Basic Pharmacology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Basic Pharmacology introduces students to the fundamental principles of how drugs interact with biological systems. The course explores key concepts such as drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, as well as the mechanisms of drug action at the molecular and cellular levels. Students will learn about different classes of drugs, their therapeutic uses, side effects, and the factors influencing drug response. Emphasis is placed on understanding how pharmacological knowledge applies to clinical practice, ensuring safe and effective medication management. This foundational course serves as a basis for further study in pharmacology and related health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 6th Edition by Henry Hitner
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
46 Chapters
1016 Verified Questions
1016 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3235 Page 2
Chapter 1: Pharmacology: An Introduction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64183
Sample Questions
Q1) In a graded dose-response curve,one would expect a more potent medication to cause the curve to shift in what direction?
A)Up
B)Down
C)Left
D)Right
Answer: C
Q2) The nonproprietary name of a medication is also known as the:
A) Trade name
B) Generic name
C) Chemical name
D) None of these are correct.
Answer: B
Q3) Drug potencies are compared using what value on a dose-response curve?
A) Therapeutic index
B) Half-life
C) ED50
D) LD50
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64182
Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the transport mechanisms to determine how cells allow drugs to pass through the cell membrane.
A) Filtration
B) Passive transport
C) Active transport
D) All of these are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Select the proper method by which you can conclude that there will be 100 percent bioavailability in the circulatory system immediately after administration of the drug product.
A) Subcutaneous injection method
B) Inhalation method
C) Transdermal patch method
D) Intravenous injection method
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64181
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may contribute to drug toxicity in the geriatric population?
A) Increased activity of liver enzymes
B) Stable creatinine levels
C) Reduced production of plasma proteins
D) Leukopenia
Answer: C
Q2) How would one expect the plasma creatinine levels to change with age?
A) Slight decrease
B) Remain unchanged
C) Dramatic decrease
D) Increase
Answer: D
Q3) A chief complaint from elderly patients taking potassium bromide tablets would be:
A) Dosing frequency
B) Dietary restrictions
C) Difficulty swallowing
D) Small size
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
5
Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64180
Sample Questions
Q1) Use Clark's rule to determine the necessary dose of a drug routinely ordered for adults as 300 mg.The child is 5 years old and weighs 40 pounds.
A) 50 mg
B) 60 mg
C) 70 mg
D) 80 mg
Q2) Select the correct number of drops per minute to be administered for a 1200-ml IV given over 5 hours using an administration set labeled 10 drops per ml.
A) 400 drops/minute
B) 240 drops/minute
C) 40 drops/minute
D) 4 drops/minute
Q3) In summarizing the factors that affect IV solutions,you conclude that:
A) IV drug solutions must be free of organisms.
B) IV drug solutions must be compatible with all of the ingredients.
C) IV drug solutions must be adjusted to a targeted pH range.
D) All of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Introduction to the Autonomic Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64179
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with tachycardia is experiencing:
A) Parasympathetic activation
B) Parasympathetic inhibition
C) Sympathetic activation
D) Sympathetic inhibition
Q2) What is the main chemical released by the medulla in sympathetic stimulation?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Epinephrine
Q3) Blood pressure is lowered by:
A) Decreasing sympathetic activity
B) Increasing parasympathetic activity
C) Decreasing parasympathetic activity
D) Increasing sympathetic activity
Q4) The function of the autonomic nervous system is to regulate the rate of:
A)Cardiac muscle contractions
B)Skeletal muscle contractions
C)Spinal reflexes
D)Sensory conduction
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64178
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct treatment outcome associated with the use of IV dobutamine,a drug that is similar to dopamine but has greater beta-1 effects.
A) Bronchodilation
B) Acute allergy/asthma
C) Acute heart failure
D) Vasoconstriction
Q2) Explain the use of an EpiPen Auto-Injector.
A) The EpiPen must be carried at all times and should be administered immediately following the onset of an anaphylactic allergic reaction.
B) The EpiPen must be carried at all times and should be administered within 5 minutes of the onset of an anaphylactic allergic reaction.
C) The EpiPen must be carried at all times and should be administered within 15 minutes of the onset of an anaphylactic allergic reaction.
