Basic Physiology Test Questions - 1538 Verified Questions

Page 1


Basic Physiology Test Questions

Course Introduction

Basic Physiology introduces students to the fundamental principles governing the function of the human body. Focusing on major organ systems including the nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, renal, and endocrine systems the course emphasizes the mechanisms that maintain homeostasis and support life. Students will explore cellular processes, integrative body responses, and adaptations to environmental and internal changes. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and problem-solving exercises, students gain a comprehensive understanding of physiological processes and their relevance to health and disease.

Recommended Textbook

Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 5th Edition by Eric J. Simon

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29 Chapters

1538 Verified Questions

1538 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction: Biology Today

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Sample Questions

Q1) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria when ________.

A) the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance

B) farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed

C) the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria

D) none of the above

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following is a producer?

A) oak tree

B) earthworm

C) sun

D) cat

Answer: A

Q3) Relative to prokaryotic cells,eukaryotic cells are usually ________.

A) larger and more complex

B) smaller and simpler

C) larger and equally complex

D) smaller and more complex

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) An atom's ________ are found in its nucleus.

A) neutrons and protons

B) protons only

C) neutrons and electrons

D) electrons, protons, and neutrons

Answer: A

Q2) As water freezes,________.

A) its molecules move farther apart

B) it cools the surrounding environment

C) its hydrogen bonds break apart

D) it loses its polarity

Answer: A

Q3) Adjacent water molecules are connected by the ________.

A) sharing of electrons between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule

B) electrical attraction between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule

C) sharing of electrons between adjacent oxygen molecules

D) electrical attraction between the hydrogen atoms of adjacent water molecules

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cellulose is an example of ________.

A) a polypeptide

B) a steroid

C) fiber

D) fat

Answer: C

Q2) Nucleic acids are polymers of ________ monomers.

A) monosaccharide

B) fatty acid

C) DNA

D) nucleotide

Answer: D

Q3) Which of the following is lowest in unsaturated fats?

A) beef

B) salmon

C) corn oil

D) canola oil

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cellular respiration can be described as the conversion of the energy ________. A) of sunlight to energy stored in organic compounds

B) stored in food molecules to energy stored in ATP

C) stored in ATP to energy stored in food molecules

D) stored in ATP to energy used to do work

Q2) Tobacco smokers (and those exposed to tobacco smoke)are at greater risk of an ectopic (tubal)pregnancy.Based on your understanding of the structures of the cytoskeleton,what is the BEST explanation?

A) Tobacco interferes with the microtubule network of eggs thus weakening their structure.

B) Tobacco interferes with the functioning of the flagella propelling sperm.

C) Tobacco interferes with microfilament formation in sperm, thereby forcing the zygote to implant in a fallopian tube.

D) Tobacco interferes with the sweeping motion of cilia that aids in the movement of the egg toward the uterus.

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Chapter 5: The Working Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a person cries,tears are exported from cells through the process of

A) facilitated diffusion

B) active transport

C) endocytosis

D) exocytosis

Q2) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ________.

A) enzyme substrates

B) enzyme inhibitors

C) enzyme catalysts

D) enzyme products

Q3) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm.In this example,the sperm are changing ________.

A) chemical energy into kinetic energy

B) chemical energy into potential energy

C) kinetic energy into potential energy

D) kinetic energy into chemical energy

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food

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Sample Questions

Q1) What waste product do yeast produce under anaerobic conditions?

A) ethyl alcohol

B) pyruvic acid

C) lactic acid

D) creatine

Q2) Plant cells ________.

A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs

B) have chloroplasts and mitochondria

C) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen

D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs

Q3) Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ________ ATP per glucose.

A) 0

B) 2

C) 10

D) 38

Q4) The ultimate source of the energy in food is ________.

A) the sun

B) producers

C) ATP

D) consumers

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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light,but only minimal amounts of water,which of the following would you expect to occur?

A) increased plant growth

B) increased amounts of oxygen released by the plants

C) decreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plants

D) increased growth of the plants' leaves

Q2) What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast?

A) stroma

B) mitochondria

C) thylakoids

D) vesicles

Q3) If the interior of the thylakoid were not a sealed compartment ________.

A) There would be no location for the electron transport chain

B) Light would not be able to reach the photosystems

C) Water could not be split

D) The proton gradient could not be maintained

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9

Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) The karyotype above shows ________.

