Biochemistry for Life Sciences
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biochemistry for Life Sciences explores the fundamental chemical principles underlying biological systems, focusing on the structure and function of biomolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and carbohydrates. This course examines key metabolic pathways, enzyme kinetics, and regulatory mechanisms essential for life processes. Through integrated lectures and practical laboratory experiences, students learn how biochemical knowledge informs research and applications in health, medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology, providing a solid foundation for advanced studies and careers in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 8th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic coding material is
A) protein
B) DNA
C) polysaccharide
D) lipid
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements about eukaryotic mitochondria is TRUE?
A) They play a role in genetics.
B) They are the site of photosynthesis in green plants.
C) They have an inner and an outer membrane.
D) They only occur in animals, not plants.
Answer: C
Q3) Cell membranes
A) are found in plants, but not in animals
B) consist mainly of sugars
C) do not allow transport into or out of the cell
D) separate the cell from the outside world
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Water: the Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pOH a solution of 0.04 M HCl is:
A) 1.4
B) 10
C) 12.6
D) 13.6
E) The pOH cannot be determined
Answer: C
Q2) A buffer solution
A) is used to control the pH of a solution
B) contains at least 100 times more of a weak acid than its conjugate base
C) contains at least 100 times less of a weak acid than its conjugate base
D) always has a pH of 7
Answer: A
Q3) Refer to Exhibit 2B. A carbonate buffer would work well at this pH:
A) 4.0
B) 6.0
C) 8.0
D) 10.0
E) 6.0 and 10.0
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Exhibit 3B. The amino acid depicted by the titration curve is
A) aspartic acid
B) histidine
C) lysine
D) tyrosine
E) lysine or tyrosine
Answer: E
Q2) How many possible tetrapeptides can be made using all four of the amino acids D, W, F, and R?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
E) none of the choices
Answer: D
Q3) What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated R at pH 7?
A) positive
B) neutral
C) negative
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can result in protein denaturation?
A) heat
B) extremes of pH
C) detergents
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following diseases is based on abnormal protein folding?
A) Alzheimers disease
B) Mad Cow Disease
C) Prion diseases
D) Frontotemporal dementia
E) All of the choices
Q3) As an animal ages, the amount of cross-linking of collagen in tissue
A) tends to decrease.
B) tends to increase.
C) tends to remain unchanged.
Q4) Which of the following is true?
A) The collagen helix and the -helix are the only types of helices in proteins.
B) Globular proteins tend to be water soluble
C) Globular and fibrous are examples of secondary structure
D) All of these
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) In chromatography the experimental setup always requires
A) a stationary phase and a mobile phase
B) a spectrophotometric detecting device
C) a sample in which components differ in charge
D) a sample in which components differ in polarity
Q2) Which would be best to separate positively charged proteins?
A) Gel filtration
B) Affinity chromatography
C) Cation exchange
D) Anion exchange
E) Cation or anion exchange
Q3) Important steps in sequencing pure proteins include all of these except:
A) Determining the amino acid composition
B) Determining the isoionic pH of the protein
C) Breaking the protein into smaller peptides
D) Determining the amino acids on the ends of the protein
E) Determining the amino acids on the ends of the smaller peptides
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not related to the others?
A) Suicide Substrate
B) Irreversible Inhibitor
C) Trojan Horse substrate
D) Competitive Inhibitor
E) All of these are related
Q2) A noncompetitive inhibitor
A) binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site
B) is structurally related to the substrate
C) does not affect the value of V<sub>max</sub>
D) decreases the value of K<sub>M</sub>
Q3) Refer to Exhibit 6A. What is the V<sub>max</sub> of the enzyme?
A) 90 nM/s
B) 4500 µM/s
C) 200 µM/s
D) 0.5 M/s
Q4) The order of a reaction can be determined from the balanced equation for the reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and Control
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Q1) The sequential model for allosteric behavior
A) cannot account for reactions that display negative cooperativity.
B) postulates binding of substrates and inhibitors by the induced-fit model.
C) requires that the conformation of all subunits change simultaneously. D) is mathematically simpler than the concerted model.