D) The EpiPen must be carried at all times and should be administered within 30 minutes of the onset of an anaphylactic allergic reaction.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 8
Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64177
Sample Questions
Q1) A middle-stage Alzheimer's patient susceptible to side effects would benefit best from which medication?
A) Tacrine
B) Memantine
C) Galantamine
D) Rivastigmine
Q2) Acetylcholinesterase activity takes place primarily in what location?
A) Neuronal synapse
B) Inside presynaptic vesicles
C) Inside presynaptic axon terminal
D) On the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron
Q3) This type of cholinergic receptor is not associated with the autonomic nervous system:
A) Muscarinic
B) Ganglionic
C) Nicotinic-n
D) Nicotinic-m
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 9
Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64176
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of weakness,dizziness,and feelings of faintness when standing up.Using your knowledge of ganglionic stimulants and blockers,you determine from the patient's medication profile that the drug that is probably causing these adverse effects is:
A) Mecamylamine
B) Buproprion
C) Chantix
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) A patient who recently started on a smoking cessation treatment plan is complaining of throat irritation.Using what you have learned about the smoking cessation products,you determine that this adverse effect is due to his use of:
A) Nicorette
B) Nicotrol Inhaler
C) Chantix
D) Nicorette gum
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64175
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be taken into consideration when selecting a neuromuscular blocking drug for surgical relaxation?
A) Duration of action
B) Time of onset
C) Reversibility
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Prolonged use of which centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant can lead to dependency?
A) Baclofen
B) Methocarbamol
C) Diazepam
D) Orphenadrine
Q3) Peripheral skeletal muscle relaxation can be achieved by using which medications?
A) Dantrolene and pancuronium
B) Baclofen and dantrolene
C) Pancuronium and succinylcholine
D) Baclofen and diazepam
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64174
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
A) Regional nerve block
B) Infiltration anesthesia
C) Intradermal anesthesia
D) Cryoanesthesia
Q2) Implementing the use of potent local anesthetics can lead to adverse effects on the central nervous system.These effects can lead to nervousness,excitation,tremors,and convulsions.The probable cause of these effects is:
A) Depression of the activity of the cerebral cortex
B) Hypersensitivity to the local anesthetics
C) Stimulation of the cerebral cortex
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Local anesthetics eliminate the response to pain by inhibiting the sensory nerves that carry painful stimuli to the CNS.Select the correct mechanism of action of the local anesthetics.
A) Sodium ions are blocked from passing in through the cell membrane.
B) Nerve depolarization is prevented.
C) Potassium ions are blocked from passing out through the cell membrane.
D) All of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 12
Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64173
Sample Questions
Q1) A person choking on a piece of steak is displaying activation of which brain structure?
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Pons
D) Medulla oblongata
Q2) Inhibitory fibers of the _____ become more active during periods of _____.
A) Limbic system, sleep
B) Reticular formation, sleep
C) Limbic system, darkness
D) Reticular formation, darkness
Q3) Coordination and regulation of muscular activity is a major function of the
A) Temporal lobe
B) Occipital lobe
C) Basal ganglia
D) Thalamus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64172
Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the FDA pregnancy categories,and determine the proper category for the barbiturates.
A) Pregnancy Category B
B) Pregnancy Category C
C) Pregnancy Category D
D) Pregnancy Category X
Q2) Identify the main characteristic of the REM stage of the sleep cycle.
A) Periods of rapid eye movement.
B) Dreaming
C) Increased autonomic system activity
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Select the contributing factor that leads to physical dependency while taking barbiturates.
A) Greater therapeutic dosages taken on a regular basis for more than 1 year
B) Greater therapeutic dosages taken on a regular basis for more than 6 months.
C) Greater therapeutic dosages taken on a regular basis for more than 1 to 2 months
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64171
Sample Questions
Q1) An important inhibitory neurotransmitter that keeps emotion and behavior under control is:
A) Dopamine
B) GABA
C) Norepineprine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Adverse effects of phenothiazine antipsychotics are due to:
A) Stimulation of cholinergic and histamine receptors
B) Blocking of cholinergic and histamine receptors
C) Stimulation of D2 and histamine receptors
D) Blocking of D2 and histamine receptors
Q3) A person taking an atypical antipsychotic medication could be expected to develop all of the following metabolic disorders except:
A) Weight gain
B) Anemia
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Diabetes mellitus
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Antidepressants, psychomotor Stimulants, and Lithium
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64170
Sample Questions
Q1) Using the Drug Facts and Comparisons reference manual,you learn that the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have low,high,or sedating effects on the CNS.Select the drugs that fall into this category.
