Basic Biology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Basic Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles of life science, exploring the structure and function of living organisms, cellular processes, genetics, evolution, and ecology. The course covers key concepts such as cell theory, energy transformation in biological systems, inheritance patterns, natural selection, and the interdependence of organisms within ecosystems. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and hands-on experiments, students gain a foundational understanding of how living systems operate and interact, preparing them for more advanced studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology 6th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two main processes upon which ecosystems depend?
A)speciation and evolution
B)nutrient recycling and energy flow
C)decomposition and nutrient recycling
D)sunlight and photosynthesis
Answer: B
Q2) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria when ________.
A)the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance
B)farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed
C)the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) In what way(s)is the science of biology influencing and changing our culture?
A)by helping us understand the relevance of evolution to human health
B)by revealing how mutations in genes can lead to disease
C)by providing new tools for forensic investigations
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An uncharged atom of gold has an atomic number of 79 and an atomic mass of 197.This atom has ________ protons,________ neutrons,and ________ electrons.
A)79...118...79
B)118...79...118
C)118...276...118
D)79...34...79
Answer: A
Q2) What name is given to bonds that involve the sharing of electrons?
A)covalent
B)hydrogen
C)ionic
D)polar
Answer: A
Q3) Sulfur has an atomic number of 16.How many covalent bonds can sulfur form?
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)0
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the data in the table is TRUE?
A)Saturated fat content and smoke point are positively correlated (related to one another).
B)There is a negative (inverse)correlation between unsaturated fat content and smoke point.
C)You can use the saturated fat content of an oil to reliably predict the smoke point of an oil.
D)Unsaturated fat content and smoke point are not correlated.
Answer: D
Q2) Amino acids include a side group as well as ________.
A)a central carbon,a hydrogen atom,an amino group,and a carboxyl group
B)a central carbon,a hydrogen atom,a hydroxyl group,and a carbonyl group
C)a central nitrogen,a carbon atom,a hydroxyl group,and a carbonyl group
D)a central nitrogen,a carbon atom,an amino group,and a carbonyl group
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ________.
A)in a marine environment
B)within the cells of another organism
C)in fresh water
D)in ice
Q2) Plant cells,unlike animal cells,are characterized by the presence of a ________.
A)cell wall and a contractile vacuole
B)cell wall and a central vacuole
C)nucleus and a cell wall
D)nucleus and a contractile vacuole
Q3) Where does protein synthesis take place?
A)in the nucleolus
B)on smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)on ribosomes
D)in the nucleus
Q4) Lysosomes are responsible for ________.
A)lipid synthesis
B)cellular respiration
C)digestion of organic matter inside the cell
D)protein synthesis
6
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ________.
A)enzyme substrates
B)enzyme inhibitors
C)enzyme catalysts
D)enzyme products
Q2) What molecules are scientists currently trying to use to power nanotechnology devices,such as microscopic robots?
A)DNA
B)Enzymes
C)Lipids
D)Cell membranes
Q3) Usually,enzymes are ________.
A)fats
B)steroids
C)chemical reactions
D)proteins
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy From Food
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Q1) Humans are both ________.
A)heterotrophs and consumers
B)heterotrophs and producers
C)producers and decomposers
D)autotrophs and producers
Q2) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells.Physicians find that the muscle cells function.Not surprisingly,they also find that ________.
A)the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise
B)the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise
C)the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function
D)the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid
Q3) Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to ________.
A)produce more ATP than is possible through complete aerobic respiration
B)produce ATP using the electron transport chain
C)regenerate NADH
D)produce ATP without O
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) Which of these is NOT considered an advantage of biofuels from food crops?
A)reduced carbon emissions
B)a renewable resource
C)increased fuel efficiency
D)increased crop prices
Q2) Which of the following is an autotroph?
A)human
B)mushroom
C)pine tree
D)fish
Q3) The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ________.
A)the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigmented object
B)the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object
C)the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object
D)the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight
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9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells From Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?
A)cytokinesis
B)telophase
C)interphase
D)DNA synthesis
Q2) A karyotype (a chromosome display)would be unable to determine ________.
A)sex
B)Down syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)eye color
Q3) With respect to her sex chromosomes,Amanda would be designated as ________.
