Australian Legal System
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
The Australian Legal System course offers a comprehensive introduction to the structure, sources, and key institutions of law in Australia. Students will explore the development of the Australian legal framework, including the roles of the Constitution, Parliament, and the courts. The course examines the distinction between common law and statute law, the processes of law-making, and the operation of federalism within Australia. Attention is given to the role of Indigenous legal traditions and the significance of international law in the domestic context. By the end of the course, students will have a foundational understanding of legal reasoning, court hierarchy, legal interpretation, and the principles that underpin justice in the Australian context.
Recommended Textbook Business Law 10th Australian Edition by Andy Gibson
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Chapter 1: Legal Foundations
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a main source of Australian law?
A)Case law which is found in decisions of the US Supreme Court.
B)Legislation which is passed by State and Commonwealth parliaments.
C)The common law and statute law of England that has not been repealed.
D)All of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) The decision of the High Court in the case Commonwealth v Tasmania (1983)158 CLR
1,was based upon which head of constitutional power?
A)The reserve power.
B)The external affairs power.
C)The environmental power.
D)The conciliation and arbitration power.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The law of Equity applies to all civil disputes.
B)The law of Equity only applies to criminal matters.
C)The law of Equity does not apply to all criminal matters.
D)The law of Equity does not apply to all civil disputes.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Legal Systems
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Q1) The role of the Jury is to decide matters of fact.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) Police are community guardians of the peace.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) The Jury decides questions of law while the Judge decides all questions of fact.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What is the meaning of the term 'court hierarchy'?
A)A tiered court system within each particular jurisdiction.
B)The horizontal arrangement of courts within Australia.
C)A vertical system of appellate courts.
D)The supreme courts of the various states and territories.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: How Law Is Made: Precedentstatute Law
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Q1) A persuasive precedent is binding on lower courts within the same hierarchy.?VARIANT VARIANT
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Explain fully the importance of the doctrine of ratio decidendi and obiter dicta. Answer: The legal reasoning upon which the decision in that case was based may be used by judges in future cases when confronted with similar facts.This is known as the ratio decidendi,the 'reason for deciding.' The ratio decidendi is the basis for the doctrine of precedent.Only the ratio is capable of creating a binding precedent.Anything said about the law in the course of a judgment that does not form part of the matters at issue is called obiter dicta,'sayings along the way.' These are not binding.However,they can exercise an extremely strong influence in a lower court and even in a court of equivalent standing.In such circumstances,they are said to create a persuasive precedent.
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Chapter 4: Civil Liability: the Law of Torts and Negligence
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement about the difference between tort law and criminal law?
A)An action in tort is taken by the victim,criminal action is taken by the state.
B)Tort law is private,criminal law is public law.
C)Tort law is a state matter,criminal law is a federal matter.
D)Tort law compensates,criminal law punishes.
Q2) The reasonable person test,in the case of children,gives way to the standard of a child of similar age and experience.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Graham Barclay Oysters Pty Ltd v Ryan (2002)194 ALR 337,which of the following were held to be liable for breach of duty of care?
A)The respondent,Ryan.
B)The Great Lakes Council.
C)The Government of New South Wales.
D)None of the above.
Q4) Describe the difference between tort law and contract law.
Q5) Define a tort.
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Chapter 5: Applications of Negligence to Business
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Q1) A prosecution for criminal negligence means a civil action cannot be taken.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to succeed in an action against an occupier,the plaintiff does not have to establish that the defendant has occupation as long as ownership can be established.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Deatons v Flew (1949)79 CLR 370,why was the hotelier NOT liable to the injured customer?
A)Because the barmaid lost her temper.
B)Because the injured customer had provoked the barmaid and was contributorily negligent.
C)Because the barmaid's actions were outside the scope of her employment.
D)Because the barmaid was not an employee.
Q4) A person who suffers injury as a result of a defective product may take action in negligence or under consumer protection legislation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Introduction to Contracts
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Q1) A contract for the sale of land that is not evidenced in writing will be:
A)void.
B)unenforceable.
C)voidable.