A) Citalopram, lithium, and amitriptyline
B) Citalopram, fluoxetine, and sertraline
C) Paroxetine, lithium, and fluoxetine
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the type of disorder that responds to treatment with lithium.
A) Disorders characterized by alternating cycles of depression and mania
B) Disorders characterized by hyperactivity and excessive elevation of mood
C) Disorders characterized by wide shifts in mood
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) The statement that best explains bipolar mood disorder is:
A) Disorder consisting of depression caused by external factors
B) Disorder consisting of depression caused by factors from within the patient
C) Disorder consisting of alternating periods of depression and hyperexcitability and elation
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Psychotomimetic Drugs of Abuse
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64169
Sample Questions
Q1) Two pharmacokinetic characteristics unique to amphetamines when compared to adrenergic neurotransmitters are:
A) Increased elimination and short half life
B) Decreased elimination and short half life
C) Lipid solubility and long half life
D) Lipid solubility and increased metabolism
Q2) DMT was taken by a drug abuser wanting to experience a hallucinogenic effect.The abuser was angry after no effect was experienced.This is probably because:
A) DMT can only be inhaled to be effective
B) DMT must be heated to be effective
C) DMT has no effect if it is smoked
D) DMT has no effect when taken orally
Q3) The consumption of larger doses of a drug to prevent onset of psychological and physical withdrawal symptoms.
A) Drug tolerance
B) Cross tolerance
C) Drug dependency
D) Drug addiction
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64168
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the side effect most commonly associated with the use of oxazolidinediones.
A) Snow blindness
B) Dry mouth
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Orthostatic hypotension
Q2) Differentiate between the groups of drug agents listed,and select the first-line treatment for generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
A) Phenytoin (Dilantin), valproic acid (Depakene), and carbamazepine (Tegretol)
B) Ethosuximide (Zarontin), valproic acid (Depakene), and lamotrigine (Lamictal)
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin) and lorazepam (Ativan)
D) Ethosuximide (Zarontin) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
Q3) Use critical thinking to determine the recommended effective treatment for a patient with absence seizures.
A) Clonazepam (Klonopin)
B) Phenobarbital (Luminal)
C)Topiramate (Topamax )
D) Diazepam (Valium)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64167
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Parkinson's disease who may be mobile one minute and immobile the next is probably experiencing
A) An overdose of levodopa
B) The on-off phenomenon
C) Dyskinesias
D) Livido reticularis
Q2) _____ is an excitatory neurotransmitter released from the _____ area of the basal ganglia
A) Dopamine, corpus striatum
B) Acetylcholine, corpus striatum
C) Dopamine, substantia nigra
D) Acetylcholine, substantia nigra
Q3) For best results,levodopa should be administered on an empty stomach
A) To maximize drug receptor binding to achieve a therapeutic effect
B) To minimize plasma protein binding interferences
C) To enhance absorption in the small intestines
D) To decrease interference with amino acid transporters in the brain
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64166
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that best explains the reason why propofol is the preferred agent used for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia.
A) Propofol does not lead to the development of nausea and vomiting, nor does it accumulate in the tissues.
B) Propofol does not depress cardiovascular and respiratory activity.
C) Propofol contributes to an increase in blood pressure in patients who suffer from hypotension.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Using the do's and don'ts that the patient should be made aware of after surgical procedures using anesthesia,select the true statement.
A) Don't rely on memory for spoken instructions; follow written instructions.
B) Don't leave the health care facility unless accompanied by a responsible adult.
C) Don't operate complex equipment for at least 24 hours.
D) All of these are correct
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Opioid Analgesics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64165
Sample Questions
Q1) A common sign of opioid toxicity would be:
A) Mydriasis
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Dry eyes
D) Red eyes
Q2) Oral formulations of opioid drugs should never be _____ in order to avoid _____.
A) Chewed, an enhanced degradation in the stomach leading to side effects
B) Chewed, an enhanced effect leading to side effects
C) Taken with food, decreased absorption
D) Taken with food, food-drug interactions
Q3) _____ pain is transmitted through _____ of the ascending pathway.