A) abnormal sex chromosomes

B) trisomy 21, a cause of Klinefelter syndrome

C) Turner syndrome

D) trisomy 21, a cause of Down syndrome

Q2) Which of these could lead to the mistake evident in the karyotype?

A) a failure of cytokinesis after meiosis I in gamete formation

B) a nondisjunction in meiosis II in gamete formation

C) crossing over in meiosis I in gamete formation

D) fertilization by two sperm in zygote formation

Q3) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ________.

A) centromeres

B) centrosomes

C) genomes

D) sister chromatids

Q4) What chromosomes belong to a normal human male?

A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes

B) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes

C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome

D) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions.This is a demonstration of ________.

A) the chromosomal theory of inheritance

B) Mendel's law of independent assortment

C) linkage

D) Mendel's principle of segregation

Q2) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?

A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.

B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.

C) The alleles affect more than one trait.

D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

Q3) What data or test would you seek to determine whether or not a trait is sex linked?

A) karyotype

B) pedigree

C) DNA sequence

D) blood test

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11

Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transcription is the ________.

A) manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA

B) manufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA double helix

C) modification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein

D) manufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA

Q2) Plant viruses ________.

A) often use RNA, rather than DNA, as their genetic material

B) benefit plants, rather than causing disease

C) cause diseases that can be easily cured

D) do not exist, as viruses attack only animals

Q3) The backbone of DNA consists of ________.

A) nitrogenous bases

B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern

C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern

D) paired nucleotides

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12

Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why can mature plants be cloned to produce genetically identical copies?

A) Mature plant cells contain only a fraction of the genes found in an adult plant.

B) Plants have evolved over time to suit the need of human agriculture.

C) Mature plant cells can develop into all the specialized cells of an adult plant.

D) Scientists have engineered all plants to have this ability.

Q2) Data suggest that the normal version of BRCA1 functions as a(n)________.

A) oncogene

B) tumor-suppressor gene

C) proto-oncogene

D) silencer

Q3) What would enable a single RNA transcript to be translated into different polypeptides?

A) The RNA transcript can be spliced more than one way.

B) The coded polypeptide may be modified in more than one way.

C) The length of the RNA transcript tail can vary.

D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.

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Chapter 12: DNA Technology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cutting DNA with a particular restriction enzyme produces DNA fragments that can be separated by ________.

A) gel electrophoresis

B) enzymes

C) recombinant DNA

D) plasmids

Q2) The human genome contains approximately ________ genes.

A) 1,000

B) 5,000

C) 21,000

D) 30,000

Q3) The Human Genome Project has the potential to ________.

A) lead to treatments for inherited diseases

B) lead to treatments for contagious diseases

C) increase our understanding of the historical relationships among species

D) play a role in all of the choices listed here

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14

Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a component of the fossil record?

A) the distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia

B) the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats

C) molecular sequences

D) bones of extinct whales

Q2) The fossil record suggests that whales ________.

A) are descended from one branch of marine reptiles

B) are closely related to land mammals such as pigs, hippos, and cows

C) are not closely related to dolphins and porpoises, despite a superficial similarity

D) once had well-developed hind flippers

Q3) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly (extra fingers/toes)than the human population as a whole?

A) directional selection

B) disruptive selection

C) founder effect

D) bottleneck effect

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15

Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves

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Sample Questions

Q1) What hypothesis did Luis and Walter Alvarez test in relation to the mass extinction of dinosaurs 65 million years ago (MYA)?

A) The mass extinction 65 MYA was caused by a surge of catastrophic cyclones.

B) The mass extinction 65 MYA was caused by a slow but steady increase in climate temperatures.

C) The mass extinction 65 MYA was caused by an impact of an extraterrestrial object.

D) The mass extinction 65 MYA was caused by the loss of preferred plants for food.

Q2) The wing of a penguin is ________ the wing of a butterfly.

A) structurally identical to B) superior to

C) homologous to D) analogous to

Q3) The Permian mass extinction is associated with ________.

A) an asteroid impact

B) global warming

C) the formation of Pangaea

D) the diversification of mammals

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Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Approximately 10-15% of insect species harbor bacteria that make needed nutrients available to the insects.How might you classify these bacteria?

A) phytoplankton

B) extremophiles

C) exotoxins

D) endosymbionts

Q2) Endosymbiosis explains the origin of the ________ of eukaryotes.

