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This course offers an introduction to the fundamental concepts of human anatomy and physiology, providing a comprehensive overview of the structure and function of the human body. Students will explore the major organ systems, including the musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems. The course emphasizes the interrelationships among body systems and the mechanisms by which they maintain homeostasis. Through interactive lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, students will develop a foundational understanding essential for further study in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Human Anatomy and Physiology Global 11th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb
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15 Chapters
2217 Verified Questions
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128 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ refers to all of the chemical reactions in the body.
A) Metabolism
B) Homeostasis
C) Hematopoiesis
D) Irritability
Answer: A
Q2) Which two organ systems include the pancreas?
A) digestive and endocrine systems
B) urinary and respiratory systems
C) reproductive and urinary systems
D) digestive and respiratory systems
E) endocrine and respiratory systems
Answer: A
Q3) The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are lateral to the ________ region.
A) hypogastric (pubic)
B) right hypochondriac
C) right lumbar
D) left hypochondriac
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the four structural levels of proteins.
Answer: 1. The primary structure of a protein resembles a string of beads in which the amino acids form the basis for the protein molecule.
2. A protein in its secondary structure may exist in a coiled alpha-helix or an accordian-like beta-pleated sheet.
3. Most proteins reach the more complex tertiary level of structure. The tertiary structure is achieved when the alpha-helical or beta-pleated region of the polypeptide chain folds in on itself to form a globular (ball-like) molecule.
4. The quarternary structure results when two polypeptide chains combine to form a complex protein.
Q2) Nucleotides are composed of ________.
A) three fatty acid chains and one glycerol
B) peptide bonds
C) a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen-containing base
D) four fused carbon rings
E) amino acids with an amine group and an acid group
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two major phases of protein synthesis are ________.
A) transcription and replication
B) mitosis and interphase
C) replication and translation
D) transcription and translation
E) synthesis and cytokinesis
Answer: D
Q2) The two steps of protein synthesis, in the correct order, are ________ and
A) transcription; translation
B) replication; mitosis
C) mitosis; cytokinesis
D) transcription; replication
Answer: A
Q3) Phospholipid tails are hydrophilic and are attracted to water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the capillaries of the skin will dilate so that blood will flush into skin capillary beds and heat will be dissipated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nails and hair are composed of keratin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following letters in the ABCD rule for recognizing melanomas is incorrect?
A) A stands for asymmetry
B) B stands for border irregularity
C) C stands for color
D) D stands for diagnosis
Q4) The ________ membrane lines the fibrous capsule surrounding joints.
A) synovial
B) serous
C) mucous
D) cutaneous
Q5) Explain the ABCD rule.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coxal bone
A)appendicular skeleton
B)axial skeleton
Q2) Area where bone growth takes place in a long bone
A)osteoclasts
B)epiphyseal plate
C)lamellae
D)osteoblasts
E)canaliculi
Q3) Which two bones constitute the forearm?
A) radius and humerus
B) humerus and scapula
C) fibula and tibia
D) ulna and radius
E) femur and fibula
Q4) Two or more bones meet at a location called a(n) ________.
A) fracture
B) hematoma
C) articulation (joint)
D) marrow cavity
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Q1) Muscle tissue that forms valves to regulate the passage of substances through internal body openings
A)smooth muscle tissue
B)skeletal muscle tissue
C)cardiac muscle tissue
Q2) Gap between the axon terminals and the plasma membrane of a neighboring muscle cell
A)calcium ions
B)acetylcholine
C)synaptic cleft
D)sodium ions
E)acetylcholinesterase
F)action potential
Q3) Endomysium covers ________.
A) fascicles of muscle cells
B) an entire muscle
C) an individual muscle cell
D) myofibrils
E) smooth muscle only
Q4) Explain how muscle movements mature in a baby, using examples of each.
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Q1) The hypothalamus is the "emotional-visceral" center of the brain and, thus, is an important part of the ________.
A) posterior association area
B) reticular activating system
C) limbic system
D) Broca's area
E) anterior association area
Q2) The largest nerve in the body, the sciatic nerve, belongs to the ________ nerve plexus.
A) lumbar
B) sacral
C) brachial
D) cervical
Q3) The spinal cord terminates around vertebra ________.
A) C
B) T
C) T
D) L
E) S
Q4) Explain how neurons and neuroglia are functionally different.
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Q1) The vibration of sound waves cause the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, to move against an ossicle known as ________.
A) malleus or hammer
B) incus or anvil
C) stapes or stirrup
D) otolith
Q2) The auditory ossicle called the "anvil" is also known as the ________.