A) Sharp, A-delta fibers
B) Sharp, C-nociceptor fibers
C) Dull, A-delta fibers
D) Neuropathic, B-delta fibers
Q4) Nonopioid analgesics consist of all of the following except:
A) Meperidine
B) NSAIDs
C) Acetaminophen
D) COX-2 inhibitors
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Nonopioid Analgesic, nonsteroidal Antiinflammatory, and Antigout DR
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64164
Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the physiological signs that indicate the presence of inflammation. A) Swelling and edema
B) Pain and warmth
C) Redness and loss of body function
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the physical ramifications of excess use of acetaminophen.
A) The excessive use of acetaminophen causes metabolites of the drug to bind to tissue groups in the kidney and liver, causing hepatotoxicity.
B) The excessive use of acetaminophen causes metabolites of the drug to bind to tissue groups in the intestinal tract, causing diarrhea.
C) The excessive use of acetaminophen causes metabolites of the drug to bind to tissue groups in the pancreas, causing pancreatitis.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
22
Chapter 21: Review of Cardiac Physiology and Pathology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64163
Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the autonomic nervous system is active during eating,digestion,and sleep?
A) Central nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
C) Sympathetic nervous system
D) Parasympathetic nervous system
Q2) A patient with atherosclerosis will also have:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypercholesterolemia
C) Hypotension
D) Hypoglycemia
Q3) The SA node increases heart rate from the release of _____ in the _____.
A) Norepinephrine, parasympathetic nervous system
B) Norepinephrine, sympathetic nervous system
C) Acetylcholine, parasympathetic nervous system
D) Acetylcholine, sympathetic nervous system
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Heart Failure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64162
Sample Questions
Q1) Translate the presence of excessive ST segments and T wave depressions on an ECG.
A) The presence of excessive ST segments and T wave depressions on an ECG indicate an excess of aldosterone in the body.
B) The presence of excessive ST segments and T wave depressions on an ECG indicate an excess of antidiuretic hormone in the body.
C) The presence of excessive ST segments and T wave depressions on an ECG indicate digoxin toxicity.
D) None of these are correct
Q2) Explain the difference between hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia.
A) Hyperkalemia is low serum potassium, and hypercalcemia is high serum calcium.
B) Hypercalcemia is high serum potassium, and hyperkalemia is high serum calcium.
C) Hyperkalemia is high serum potassium, and hypercalcemia is high serum calcium.
D) Hyperkalemia is high serum potassium, and hypercalcemia is low serum calcium.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64161
Sample Questions
Q1) Of the Class IA antiarrhythmics,procainamide is favored over quinidine because procainamide
A) Has less anticholinergic and antihistaminic actions
B) Has less antiadrenergic and antihistaminic actions
C) Has less anticholinergic and alpha blocking actions
D) Has less antiadrenergic and muscarinic blocking actions
Q2) Counting the number of QRS waves occurring within a one minute period allows for _____ to be determined.
A) Cardiac output
B) Heart rate
C) Stroke volume
D) Premature atrial contractions
Q3) Class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs work by blocking the _____ of _____ ions during the repolarization phase.
A) Influx, sodium
B) Efflux, sodium
C) Influx, potassium
D) Efflux, potassium
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64160
Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the commercially available nitrate products,and determine the nitrate drug most commonly used to treat angina and coronary artery disease.
A) Isosorbide dinitrate
B) Isosorbide monohydrate
C) Nitroglycerin
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the term used to describe the fatty degeneration of the coronary arteries.
A) Angina pectoris
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Ischemia
D) Hypercholesterolemia
Q3) Alice is experiencing periods of angina,and she places a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue as directed by her physician.After 5 minutes have passed,she is not feeling any relief.What step should be implemented next?
A) Seek medical assistance immediately.
B) Place another sublingual nitroglycerin tablet under her tongue.
C) Swallow the nitroglycerin tablet in order to get better absorption.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Diuretics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64159
Sample Questions
Q1) A unique property of osmotic diuretics is that:
A) They can neither be filtered by the glomerulus nor be reabsorbed in renal tubules.
B) They can be filtered by the glomerulus and be reabsorbed in renal tubules.
C) They can be filtered by the glomerulus but not be reabsorbed by renal tubules.
D) They can't be filtered by the glomerulus but can be reabsorbed by renal tubules.
