)introns.

B)exons.

C)inteins.

D)exteins.

E)cleaved.

Q4) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain premature stops.

Q5) The transfer of polypeptides into the ER is called ________ because the movement across the membrane is coupled with translation.

Q6) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain no stop codons.

Q8) The ________ (enzymes)link amino acids with their appropriate tRNAs. Page 25

Q7) The sequence of amino acids in a protein is based on the ________ of the mRNA.

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Chapter 23: The Regulation of Gene Expression

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Q1) Regions of the genome that are inactive often have ________ of C nucleotides.

Q2) The expression of thousands of genes simultaneously is easily accomplished using which of the following techniques?

A)siRNAs

B)Northern blotting

C)microarrays

D)Eastern blotting

E)PAGE analysis

Q3) In the lactose operon,a P mutant would have a mutation in the ________ region of the operon.

Q4) You are working with a gene associated with an essential pathway that is necessary at two time points in an organism's lifetime.With regard to gene regulation,you would expect the gene to be

A)not constitutive.

B)associated with response to distinct events.

C)"activated" by particular signals (induced).

D)"turned off" by particular signals (repressed).

E)all of the above

Q5) Inactivated X chromsomes form dark spots in the nucleus known as ________.

Page 27

Q6) An individual that is XXY has ________ Barr body(ies)in their cells.

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Chapter 24: Cancer Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) A key adhesion molecule is ________,which decreases cell adherence when present in insufficient quantities.

Q2) The ________ virus in chickens was the first association between viral infection and cancer.

Q3) The ploidy of cells characteristic of an aneuploid is best represented by which of the following?

A)2n + 1

B)n

C)2n

D)4n

E)both choices B and C

Q4) Hereditary retinoblastoma is the result of a(n)________ in the RB gene of chromosome 13 in both homologues.

A)insertion

B)duplication

C)inversion

D)point mutation

E)deletion

Q5) How does genetic instability arise,and how might you test your hypothesis?

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