Q2) Zymogens are
A) inactive precursors of enzymes which can be activated by the irreversible cleavage of covalent bonds.
B) inactive forms of enzymes which require phosphorylation by a kinase to become active.
C) allosteric enzymes that are always in the R state.
D) allosteric enzymes that are always in the T state.
Q3) The concerted model for allosteric behavior was proposed by:
A) Koshland
B) Pauling
C) Pasteur
D) Monod, Wyman and Changeux
E) All of these
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Q1) Liposomes are
A) artificial membrane-bounded structures used to deliver medications.
B) single-layered membranes.
C) mixed micelles involved in cholesterol transport among cells.
D) bilayers with the hydrophobic regions on the outside.
Q2) Which of the following compounds yields the most energy per gram?
A) triacylglycerols
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) They all yield about the same amount of energy per gram.
Q3) What does amphipathic mean?
A) having both positive and negative charges
B) having both acid and base properties
C) having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
D) having two stereoisomers
Q4) A useful method for studying membrane proteins in place in the membrane is
A) nuclear magnetic resonance
B) x-ray crystallography
C) treatment with mercaptoethanol
D) treatment with detergents
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strands in the double helix
A) both run in the same 3' 5' direction, i.e., they are parallel.
B) have their 3' 5' directions opposed, i.e., they are anti-parallel.
C) can be either parallel or anti-parallel.
D) are perpendicular to one another.
E) None of these
Q2) Deoxythymidylate (dT) is a:
A) purine base
B) pyrimidine base
C) pyrimidine based nucleotide
D) purine based nucleotide
E) nucleoside
Q3) The hydrogen bonding interactions in a Watson-Crick AT base-pair involve what units in the adenine base?
A) N-1 and the amino group on C-6
B) N-1 and N-3
C) N-7 and the amino group on C-6
D) N-7 and C-8
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) All the following describe the general mechanism of DNA synthesis, except:
A) From the perspective of the DNA template strands, one strand is made 5' 3' while the other strand is made 3' 5'.
B) The strands become separated during synthesis.
C) Synthesis occurs in both directions from the starting site of synthesis.
D) Synthesis of DNA is a very accurate process.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) What is the need for a primer strand in DNA replication?
A) it ensures the fidelity of the newly synthesized DNA strand
B) the DNA polymerases require a preexisting strand with a nucleotide having a 3' OH
C) the DNA polymerases require a preexisting strand with a nucleotide having a 5' OH
D) it ensures the integrity of the new DNA
Q3) The replisome in prokaryotic replication consists of:
A) a protein dimer
B) a protein tetramer
C) a multisubunit complex of at least 13 different proteins
D) more than 100 separate proteins
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation in the lac A gene would result in
A) continuous production of the proteins encoded by the three structural genes
B) continuous production of the lac repressor
C) normal operation of the lac operon, but with an alteration in the proteins encoded by the lac A gene
D) no transcription from the lac operon
Q2) Phosphorylation of the CTD of RNA polymerase II occurs during which phase of transcription?
A) initial binding to the promoter
B) conversion from the closed complex to the open complex
C) termination of transcription
D) None of these
Q3) A commonly encountered feature of transfer RNA synthesis is
A) the precursor of several tRNA molecules is transcribed in one long polynucleotide sequence
B) there is little or no base modification after transcription
C) modification of the sugar moiety never takes place
D) the covalent binding of tRNA to specific proteins
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary for chain termination in protein synthesis?
A) termination codons of mRNA
B) release factors
C) GTP
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of degeneracy in the genetic code?
A) More than one amino acid can bind to a tRNA.
B) Each tRNA can bind to more than one codon.
C) Most codons can bind to more than one tRNA.
D) Fewer tRNA molecules are needed.
Q3) Which amino acids have unique codons?
A) met, gly
B) trp, met
C) tyr, met
D) stop, his
Q4) The ribosome is actually a ribozyme.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) An isoschizomer is a(n)
A) a DNA sequence that is identical to one in a different organsim
B) a DNA sequence from a virus that mimics a sequence in bacteria
C) enzyme that cuts DNA from the 3' end
D) a restriction enzyme that has the same sequence specificity as another restriction enzyme from a different organism
E) none of these is correct
Q2) Fluorescent techniques can detect concentrations as low as
A) molar (10<sup>1</sup> M).