Q2) Edema is a result of insufficient _____ clearance where fluid accumulates in the _____.
A) Sodium, extracellular space
B) Sodium, intracellular space
C) Chloride, extracellular space
D) Chloride, intracellular space
Q3) Which type of diuretic would be recommended for a patient who was very sensitive to electrolyte imbalances?
A) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Organic acid diuretic
D) ADH antagonists
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Antihypertensive Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64158
Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) and the angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs),and select the drug agent of choice in the treatment of hypertension because it possesses the shortest plasma half-life within this group.
A) Quinapril (Accupril)
B) Captopril (Capoten)
C) Losarten (Cozaar)
D) Valsarten (Diovan)
Q2) Using the adverse-effects profile of the diuretic drug agents,select the true statement related to the thiazide and loop diuretics.
A) The thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the synthesis of renin.
B) The thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the metabolism of sodium.
C) The thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the renal excretion of uric acid.
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Select the preferred treatment for hypertension for patients with renal disease.
A) Beta-blockers and diuretics
B) ACEIs and ARBs
C) Calcium channel blockers and diuretics
D) ACEIs and diuretics.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 28
Chapter 27: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64157
Sample Questions
Q1) Which anticoagulant's mechanism of action involves an inhibition of platelet aggregation?
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Streptokinase
D) Aspirin
Q2) The preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy is:
A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Streptokinase
D) Enoxaparin
Q3) Patients with a tendency to develop blot clots have a problem with which regulatory process?
A) Hematopoiesis
B) Leukopoiesis
C) Hemostasis
D) Hemopoiesis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29
Chapter 28: Nutrition and Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64156
Sample Questions
Q1) Use your critical-thinking skills to determine the true statement related to vitamin A,which is essential for the production of rhodopsin.
A) Dietary beta-carotene (provitamin A) is converted to retinol in the stomach.
B) Retinol combines with a protein, opsin, to form rhodopsin. This protein enables specialized retinal cells (rods) to adapt to very low-intensity light (dark adaptation).
C) Rhodopsin is the protein that enables specialized retinal cells (cones) to adapt to bright lights.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Describe the type of patient who would benefit from the administration of a TPN.
A) Cancer patient having difficulty with excessive weight loss
B) Diabetic patient having difficulty keeping his or her blood sugar level down
C) Pregnant patient who has been vomiting excessively and is dehydrated
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Identify the group consisting of the fat-soluble vitamins.
A) Vitamins A, D, E, and K
B) Vitamins A, B, D, and E
C) Vitamins A, B, C, and D
D) Vitamins A, B, D, and K
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Hypolipidemic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64155
Sample Questions
Q1) The cholesterol absorption inhibitor drug,ezetimibe,is unique compared to other antihyperlipidemic drugs because
A) The drug inhibits liver enzymes to prevent cholesterol synthesis
B) The drug prevents cholesterol absorption in the intestine
C) The drug primarily stays within the enterohepatic circulation
D) The drug is a bile acid sequestrant
Q2) After macrophages consume LDL,they are transformed into A) VLDL
B) Foam cells
C) Chylomicrons
D) Apoproteins
Q3) Cholesterol can best be tested by what type of sample?
A) Whole blood sample
B) Plasma sample
C) Serum sample
D) Urine sample
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 30: Antianemics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64154
Sample Questions
Q1) Use your knowledge of the treatments and interactions associated with deficiency anemias to explain to a patient why she should not take cimetidine within 2 hours of her cobalamin treatment.
A) Cimetidine decreases gastric acid so that vitamin B<sub>12</sub> cannot combine with available intrinsic factor, impairing but not totally inhibiting the absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
B) Cimetidine decreases gastric acid so that vitamin B<sub>12</sub> cannot combine with available intrinsic factor, totally inhibiting the absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
C) Cimetidine decreases intrinsic factor production so that vitamin B<sub>12</sub> cannot be absorbed.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the correct definition of the term hypochromic by breaking the word into its component parts.
A) Hypo- refers to less than normal and -chromic means size.
B) Hypo- refers to more than normal and -chromic means color.
C) Hypo- refers to less than normal and -chromic means color.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 32
Chapter 31: Antihistaminic Drugs and Mast Cell Release
Inhibitors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64153
Sample Questions
Q1) Why shouldn't oral cromolyn dosage forms be taken with fruit juice or milk?
