

Basic Science for Teachers
Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides foundational knowledge in the core scientific disciplines biology, chemistry, physics, and earth science tailored specifically for aspiring and current educators. Emphasizing both content mastery and pedagogical strategies, the course covers key concepts, scientific inquiry, and the nature of science. Through practical experiments, demonstrations, and classroom activities, students learn how to effectively engage and inspire learners, address common misconceptions, and foster a lifelong curiosity about the natural world. The course also explores the integration of science across the curriculum and highlights the importance of scientific literacy in daily life and society.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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24 Chapters
724 Verified Questions
724 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3211

Page 2

Chapter 1: What Is Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) When something cannot be directly observed, it can be represented by a A)hypothesis.
B)graph.
C)model.
D)theory.
Answer: C
Q2) The re-creation of an event by comparing two situations in which all the factors are identical except one is called a A)tentative experiment.
B)cause and effect demonstration.
C)statistical test of truth.
D)controlled experiment.
Answer: D
Q3) If a cube of Jell-o is cut into two pieces, what total property of the new pieces change?
A)mass
B)volume
C)density
D)surface area
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an unbalanced force applied to an object doubles, then A)its velocity doubles.
B)its acceleration doubles.
C)its acceleration is cut in half.
D)its acceleration increases by a factor of four.
Answer: B
Q2) From the equation w = mg, it is apparent that weight is a (an) A)force.
B)mass.
C)acceleration.
D)None of the above.
Answer: A
Q3) The reason a moving object slows down is that its force of motion gradually runs out. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy is not conserved when a moving object slows to a stop.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) When a light bulb is rated at 60 W, it means that
A)the bulb uses 60 J of power when it is lit.
B)current is traveling at 60 m/s through the filament.
C)each second, the bulb converts 60 J of electrical energy to heat and light.
D)the bulb loses 60 W of potential energy each second.
Answer: C
Q3) Energy sources used today are mostly in what form of energy?
A)electrical
B)chemical
C)radiant
D)nuclear
Answer: B
Q4) The energy an object has because of its position is called potential energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 5
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Chapter 4: Heat and Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The attractive forces between unlike molecules is called A)cohesion.
B)adhesion.
C)diffusion.
D)friction.
Q2) A passive solar home with direct solar gain requires
A)a large, open window space.
B)a calculated overhang.
C)storage mass without carpets or drapes.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Molecules in a solid
A)are harder than molecules in liquids or gases.
B)transfer heat to their neighbors by a process called convection.
C)have no internal energy because they are not moving around.
D)are held in nearly fixed positions by strong attractive forces.
Q4) Molecules are the smallest units of matter with the characteristic properties of a substance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Wave Motions and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Waves that move through air are transverse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reflected sound waves that are heard within 0.1 s
A)undergo a gain in volume.
B)make an echo.
C)cause interference.
D)make a beat.
Q3) A sound of 20 dB intensity is twice as loud as one of 10 dB.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the range of normal human hearing?
A)200 to 120,000 Hz
B)20 to 2,000 Hz
C)50 to 10,000 Hz
D)20 to 20,000 Hz
Q5) The amplitude of a wave is the distance from the crest to the equilibrium position.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ohm's law states
A)a relationship between voltage, current, and charge.
B)that less current flows when a higher voltage is applied.
C)that for constant voltage, a greater resistance means more current will flow.
D)that the current in a circuit increases if the potential difference increases.
Q2) The resistance of a wire depends on
A)the length of the wire.
B)the cross-sectional area of the wire.
C)the temperature of the wire.
D)All of the above.
Q3) A magnetic field
A)is produced by an excess of stationary electric charges.
B)is produced by a deficiency of stationary electric charges.
C)is produced by moving charges.
D)attracts or repels stationary electric charges.
Q4) An electric field
A)has strength, but not direction.
B)is present only around stationary electric charges.
C)is always present around an electron.
D)cannot exist unless a magnetic field is also present.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Light
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rainbow always appears
A)in the part of the sky in the same direction as the Sun.
B)in the part of the sky opposite from the Sun.
C)at an angle of 50 to 54 degrees from the Sun.
D)only at sunset.
Q2) The image formed by a plane mirror is
A)virtual.
B)real.
C)a result of diffuse reflection.
D)smaller than the object.
Q3) Which of the following object does not emit light?
A)a candle flame
B)the Sun
C)the Moon
D)a burning coal
Q4) A mirage is caused by hot air near the ground
A)refracting light rays upward.
B)reflecting light rays upward.
C)refracting light rays downward.
D)reflecting light rays downward.