B) micromolar (10 <sup>6</sup> M).
C) picomolar (10 <sup>12</sup> M).
D) attamolar (10 <sup>18</sup> M).
Q3) When fluorescent markers are used for DNA sequencing:
A) the DNA separations are faster
B) four different reaction mixtures must be used
C) computer analysis can help in the detection of sequencing analysis at a faster rate
D) none of these
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) More than one type of antigen can bind to an antibody, but there is only one type of antibody for each antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ebola virus is an example of a ________ virus
A) non-enveloped DNA containing B) enveloped DNA containing C) non-enveloped RNA containing D) enveloped RNA containing E) none of these
Q3) A viral genome is
A) always double-stranded.
B) always single-stranded.
C) may be double or single stranded.
D) always made of DNA
E) always made of RNA
Q4) Antibodies are the most variable protein sequences in the human body.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Exhibit 15A. Which molecule loses electrons?
A) Ethanol
B) NAD<sup>+</sup>
C) Acetaldehyde
D) NADH
E) H<sup>+</sup>
Q2) If the reaction A B has G = +25 Joule/mol and the reaction B C has G = 15 Joule/mol, the overall energy change A C will be
A) 40 Joule/mol.
B) 15 Joule/mol.
C) +10 Joule/mol.
D) +40 Joule/mol.
E) You cannot determine the overall reaction from the given data.
Q3) Many cells oxidize fatty acids to produce ATP. If no ATP were produced, the G°' of this process would be
A) unchanged
B) a larger positive number
C) a larger negative number
D) impossible to determine
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following sugar is also called fruit sugar:
A) Fructose
B) Glucose
C) Lactose
D) Sucrose
E) Maltose
Q2) Glycogen has a similar structure to amylopectin, but is less highly branched.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements associated with cellulose is false?
A) It's a linear polymer of glucose.
B) The glycosidic linkage is (1 4).
C) Hydrolysis is accomplished enzymatically by cellulase.
D) Most animals can easily digest this compound.
Q4) Which of the following is not a function of carbohydrates?
A) They are major energy sources.
B) They play key roles in processes that take place on the surface of cells.
C) They are used in structural roles.
D) They are catalytic components of enzymes.
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) An enzyme not involved in the control of glycolysis is A) hexokinase.
B) triose phosphate isomerase.
C) pyruvate kinase.
D) phosphofructokinase.
Q2) During anaerobic metabolism in red blood cells, the carbons of glucose end up in A) CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) ethanol.
C) lactic acid.
D) both CO<sub>2</sub> and ethanol.
E) all of the above.
Q3) The phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
A) is so strongly exergonic that it does not require a catalyst. B) is an exergonic reaction not coupled to any other reaction.
C) is an endergonic reaction that takes place because it is coupled to the exergonic hydrolysis of ATP.
D) is an exergonic reaction that is coupled to the endergonic hydrolysis of ATP.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Properly used, glycogen loading by athletes is a safe process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following molecules does not directly regulate the activity of glycogen synthase?
A) Glucose
B) Glucose-6-phosphate
C) AMP
D) ATP
E) Concentration of all of these affects glycogen synthase.
Q3) The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase is only found in cells which have this function or ability:
A) Ability to utilize glucose anaerobically.
B) Ability to replenish the levels of glucose in the blood.
C) Glycogen storage.
D) Ability to produce lactic acid as an end product of metabolism.
E) Glucose-6-phosphatase activity is found in almost all types of cells.
Q4) It is impossible to reverse any kinase reaction under physiological conditions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following vitamins and enzyme cofactors are used by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex during oxidative decarboxylation?
A) Lipoic Acid.
B) Niacin.
C) Pantothenic Acid.
D) Thiamine.
E) All of these
Q2) Release of succinate from succinyl-CoA can be coupled to GTP synthesis because:
A) The amide bond between succinate and CoA has a large G of hydrolysis.