A) The acidic conditions will induce metabolism and be less powerful.
B) Enhanced activity of drug occurs with juices and milk.
C) An insoluble complex is formed that is difficult to excrete.
D) Absorption of drug will be compromised.
Q2) Why would Dr.Smith not prescribe an antihistamine for his patient with asthma?
A) Antihistamines produce more disturbances in intestinal activity, rather than a therapeutic response.
B) Antihistamines are not therapeutically useful in the treatment of asthma.
C) Antihistamines allow for the production of nasal and bronchial mucus.
D) A life-threatening reaction called the Response of Lewis can occur.
Q3) A person allergic to chocolate may develop a migraine headache because:
A) Histamine dilates cerebral blood vessels that will stimulate nearby pain receptors.
B) IgE dilates cerebral blood vessels that will stimulate nearby pain receptors.
C) Histamine stimulates pain receptors by vasoconstriction of cerebral blood vessels.
D) IgE stimulates pain receptors by vasoconstriction of cerebral blood vessels.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma, and Copd
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64152
Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the chemical mediators that are formed and released from injured tissue,mast cells,and leukocytes in the respiratory tract,and select the function of the eosinophilic chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis as it relates to asthma.
A) Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to stimulate the action of arachidonic acid.
B) Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to attract eosinophils to the site of cell injury or irritation in the lining of the respiratory tract in asthma.
C) Eosinophilic chemotactic factor (ECF-A) is released from eosinophils and mast cells and functions to stimulate the action of the prostaglandins.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Select the group of drug agents that are listed in increasing order of their duration of action.
A) Albuterol, Advair, Spiriva
B) Advair, albuterol, Spiriva
C) Albuterol, Spiriva, Advair
D) Spiriva, albuterol, Advair
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 34
Chapter 33: Therapy of Gastrointestinal Disorders: Peptic Ulcers,
gerd, and Vom
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64151
Sample Questions
Q1) Gastric juices mainly consist of
A) HCl and gastrin
B) HCl and pepsin
C) Sodium bicarbonate and gastrin
D) Sodium bicarbonate and pepsin
Q2) In treating an H.pylori peptic ulcer,triple therapy refers to using
A) Two antibiotics and a bismuth compound
B) Two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor
C) An antibiotic, a bismuth compound, and a proton pump inhibitor
D) An antibiotic, an antifungal, and a bismuth compound
Q3) One common problem with long term use of antacids would be
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) High magnesium content
C) High aluminum content
D) High sodium content
Q4) What are two types of receptor antagonists that are used as antiemetics?
A) Serotonin 5-HT3 and NK-1
B) Serotonin 5-HT2 and NK-1
C) Serotonin 5-HT3 and NK-2
D) Serotonin 5-HT2 and NK-2
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35
Chapter 34: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64150
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the primary causes of constipation.
A) Poorly developed toilet habits and diets low in fiber
B) Stressful situations that result in sympathetic stimulation that decreases intestinal motility
C) Emotional disturbances that alter the parasympathetic control of the intestines
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Using your knowledge of the causes and treatments of diarrhea,select the correct recommendation for a patient who comes into the office asking for advice to prevent diarrhea while he is away on a business trip overseas.
A) Lotronex taken daily (0.5-1 mg two times a day)
B) Pepto-Bismol, taken prophylactically (2 tablets or 2 oz four times a day)
C) Imodium A-D taken prophylactically (4 mg up to 8 mg per day)
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Describe the patient population in which chronic diarrhea develops more readily.
A) Children
B) Individuals in poor health or with poor nutrition
C) Elderly
D) All of these are correct
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64149
Sample Questions
Q1) The release of _____ is stimulated by the action of thyrotropic releasing hormone from the ______.
A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone; pineal gland
B) Growth hormone; posterior pituitary
C) Insulin-like growth factor; anterior pituitary
D) Thyroid stimulating hormone; hypothalamus
Q2) Releasing and inhibiting hormones travel from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary through the
A) Portal artery
B) Fourth ventricle
C) Portal vein
D) Blood brain barrier
Q3) In addition to bone,muscle,and fat,what organ is particularly responsive to the effects of somatotropin?