A)XYY
B)XO
C)XOY
D)XX
Q4) The above figure shows that ________.
A)meiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells
B)fertilization results in four haploid daughter cells
C)the human 2n number is 4
D)meiosis forms diploid gametes
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual who is homozygous ________.
A)expresses the dominant trait
B)carries two different alleles for a gene
C)carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
D)expresses the recessive trait
Q2) In humans,the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene.What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
A)DD
B)Dd
C)dd
D)DI
Q3) Linked genes are usually ________.
A)found on the X chromosome
B)found on the Y chromosome
C)codominant
D)located close together on a chromosome
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11
Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of Dna
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Q1) RNA contains the nitrogenous base ________ instead of ________,which is found only in DNA.
A)a deoxyribose sugar...a ribose sugar
B)uracil...thymine
C)uracil...guanine
D)thymine...uracil
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
A)DNA polymerase
B)ribosome
C)reverse transcriptase
D)RNA polymerase
Q3) Where is translation accomplished?
A)lysosomes
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)ribosomes
D)nucleoli
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Q1) Repressors act by blocking the binding of ________ to the operator.
A)promoters
B)DNA polymerase
C)the operon
D)RNA polymerase
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of how tumors evolve?
A)Tumor cells can spread throughout the body.
B)Tumor cells show genetic variability.
C)Tumor cells grow uncontrollably.
D)Tumor cells pass on mutations when they divide.
Q3) In bacteria,what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions,along with their DNA control sequences?
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)exon
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13
Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Q1) To make restriction fragments,a DNA sample is treated with ________.
A)DNA ligase
B)restriction enzymes
C)DNA polymerase
D)lysozyme
Q2) FGA is one of the STRs that are used to compare DNA between different people.Why is FGA useful for comparing DNA between different people?
A)FGA varies in the number of repeats between different people.
B)FGA varies in sequence between different people.
C)FGA is only present in some peoples' genomes.
D)FGA is present in different places in different peoples' genomes.
Q3) The gel shown above includes a DNA ladder that can be used to estimate the sizes of DNA molecules.The ladder increases in 100 nucleotide increments,from 100 to 700.Four DNA molecules have been separated on this gel (labeled A to D) What is the approximate size of DNA molecule A?
A)250 nucleotides
B)300 nucleotides
C)350 nucleotides
D)400 nucleotides
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Page 14
Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) Which of the following examples results from stabilizing selection?
A)The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same.
B)There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
C)There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog.
D)Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
Q2) After surviving a bottleneck,a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck.Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population?
A)The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
B)The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection.
C)The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population.
D)The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
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15
Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) The wing of a bald eagle is ________ the wing of a penguin.
A)convergent with B)homologous to C)unrelated to D)analogous to
Q2) When you go outside,it is common to hear a variety of bird songs.These songs vary among bird species as well as bird flocks.Interestingly,some bird species that are highly unrelated have very similar song qualities.What can you conclude from this phenomenon?
A)The bird songs are homologous traits.
B)The bird songs have achieved speciation after coming from allopatric species.
C)The bird songs are analogous traits.
D)The bird songs have different molecular DNA.
Q3) Homology is evidence of ________.
A)convergent evolution
B)polyploidy
C)common ancestry
D)paedomorphosis
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16
Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following prokaryotes aid digestion in cattle,deer,and other animals that obtain nutrition from cellulose?
A)halophiles
B)dinoflagellates
C)methanogens
D)cocci
Q2) You discover a unicellular organism that moves by what appear to be pseudopodia.You conclude that this organism is ________.
A)either a type of amoeba or a type of slime mold
B)a type of bacterium
C)a type of alga
D)either a type of ciliate or a type of apicomplexan
Q3) In Yellowstone National Park,hot springs can reach temperatures of 205°F (96°C).Despite these high temperatures,Aquifex bacteria flourish.How might you classify Aquifex bacteria?
A)slime molds
B)extremophiles
C)amoebas
D)algae
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) In ________ the gametophyte is more obvious than the sporophyte.
A)conifers
B)mosses
C)grasses
D)ferns
Q2) Gametophytes are ________; sporophytes are ________.