A) chloroplasts and mitochondria

B) endomembrane system

C) nuclear envelope

D) membrane-bound organelles

Q3) Which protozoan group consists solely of parasitic forms?

A) apicomplexans

B) ciliates

C) flagellates

D) amoebas

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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Plants and Fungi

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the lineage of green algae believed to most resemble early plant ancestors?

A) charophytes

B) ulva

C) volvox

D) dinoflagellates

Q2) Gametophytes reproduce ________.

A) by producing sperm and eggs

B) by fission

C) by meiosis of special cells in the gametophyte

D) by budding

Q3) Which of these adaptations to a terrestrial existence evolved most recently?

A) vascular tissue

B) seeds

C) lignin

D) cuticle

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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals

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Sample Questions

Q1) A characteristic that is shared by snakes and birds is ________.

A) being ectothermic

B) the presence of only a single ovary in females

C) the amniotic egg

D) being endothermic

Q2) The arthropod skeleton is composed of ________.

A) cellulose

B) peptidoglycan

C) chitin

D) glycogen

Q3) A(n)________ is an example of a chordate that is not a vertebrate.

A) lancelet

B) echinoderm

C) bird

D) fish

Q4) ________ are the mammalian group that lays eggs.

A) Eutherians

B) Tunicates

C) Monotremes

D) Marsupials

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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) Permafrost,or permanently frozen subsoil,characterizes ________.

A) temperate broadleaf forest

B) chaparral

C) tundra

D) coniferous forest

Q2) What name is given to the region where sea meets land?

A) pelagic realm

B) intertidal zone

C) benthic realm

D) aphotic zone

Q3) The Sahara Desert and the Negev Desert belong to the same ________.

A) community

B) savanna ecosystem

C) biome

D) temperate grassland

Q4) Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?

A) migrating to a different location

B) acclimation

C) endothermy

D) "flagging" by trees

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Population Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the Pleistocene era,many large mammal species went extinct.Their permanent disappearance occurred in a short period of time when humans were expanding across North America.In this situation,how do many scientists view humans?

A) as a threatened species

B) as a density-independent factor

C) as an invasive species

D) as a biological control agent

Q2) Opportunistic species typically ________.

A) are very long-living

B) have a large number of offspring

C) reach sexual maturity slowly

D) exhibit a Type I survivorship curve

Q3) Species that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ________.

A) have long lives

B) exhibit a Type III survivorship curve

C) exhibit a Type II survivorship curve

D) have a large number of offspring

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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bears eat berries,humans,and large fish; large fish eat smaller fish and insects; humans eat bears,large fish,and berries; Venus flytraps eat insects.The scenario described here is an example of ________.

A) an ecosystem

B) parasitism

C) a food web

D) a food chain

Q2) Small fishes that eat zooplankton are ________.

A) primary consumers

B) producers

C) tertiary consumers

D) secondary consumers

Q3) The single greatest threat to biodiversity comes from ________.

A) habitat destruction and fragmentation

B) invasive species

C) overexploitation

D) pollution

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following animals is an ectotherm?

A) human

B) parrot

C) spiny lobster

D) field mouse

Q2) In humans,goosebumps are a vestige of a mammalian adaptation related to

A) thermoregulation

B) water conservation

C) osmoregulation

D) positive feedback

Q3) In animals,individual cells are grouped into ________.

A) organs

B) tissues

C) organisms

D) organ systems

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion

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Sample Questions

Q1) When contracted,________ prevents movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine.

A) peristalsis

B) reverse peristalsis

C) the epiglottis

D) a sphincter

Q2) What is the main digestive function of the pancreas?

A) It produces digestive enzymes and bile.

B) It produces bile.

C) It produces digestive enzymes and neutralizes stomach acids.

D) It secretes mucus into the small intestine.

Q3) Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency would show symptoms most similar to______.

A) Sjögren's syndrome

B) megaesophagus

C) diverticulitis

D) celiac disease

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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration

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Sample Questions

Q1) In varicose veins,the one-way flow of blood in veins is disrupted,which can cause swelling and blood clots.What might help return the blood flow in these veins to normal?

A) Reduce physical activity.

B) Raise legs above the level of the heart when resting.

C) Remove valves from varicose veins.

D) Stand or sit still for long periods of time.

Q2) Why is blood pressure higher during systole than during diastole?