A) Liver
B) Stomach
C) Lymph nodes
D) Spleen
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Adrenal Steroids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64148
Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids,and select the true statement about these hormones.
A) The glucocorticoids are hormones secreted by the inner layer of the adrenal gland.
B) Deficiency of mineralocorticoids leads to Cushing's disease.
C) The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates and proteins.
D) The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the fluid balance of the body.
Q2) Select the correct instructions for a patient with lupus erythematosus who is discontinuing long-term therapy with prednisone.
A) The dose of prednisone will gradually be reduced over a period of a few months.
B) The dose of prednisone can be stopped immediately.
C) The dose of prednisone will gradually be reduced every other day until completely weaned off.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Gonadal Hormones, oral Contraceptives, and
Erectile Dysfunction Dru
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64147
Sample Questions
Q1) A triphasic oral contraceptive contains:
A) Two different-strength estrogen pills and a progestin pill
B) Three different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogen to progestin in a pill
C) Two different strengths (dose ratio) of estrogen to progestin in a pill
D) Three different strengths (dose ratio) of progestin to estrogen in a pill
Q2) How does clomiphene work as a synthetic ovulation stimulant?
A) As an estrogen agonist that inhibits negative feedback to the pituitary
B) As an estrogen agonist that promotes negative feedback to the pituitary
C) As an estrogen antagonist that inhibits negative feedback to the pituitary
D) As an estrogen antagonist that promotes negative feedback to the pituitary
Q3) Ovulation occurs as a result of a surge from which hormone?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) Progesterone
Q4) Estrogens released from the ovary will:
A) Increase secretion of GnRH through positive feedback
B) Decrease secretion of GnRH through negative feedback
C) Increase secretion of FSH and LH through positive feedback
D) Decrease secretion of FSH and LH through negative feedback
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 39
Chapter 38: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid
Glands and Bone Degener
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64146
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the true statement related to the body's response to calcium levels of more than 10.5 mg/dL.
A) When the plasma calcium level reaches 10.5 mg/dL, calcitonin is secreted. It lowers the circulating calcium level by antagonizing the effect of PTH on bone.
B) When the plasma calcium level reaches 10.5 mg/dL, calcitonin is secreted. It raises the circulating calcium level by potentiating the effect of PTH on bone.
C) When the plasma calcium level reaches 10.5 mg/dL, PTH is secreted. It lowers the circulating calcium level by antagonizing the effect of calcitonin on bone.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Select the class of drugs used as co-therapy to inhibit the increased sympathetic responses that accompany hyperthyroidism in the treatment of thyrotoxic crisis.
A) Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs
B) Leukotriene inhibitors
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 40
Chapter 39: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64145
Sample Questions
Q1) The autoimmune response associated with type 1 diabetes in which beta cells are destroyed is thought to be initiated by:
A) Obesity
B) A Coxsackie virus
C) A staphylococcal infection
D) The aging process
Q2) Insulin will cause a majority of the blood glucose to be taken up in:
A) The liver
B) Smooth muscle
C) Skeletal muscle
D) Cardiac muscle
Q3) Which one of the following receptors is not coupled to a G-protein?
A) GIP receptor
B) GLP-1 receptor
C) Glucagon receptor
D) Insulin receptor
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 40: Posterior Pituitary Hormones: Antidiuretic Hormone
and Oxytocin
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64144
Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between hypotonic and hypertonic to explain the situations that affect the release of ADH.
A) ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic or has a sodium level of 145 mEq/l. If there is too much retained water, the blood serum sodium level is 135 mEq/l and ADH secretion is inhibited.
B) ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypotonic or has a sodium level of 135 mEq/l. If there is too little retained water, the blood serum sodium level is 145 mEq/l and ADH secretion is inhibited.
C) ADH is released when the blood serum sodium level is hypertonic or has a sodium level of 135 mEq/l. If there is too much retained water, the blood serum sodium level is 145 mEq/l and ADH secretion is inhibited.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Use the pharmacological action of the oxytocics and tocolytics to select the drug of choice for the treatment of postpartum bleeding.
A) Dinoprost
B) Methylergonovine
C) Carboprost
D) Protaglandins
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Antibacterial Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64143
Sample Questions
Q1) A person experiencing a delayed allergic reaction to a penicillin will likely be switched to a(n):
A) Aminoglycoside
B) Tetracycline
C) Cephalosporin
D) Sulfonamide
Q2) Nephrotoxicity is a concern in which families of antibiotics?