A)male...female
B)an adaptation to an aquatic existence...an adaptation to a terrestrial existence
C)haploid...diploid
D)the dominant stage of the conifer life cycle...the less obvious stage of the conifer life cycle
Q3) What would NOT be an advantage of using oil from jatropha seeds?
A)The oil is considered a renewable resource.
B)The oil can be used for generating electricity.
C)The oil can be used as a biofuel.
D)Growing jatropha tress to produce oil may lower food production.
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18
Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Nearly all ________ are aquatic.
A)crustaceans
B)arachnids
C)flatworms
D)roundworms
Q2) According to this evolutionary tree,approximately how many years ago did humans and orangutans share a common ancestor?
A)1 million years ago
B)7 million years ago
C)12 million years ago
D)20 million years ago
Q3) Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?
A)butterfly
B)spoon
C)snowflake
D)shoe box
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Page 19
Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following is a behavioral response to environmental variability?
A)migrating to a different location
B)acclimation
C)endothermy
D)"flagging" by trees
Q2) What term applies to the physical and physiological changes experienced by astronauts who spend months in space?
A)acclimation
B)adaptation
C)camouflaging
D)flagging
Q3) What name is given to the region where sea meets land?
A)pelagic realm
B)intertidal zone
C)benthic realm
D)aphotic zone
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Q1) Which of these best describes Type III survivorship?
A)There is high survivorship for the very young.
B)Most individuals survive to older age intervals.
C)Survivorship is constant over the lifespan.
D)Survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age.
Q2) Species that exhibit an equilibrial life history typically ________.
A)have long lives
B)exhibit a Type III survivorship curve
C)exhibit a Type II survivorship curve
D)have a large number of offspring
Q3) If a population's growth rate decreases as the population size approaches carrying capacity,the population's growth follows a(n)________ model.
A)exponential
B)boom-and-bust
C)logistic
D)density-independent
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21
Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at ________.
A)protecting federally listed endangered species
B)countering pollution
C)sustaining entire ecosystems
D)maintaining genetic diversity within species
Q2) Which of these organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen gas to a form that can be utilized by plants?
A)bacteria
B)protists
C)animals
D)fungi
Q3) Small fishes that eat zooplankton are ________.
A)primary consumers
B)producers
C)tertiary consumers
D)secondary consumers
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Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Compare how temperature is regulated in a room with a thermostat with how thermoregulation works in the human body.What is most analogous to "Heating starts" (i.e.,heat is produced)for the human body?
A)Blood vessels constrict near the surface.
B)The person puts on more clothes.
C)Metabolic rate increases.
D)Sweat is produced.
Q2) Reabsorption is the movement of substances from the ________ to the ________.
A)blood...nephron
B)filtrate...blood
C)kidney...urinary bladder
D)blood...filtrate
Q3) Which of the following is a function of the kidneys? I)elimination of urea
II)reabsorption of valuable solutes
III)reabsorbing water
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)all of the above
23
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) ________ the direct source of energy for cells.
A)Fats are
B)Glucose is
C)ATP is
D)Amino acids are
Q2) Most humans need about ________ kcal per day.
A)500-700
B)1,300-1,800
C)2,500-3,000
D)20,000-30,000
Q3) The digestive sac of a jellyfish has ________ opening(s).
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
Q4) The tongue does all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)taste food
B)shape food into a ball
C)secrete saliva
D)push food into the pharynx
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) The basic rhythm of the heartbeat is set by the ________.
A)systolic pressure
B)EKG
C)sinoatrial node
D)"fight-or-flight" hormone
Q2) How does a shark's cardiovascular system differ from that of a mammal?
A)The shark's heart does not directly pump oxygenated blood to the systemic tissues.
B)The shark's heart receives both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
C)The shark's circulatory system has a pulmonary and a systemic circuit.
D)The shark's blood is pumped through open-ended tubes.
Q3) Why do cigarette smokers cough more than most people do?
A)The tar in cigarette smoke tends to make alveoli stick closed.Coughing opens them.
B)Coughing is the respiratory system's attempt to clear itself of the thick mucus that is produced in response to smoke exposure.
C)Cigarette smoking partially paralyzes the lungs; coughing exchanges the resultant "dead air."
D)Coughing stimulates blood flow to the lungs.