A) malleus
B) incus
C) stapes
D) bony labyrinth
E) cochlea
Q3) Which of the following is a sex-linked condition that more often affects males?
A) conjunctivitis
B) color blindness
C) night blindness
D) glaucoma
E) cataracts
Q4) Describe the role of the lens in vision. Name and explain the disease caused by the hardening of the lens.
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Q1) Aldosterone raises blood glucose levels through the breakdown of fats and proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hypothalamus makes two hormones, ________ and ________, that are stored by the posterior pituitary.
A) oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B) cortisol; aldosterone
C) growth hormone; prolactin
D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH); prolactin
Q3) Testosterone can be categorized as a(n) ________ hormone.
A) amine
B) glycoprotein
C) peptide
D) protein
E) steroid
Q4) Antidiuretic hormone promotes sodium and water retention.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the role of hormones in maintaining blood calcium levels.
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Q1) Basophils are the most numerous type of leukocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most common type of leukocyte is indicated by ________.
A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
Q3) While looking through a microscope in your anatomy lab, you see a cell whose cytoplasm has a pale pink color with fine granules and a tri-lobed deep purple nucleus. Determine what type of cell you see (be specific). Explain why you made this selection.
Q4) Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte
A)platelet
B)leukocyte
C)erythrocyte
Q5) Type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis
A)platelet
B)leukocyte
C)erythrocyte
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Q1) The two main structures of the lymphatic system are the lymphatic vessels and the blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List and describe the cells and chemicals the body uses as its second line of defense.
Q3) Antigen presentation is essential for the activation of clonal selection of T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hannah has an auto-immune disease in which the beta cells of the pancreas are destroyed. As a result, she does not make enough insulin. What disease does she have?
A) multiple sclerosis
B) Graves' disease
C) myasthenia gravis
D) type I diabetes mellitus
E) systemic lupus erythematosis
Q5) Contrast the primary humoral response with the secondary humoral response.
Q6) Explain the role of valves in heart functioning.
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Q1) The C-shaped rings that reinforce the trachea are constructed of ________.
A) fibrocartilage
B) elastic cartilage
C) hyaline cartilage
D) compact bone
Q2) Following the removal of the larynx, a person would be unable to ________.
A) speak
B) sneeze
C) eat
D) hear
E) breathe
Q3) Total amount of exchangeable air
A)tidal volume
B)vital capacity
C)expiratory reserve volume
D)dead space volume
E)inspiratory reserve volume
F)residual volume
Q4) Explain the roles of mucus and cilia in the respiratory system.
Q5) Describe how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood.
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Q1) Amylase is an enzyme that is only able to digest ________.
A) protein
B) starch
C) fat
D) vitamins
E) minerals
Q2) The portion of the tooth embedded in the jawbone is the ________.
A) neck
B) enamel
C) crown
D) root
Q3) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is produced in greatest quantity during ________.
A) glycolysis
B) the Krebs cycle
C) protein metabolism
D) the electron transport chain
E) fat metabolism
Q4) Explain the role of the hormones cholecystokinin and secretin in regulating the release of bile and pancreatic juices.
Q5) Organ where protein digestion begins
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Q1) A calyx is indicated by ________.
A) Label G
B) Label F
C) Label A
D) Label B
E) Label C
Q2) Contains three layers of smooth muscle known as the detrusor muscle
Q3) The kidneys can help maintain a rising blood pH by excreting ________ ions and reabsorbing ________ ions by the tubule cells.
A) bicarbonate; hydrogen
B) carbon dioxide; oxygen
C) ammonia; carbonic acid
D) hydrogen; bicarbonate
Q4) The structural and functional units of the kidney are the renal (medullary) pyramids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Water and solutes are forced from the blood into the glomerular capsule of the nephron
Q6) Describe how the bicarbonate buffer system functions to maintain pH.
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Q1) Milky-colored fluids secreted from the prostate ________.
A) nourish sperm
B) activate sperm
C) cleanse the urethra
D) neutralize urine
E) are endocrine only
Q2) Describe the effects of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) on the testes.
Q3) The ducts or tubes responsible for receiving the ovulated oocyte and providing the site for fertilization are the ________.
A) uterine (fallopian) tubes
B) vagina
C) ductus (vas) deferens
D) uterus
Q4) The stage of labor that involves the delivery of the infant is the ________.
A) dilation stage
B) expulsion stage
C) secretory phase
D) placental stage
E) postpartum stage
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