A) The contraction of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

B) The relaxation of the heart during systole increases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

C) The contraction of the heart during diastole decreases the blood pressure against arterial walls.

D) More blood flows into the heart during systole than during diastole.

Q3) When a person exhales to complete a yawn,what happens?

A) The rib muscles contract.

B) The diaphragm contracts.

C) The rib muscles act in the same way that they do in an inhalation.

D) The diaphragm relaxes.

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Page 25

Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?

A) cytotoxic T cells

B) natural killer cells

C) helper T cells

D) phagocytic cells

Q2) ________ may destroy infected body cells.

A) Phagocytic cells

B) Helper T cells

C) Natural killer cells

D) Cytotoxic T cells

Q3) Slugs produce mucus all over their bodies that helps keep them moist and helps them move.The mucus also can protect the slugs from pathogens.A slug's mucus is a component of which part of the immune system?

A) internal innate immunity

B) external innate immunity

C) adaptive immunity

D) lymphatic system

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26

Chapter 25: Hormones

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following has both endocrine and nonendocrine functions?

A) pancreas

B) salivary gland

C) anterior pituitary gland

D) skeletal muscle

Q2) Which of the following hormones can make a person susceptible to infection when administered for too long as a drug?

A) glucagon

B) growth hormone

C) glucocorticoids

D) antidiuretic hormone

Q3) Which of the following glands secretes hormones that enable the body to respond to stress?

A) pancreas

B) adrenal

C) pineal

D) parathyroid

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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these describes the best experimental design to test the idea that scrotal temperature is less with boxers than with briefs?

A) Take an equal number of men wearing boxers and men wearing briefs and have them go into a clinic and have their scrotal temperatures measured.

B) Recruit a number of men of approximately the same age and have some put on boxers and some put on briefs and then measure their scrotal temperatures.

C) Recruit a number of men of approximately the same age with half wearing boxers and half wearing briefs. Have them spend time in a room of the same constant temperature and then measure their scrotal temperatures.

D) Take the first 100 men who come into a fertility clinic, record who are wearing boxers and who are wearing briefs, and then measure their scrotal temperatures.

Q2) Which of these events occurs first?

A) gastrulation

B) cleavage

C) implantation

D) formation of the placenta

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Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where would we expect to find electrical synapses?

A) within the brain

B) within the heart

C) within the spinal cord

D) between interneurons and motor neurons

Q2) The cerebral cortex is highly folded.Why might this be an advantage for the functions of the cerebrum?

A) The increased surface area increases the area for higher-level thinking.

B) The increased surface area permits greater contact between the cerebrum and the cerebellum.

C) The folds form grooves that let the bones of the skull reach deeply down between brain regions.

D) The folds increase the areas where sensory receptors can reach the brain's surface.

Q3) A person who cannot focus well on distant objects has ________.

A) farsightedness

B) nearsightedness

C) astigmatism

D) cataracts

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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most domesticated food crops come from which of the following plant groups?

A) mosses

B) gymnosperms

C) ferns

D) angiosperms

Q2) Which of the following plant types complete their life cycle in 2 years?

A) annuals only

B) annuals and perennials

C) biennials only

D) perennials only

Q3) A plant's diploid form is called the ________; the haploid form is called the ________.

A) sporophyte... pollen

B) sporophyte... gametophyte

C) gametophyte... sporophyte

D) gametophyte... fruit

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Chapter 29: The Working Plant

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the figure above,which of the following produce nitrogen in a form that can be used directly by the plant,without need for conversion?

A) nitrifying bacteria only

B) ammonifying bacteria only

C) nitrogen-fixing bacteria only

D) ammonifying bacteria and nitrogen fixing bacteria

Q2) What does a plant gain from a mycorrhizal relationship?

A) It allows roots to absorb water and solutes more rapidly.

B) It increases the surface area for photosynthesis.

C) It helps to break down complex molecules in the soil to release micronutrients.

D) It helps to break down decaying organic matter into essential plant nutrients.

Q3) Which of the following best describes the mechanism that causes stomata to open?

A) Water accumulates below the opening and eventually causes the stoma to open.

B) A large bubble of oxygen accumulates below the stoma and eventually causes it to open.

C) Two guard cells flanking each stoma control its opening by changing shape.

D) The internal pressure of xylem sap expands the leaf, stretching the stoma open.

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