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Chapter 24: The Bodys Defenses
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Q1) Jonas Salk's polio vaccine trials of 1954 involved giving placebos to 201,229 children and the polio vaccine to 200,745 children.Out of the placebo group,142 children developed polio,whereas 57 children from the vaccine group developed polio.Approximately how many more times likely was a child to develop polio if he or she were NOT vaccinated?
A)thirty
B)ten
C)five
D)three
Q2) Histamine ________.
A)causes local blood vessels to dilate
B)attracts natural killer cells
C)stimulates the release of defensive proteins
D)repels phagocytic cells
Q3) Which of the following compounds do mast cells produce?
A)defensive proteins
B)antihistamines
C)histamine
D)antibodies
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Which of these is an example of the action of an endocrine disruptor?
A)BPA in bottles affects particular glands.
B)Feedback from estrogen inhibits FSH.
C)Lack of iodine prevents synthesis of adequate thyroid hormone.
D)Lowered levels of calcitonin causes increased bone density.
Q2) Which gland requires the element iodine to produce its hormones?
A)thyroid
B)pineal
C)anterior pituitary
D)ovary
Q3) Estrogens stimulate the development of ________.
A)breasts
B)a low-pitched voice
C)sperm production
D)facial hair
Q4) Hyposecretion of ________ may inhibit your response to stress.
A)ACTH
B)insulin
C)HGH
D)prolactin
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.
B)Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.
C)Tubal ligation prevents ovulation.
D)A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.
Q2) Researchers have found a general relationship between testicular cancer and exercise.Increased exercise is associated with a decrease in incidence of testicular cancer.However,a positive relationship (increased incidence of testicular cancer)was found between testicular cancer and riding bikes or horses.Several factors might be hypothesized to bring about this result.All but one of the following statements are reasonable hypotheses that researchers might follow to seek the cause for this relationship.Choose the exception.
A)Riding bikes or horses causes trauma to the testes.
B)The seat on bikes and the saddle on horses are made of material containing chemicals that damage testicular cells.
C)Riding bikes or horses increases scrotal temperature,which damages testicular cells.
D)Mutations that lead to testicular cancer make men more likely to ride bikes or horses.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Nervous,Sensory,and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) A person who cannot focus well on distant objects has ________.
A)farsightedness
B)nearsightedness
C)astigmatism
D)cataracts
Q2) In the nervous system,integration ________.
A)occurs at the axon
B)inevitably results in the attainment of a threshold potential
C)is the analysis and interpretation of sensory signals and the formulation of appropriate responses
D)is the assimilation of memories
Q3) Standing out in center field,the baseball player watches the hitter's bat strike the ball and then,slightly later,hears the sound of the impact.What types of sensory receptors did the player just use?
A)thermoreceptors and chemoreceptors
B)photoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
C)chemoreceptors and pain receptors
D)pain receptors and thermoreceptors
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) When a beaver is eating bark,what plant structures is it ingesting?
A)secondary phloem,cork cambium,and cork
B)secondary xylem,secondary phloem,and cork cambium
C)primary phloem,cortex,and endodermis
D)primary xylem,vascular cambium,and primary phloem
Q2) Which of the following describes the delivery of pollen to the stigma?
A)fertilization
B)double fertilization
C)germination
D)pollination
Q3) Which of the following constitute the shoot system of a plant? I)leaves
II)stems
III)roots
A)I only
B)I and II
C)II and III
D)I,II,and III
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the mechanism that causes stomata to open?
A)Water accumulates below the opening and eventually causes the stoma to open.
B)A large bubble of oxygen accumulates below the stoma and eventually causes it to open.
C)Two guard cells flanking each stoma control its opening by changing shape.
D)The internal pressure of xylem sap expands the leaf,stretching the stoma open.
Q2) Boysen-Jensen also used the mica to separate a tip of a grass shoot only partially,by cutting the tip halfway and inserting a wafer of mica into the cut.If this experiment supported the Darwins' hypothesis,what would Boysen-Jensen have observed?
A)The grass shoot would not grow toward a light.
B)The grass shoot would grow toward a light when the mica wafer was on the side of the grass that was facing the light.
C)The grass shoot would grow toward a light when the mica wafer was on the side of the grass that was shaded from the light.
D)The grass shoot would grow toward a light no matter which direction the light was coming from.
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