Page 9
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Chapter 8: Atoms and Periodic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) J.J.Thomson reasoned that cathode rays were really charged particles because A)a magnet deflected cathode rays.
B)cathode rays formed only when the air was pumped out of a discharge tube.
C)the properties of the cathode rays depended on the cathode material.
D)the cathode rays were attracted to the anode.
Q2) Einstein proposed that electrons on the surface of a metal gradually absorb energy from photons until they have enough energy to leave the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The atomic number of an element is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Protons are so much more massive than electrons that you can neglect the mass of electrons when determining the mass of an atom.
A)True
B)False
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10

Chapter 9: Chemical Bonds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest unit of a covalent compound that still retains the properties of the compound is called a (an)
A)electron.
B)atom.
C)molecule.
D)dipole.
Q2) The representative elements have one to eight valence electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What kind(s) of bonding takes place in NaOH?
A)covalent
B)ionic
C)metallic
D)both covalent and ionic
Q4) When atoms of non-metallic elements react with one another, they tend to seek stability by
A)acquiring a noble gas electron arrangement.
B)losing electrons.
C)forming ionic bonds.
D)None of the above.
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Chapter 10: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mass percent of sodium in washing soda, Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>?
A)43.4%
B)32.5%
C)21.7%
D)62.1%
Q2) When the equation __Li + __O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) __Li<sub>2</sub>O is correctly balanced, what is the sum of the coefficients?
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)12
Q3) The reaction: 2 NaI + Cl<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2 NaCl + I<sub>2</sub> is an example of A)decomposition. B)combination. C)replacement. D)ion exchange.
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12

Chapter 11: Water and Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The solubility of a gas in water decreases as the water temperature increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Highway departments spread salt on icy roads because the solution process generates heat, which melts the ice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A solution is a heterogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What do solutions of acids, bases, and salts have in common? They
A)are proton donors.
B)are proton acceptors.
C)all have a pH of less than 7.
D)are electrolytes.
Q5) Water solutions of ionic substances that conduct electricity are called
A)electrical solutions.
B)polar solutions.
C)electrolytes.
D)indicators.
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Chapter 12: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for A)a reactive atom.
B)a separate functional group.
C)any hydrocarbon group.
D)a rigid part of the molecule.
Q2) What would paint thinner, a petroleum distillate, most likely contain?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C)C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>34</sub>
D)C<sub>40</sub>H<sub>82</sub>
Q3) The various components of crude oil are separated in a refinery based on differences in A)density.
B)melting point.
C)boiling point.
D)solubility.
Q4) Organic chemistry is the study of compounds produced by living things. A)True B)False
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Chapter 13: Nuclear Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The threshold model proposes that under a certain level, your body can repair the damage produced by radiation.
A)True B)False
Q2) X undergoes radioactive decay to Y with a half-life of five minutes.After 10 minutes, the sample of X has completely decayed to Y.
A)True B)False
Q3) Reactor control rods are made of a substance that A)absorbs neutrons. B)emits neutrons.
C)reflect neutrons.
D)slow down neutrons so they produce more fission.
Q4) Besides U-235, another isotope that can undergo nuclear fission is A)U-238.
B)Pu-239.
C)Th-230.
D)Pb-210.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the density of the universe is less than a critical value, then
A)it might eventually stop expanding.
B)it might continue expanding forever.
C)it could expand to a fixed size and remain.
D)there's probably less dark matter than luminous.
Q2) Stonehenge is an ancient observatory built in A)ancient Babylon.
B)England.
C)the Euphrates river valley.
D)Greece.
Q3) The difference in brightness between two stars is related to the A)amount of light and energy produced by the stars.
B)relative size of the stars.
C)distance to the stars.
D)All of the above.
Q4) Which of the following depends on your location on Earth?
A)celestial pole
B)celestial meridian
C)celestial equator
D)All of these depend on your location.

Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our model of the surface features of Venus was obtained by A)powerful Earth-based telescopes.
B)cameras on the fly-by Voyager probes.
C)radar mapping from the Magellan probe.
D)the Venera probes which roamed the surface of the planet.
Q2) All the evidence indicates that the universe is about how old?
A)6,000 years
B)4.5 billion years
C)13.7 billion years
D)100,000 billion years
Q3) The asteroids forming a belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter were prevented from forming a planet by the strong gravitational field of Jupiter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the following planets is denser than the others:
A)Saturn.
B)Jupiter.
C)Uranus.
D)Earth.
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Chapter 16: Earth in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) The path of a plane flying due north from a spot on the equator would appear to A)continue due north.
B)curve to the east.
C)curve to the west.
D)form an S-shaped curve.
Q2) If your favorite constellation rose at 8:00 PM one night, when would it rise two weeks later?
A)at 8:00 PM
B)around 7:00 PM
C)around 9:00 PM
D)it depends on the constellation
Q3) South of the Antarctic Circle, the Sun appears
A)directly overhead only once a year.
B)directly overhead twice yearly.
C)above the horizon all day at least once during December.
D)above the horizon all day at least once during June.
Q4) The axis of Earth's rotation will not always point toward Polaris due to precession.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weathered sediments are pressed and cemented to form
A)sedimentary rocks.
B)metamorphic rocks.
C)igneous rocks.
D)ferromagnesians.
Q2) Which one of the following metamorphic rocks is different from the others?
A)quartzite
B)slate
C)schist
D)gneiss
Q3) Very rapid cooling of magma produces glass rather than a mineral.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is believed that at one time all rocks of Earth were
A)igneous.
B)clastic sedimentary.
C)chemical sedimentary.
D)metamorphic.
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Chapter 18: Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the plate tectonics theory, sea-floor spreading occurs at a A)subduction zone.
B)convergent boundary.
C)divergent boundary.
D)transform boundary.
Q2) Evidence shows that Earth's magnetic field is diminishing with time and may reverse orientations by the end of the next A)200 years.
B)2,000 years.
C)25 million years.
D)4.5 million years.
Q3) Seismic waves show a sudden increase at the Mohorovicic discontinuity because the
A)mantle material is so much hotter than the crust.
B)composition of minerals on both sides of the layer is different.
C)mantle is so much thicker than the crustal layer.
D)mineral structure is different in this layer than in crustal rock.
Q4) Seismic evidence indicates that rocks of the crust "float" in a molten mantle.
A)True
B)False

Page 20
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Chapter 19: Building Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress is the adjustment a rock makes when it is subjected to a strain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the name given to the force which tends to pull rocks apart?
A)compressive stress
B)tensional stress
C)shear stress
D)fracture strain
Q3) Deeply buried rocks tend to break when subject to stress forming faults or joints.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most earthquakes originate deep below the crust because the pressures there are enormous.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Each higher number on the Richter scale represents a 10-fold increase in the amount of ground movement in an earthquake.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acid-rain is strictly a man-made phenomenon resulting from the heavy industrialization of the eastern United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A peneplain is
A)a section of a mature stream valley.
B)the remains of a melted glacier.
C)the sediment that is deposited at the mouth of a stream.
D)a nearly flat rolling plain produced by erosion.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of chemical weathering?
A)exfoliation
B)oxidation
C)disintegration
D)spalling
Q4) The red soils of Oklahoma and Georgia are due to the presence of A)feldspars.
B)iron oxides.
C)carbonates.
D)loam.
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Chapter 21: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of uniformity requires you to believe that the geologic features you see today were formed in the past by the same processes we observe today.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following descriptions of this formation is most likely?
A)The limestone and shale layers were deposited on the slope of a mountain.
B)The basalt is crystallized magma that nearly reached the sandstone layer.
C)The limestone and shale layers were eroded long before the sandstone was deposited.
D)All of these descriptions are possible.
Q3) Correlation and relative dating through the use of index fossils is limited because A)index fossils are extremely rare.
B)many sedimentary layers do not contain index fossils at all.
C)index fossils appeared for too short a time in the geologic record to be very helpful.
D)index fossils are rarely found in other than sedimentary rocks.
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Chapter 22: The Atmosphere of Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal atmospheric pressure is enough to support a column of mercury approximately
A)29.9 cm high.
B)76.0 cm high.
C)101 cm high.
D)760 cm high.
Q2) The space above the liquid mercury in a barometer is filled with air.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The temperature of the atmosphere decreases steadily with increasing altitude. A)True
B)False
Q4) The chief difference between fog and a cloud is A)the water droplets are smaller in clouds.
B)the humidity is greater in fog.
C)fog forms only at night.
D)the altitude of the tiny water droplets.
Q5) Earth's atmosphere is composed chiefly of nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. A)True B)False
24
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Chapter 23: Weather and Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that lifts a parcel of air to form cumulus clouds is
A)differential heating.
B)mountain barriers.
C)a cold front.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Longer periods of drizzle, rain, or snow are usually associated with which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)None of the above.
Q3) The average density of liquid water in a cloud is 1 gram per cubic centimeter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) From this graph, estimate the temperature of a parcel of air that has risen to 400 m.
A)26ºC
B)27.5ºC
C)25ºC
D)1.5ºC
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25

Chapter 24: Earths Waters
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Sample Questions
Q1) Waves "break" as they approach a shore due to the friction between the bottom and the moving water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The average daily water consumption in the United States is roughly ____ liters/day.
A)150
B)570
C)1,500
D)5,700
Q3) Which of the following statements about the continental shelf is false?
A)It is part of the continent covered with an average depth of 130 m of seawater.
B)It is probably above water during major ice ages.
C)It is the transition between the continent and the deep ocean basins.
D)On average, it is about 75 km wide.
Q4) Tidal waves are actually not associated with tides or tide-making processes.
A)True
B)False
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