B) The thioester bond between succinate and CoA has a large G of hydrolysis.
C) The link between succinate and CoA involves an acid anhydride to phosphate.
D) Coenzyme A is a "high energy" compound, just like GTP.
E) None of these explains why GTP can be formed during this reaction.
Q3) The production of malate in the glyoxylate pathway is important, since it can be readily converted to phosphoenolpyruvate and then to sugars.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) In the conformational coupling mechanism for oxidative phosphorylation, the effect of the proton gradient is
A) to inhibit conformational changes in the ATP synthase
B) to create more sites for ATP synthesis
C) the release of tightly bound ATP from the synthase
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q2) The factor that couples electron transport to phosphorylation of ADP is
A) a protein oligomer
B) a protein monomer
C) gramicidin A
D) valinomycin
Q3) Which of the following is an advantage of using multiple steps in electron transport?
A) By using several steps the net G is higher (more energy is released).
B) More heat can be generated by using small steps.
C) More energy can be captured to synthesize ATP by using small steps.
D) Small steps allow for both more heat generation and more ATP synthesis.
E) All of these statements are advantages of using multiple steps.
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Where in the cell does fatty acid synthesis occur?
A) Cytoplasm.
B) Outer mitochondrial membrane.
C) Mitochondrial intermembrane space.
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane.
E) Mitochondrial matrix.
Q2) The primary function of biotin in metabolism is:
A) to allow for the addition of CO<sub>2</sub> to other molecules.
B) to inhibit acetyl-CoA carboxylase
C) to inhibit carnitine palmitoyltransferase
D) all of these
E) none of these
Q3) Which are the three most common ketone bodies?
A) Acetone, formaldehyde, acetoacetate.
B) Acetone, butyric acid and oxaloacetate.
C) Acetone, -hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate.
D) Acetone, -hydroxybutyrate and oxaloacetate.
E) Acetocetate, -hydroxybutyrate and oxaloacetate.
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Bacterial products of photosynthesis, other than oxygen and sugars, can include all of these, except:
A) H<sub>2</sub>S
B) NH<sub>3</sub>
C) CH<sub>4</sub>
D) Water
E) All of these are products of photosynthetic bacteria.
Q2) The efficiency of energy use in photosynthesis is approximately
A) 99%
B) 65%
C) 30%
D) 2%
Q3) The fixation of CO<sub>2</sub> to form sugars requires the following:
A) Oxygen, O<sub>2</sub>.
B) ATP.
C) NADPH.
D) Both ATP and NADPH.
E) All 3 of these are required to convert CO<sub>2</sub> to sugar.
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24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) In animals, the synthesis of cysteine involves all of the following, except:
A) Addition of a carbon group to glycine.
B) Transfer of the sulfur group from methionine.
C) An intermediate of homocysteine.
D) Participation of ATP.
E) All of these reactions are involved in synthesizing cysteine in animals.
Q2) Which best describes the synthesis of purine nucleotides?
A) The basic ring structure, inosine, is synthesized first and then linked to ribose. This is then modified to produce either GMP or AMP.
B) The basic ring structure, orotate, is synthesized stepwise on ribose. This is then modified to produce either GMP or AMP.
C) The basic ring structure, inosine, is synthesized stepwise on ribose. This is then modified to produce either GMP or AMP.
D) The basic ring structure, orotate, is synthesized first and then linked to ribose. This is then modified to produce either UMP or CMP.
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25
Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) An essential nutrient is one which is either not made in the body or is not made in sufficient quantity to allow for survival.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A second messenger is
A) a substance that brings about a desired effect in a cell as a result of a hormone binding to its receptor on the cell surface
B) a hormone that acts on a target cell, not one of the releasing factors or trophic hormones that act on specific endocrine glands
C) a hormone that affects the DNA of the target cell
D) a specialized form of mRNA
Q3) Amino acid and protein hormones usually act by binding to a receptor on the cell surface.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins eaten in excess can be stored to satisfy future protein requirements.
A)True
B)False
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