A) Tetracyclines and second-generation cephalosporins
B) Sulfonamides and third-generation cephalosporins
C) Macrolides and fourth-generation cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides and first-generation cephalosporins
Q3) A decrease in rifampin effectiveness with other medications may be due to:
A) Increased acetylation
B) Increased beta-lactamase activity
C) Enterohepatic cycling
D) Bacterial resistance
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64142
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that best explains the activity of the retrovirus HIV.
A) The viral DNA creates RNA replicas of itself that eventually leave the lymphocytes after coating themselves with a protein.
B) HIV reverses the normal host cell process and reproduces by transcribing itself into the DNA of the host cell.
C) The target cells for HIV are macrophages and helper T cells. After transcription has taken place, the viral DNA gains access to lymphocyte DNA, reproducing along with the cell and its offspring.
D) All of these are correct
Q2) Identify the principal area where a fungus is encountered that requires drug intervention.
A) Systemic infection
B) Dermatophytic infection
C) Candida albacans infection
D) All of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 43: Parasitic Infections: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64141
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with severe liver disease and dysentery arrives at the hospital.Can the patient receive metronidazole?
A) Yes, but treatment should be supplemented with vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
B) Yes, but close monitoring will be required.
C) No. This has been shown to increase the patient's risk for developing cancer.
D) No. This can cause a disulfiram-like reaction in the patient.
Q2) Where is the location of the malarial microorganism when a human is first exposed?
A) White blood cell
B) Red blood cell
C) Liver
D) Kidney
Q3) In order to avoid toxoplasmosis,pregnant women should stay away from a cat's litter box for:
A) Only the first trimester
B) The first and second trimester
C) All three trimesters
D) Only the third trimester
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 45
Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64140
Sample Questions
Q1) Using the mechanism of action of antiseptics and disinfectants,select the true statement related to their ability to destroy microorganisms.
A) Antiseptics and disinfectants destroy microorganisms by interfering with cell metabolism and damaging nucleic acid function.
B) These agents can decrease the surface tension of bacterial cell walls, causing the cells to swell and lyse.
C) Antiseptics and disinfectants disrupt the cell's membrane and denature the protein function of the cell.
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Explain the primary reason why antibiotics can't always eradicate an organism.
A) Some organisms reproduce faster than antibiotics are capable of destroying them.
B) Some organisms can't be treated with antibiotics because they must be completely destroyed by the immune system.
C) Overuse of antibiotics has made some microorganisms resistant to the available antibiotic treatments.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64139
Sample Questions
Q1) A medication that can be taken prophylactically by women who have a family history of developing breast cancer is:
A) Anastrozole
B) Tamoxifen
C) Leuprolide
D) Flutamide
Q2) Mrs.Smith's treatment for cancer is showing promise.The results of her first treatment showed a 50% reduction of tumor cells.Why would only one more treatment not be enough to eradicate the cancer from her body?
A) The treatment eradicates cancer cells by percentage, not number.
B) The treatment eradicates cancer cells by number, not percentage.
C) Additional treatments will serve as a precautionary measure.
D) The treatment is complete, and additional treatment will not be necessary.
Q3) What type of alkylating drugs would be good for treating brain tumors?
A) Nitrosoureas
B) Nitrogen mustard
C) Platinum derivatives
D) Antimetabolites
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/64138
Sample Questions
Q1) Using the steps in the immune response,select the true statement about macrophages and their role in the immune response process.
A) Macrophages release interleukins that activate the T-cells.
B) Macrophages are classified as antigen-presenting cells.
C) Macrophages kill cells that are infected with foreign organisms.
D) Macrophages produce immunoglobulins or antibodies.
Q2) Differentiate between tacrolimus (Prograf) and cyclosporine (Sandimmune),and select the true statement.
A) Tacrolimus is a macrolide antibiotic that has a similar mechanism of action as cyclosporine-to inhibit T-cell lymphocyte activity.
B) Cyclosporine is more potent than tacrolimus and is primarily used in organ transplantation to prevent rejection.
C) Tacrolimus and cyclosporine stimulate the production of interleukin-2, a chemical mediator necessary for the growth and multiplication of T-cells.
D) None of these are correct.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.