D)executory.
Q2) Which of the following statements is the best description of a 'voidable' contract?
A)The contract remains valid and binding unless and until it is repudiated by the injured party.
B)There are no legal rights or obligations from the outset,and the contract cannot be enforced by either party.
C)While the contract is valid on its face,no legal action can be brought on it.
D)The purpose of the contract contravenes a statute or the common law.
Q3) The decision in Lee Road Pty Ltd v Catanzariti & Anor [2005] SADC 64 was that an exchange of faxes was sufficient to satisfy the requirement for written evidence of a contract.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the elements that are necessary for the creation of a valid simple contract?
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Chapter 7: Agreement Between the Parties
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Q1) Explain the difference between an offer and an invitation to treat.
Q2) It is essential to determine whether an agreement exists because:
A)a contract comes into existence once agreement is reached.
B)the terms and conditions agreed to create legally enforceable rights.
C)it helps to determine the time and place of the contract.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a valid acceptance to an offer?
A)The acceptance must be absolute and unqualified.
B)The acceptance must be expressed verbally or in writing.
C)The acceptance must be strictly in accordance with the terms of the offer.
D)The acceptance must be made in reliance on the offer.
Q4) What are the scenarios in which an offer may be terminated?
Q5) In Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Co [1893] 1 QB 256,the advertisement placed by the company was:
A)an offer.
B)a statement of intention.
C)an invitation to treat.
D)none of the above.
Q6) Describe an option contract's main objective and the requirements for creating one.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Intention to Create Legal Relations
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Q1) The decision in Jones v Vernon Pools Ltd [1938] All ER 626 was based on the fact that:
A)the agreement was a social one.
B)the agreement was 'subject to contract.'
C)the ticket had been lost.
D)the coupon contained an 'honour clause.'
Q2) The intention of the advertiser should be properly reflected in the advertisement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In Shortall v White [2007] NSWCA 272 the presumption against intention was rebutted because:
A)the parties had separated at the time.
B)the agreement would have been against public policy.
C)the promise was made before the relationship had broken down.
D)the promise was made before they were married.
Q4) The law presumes that in social agreements the parties intend to create legal relations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Consideration
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Q1) Is it possible for past consideration to be good consideration?
Q2) A promise to accept a lesser sum in satisfaction of a greater sum will be enforceable if it is contained in a deed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the best example of executed consideration?
A)A pays B $10.00 today in return for B giving A a book today.
B)A promises to pay B $10.00 tomorrow in return for B giving A a book tomorrow.
C)A promises to pay B $10.00 tomorrow in return for B giving A a book yesterday.
D)All of the above.
Q4) In which of the following cases was the plaintiff successful on the basis of promissory estoppel?
A)East Van Villages v Minister Administrating the National Parks and Wildlife [2001] NSWSC 559.
B)Giumelli v Giumelli (1999)196 CLR 101.
C)Austotel Pty Ltd v Franklins Selfservice Pty Ltd (1989)16 NSWLR 582.
D)None of the above.
Q5) A moral consideration cannot amount to good consideration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Capacity of the Parties
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Q1) The beneficiaries in O'Connor v Hart [1985] 1 NZLR 159 were unable to have the contract set aside because:
A)The beneficiaries were not mentally unsound.
B)The beneficiaries were not aware that the farmer was mentally unsound.
C)The beneficiaries could not establish that Hart was mentally unsound and that the other party was aware or should have been aware of this.
D)None of the above.
Q2) Under the NSW Act,which of the following factors is NOT important when considering what is for the minors benefit?
A)The type of transaction.
B)The fairness of the bargain.
C)How the minor pays for their good or service.
D)The age of the infant.
Q3) A contract with a minor which has no legal effect on either party is called:
A)a voidable contract.
B)a void contract.
C)a good contract.
D)a valid contract.
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Chapter 11: Genuine Consent
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Q1) Which of the following statements is the best description of a 'fraudulent' misrepresentation?
A)Silence or non-disclosure about a fact which creates a false impression.
B)A false statement of fact made with the belief that it is true,which the other person relies upon and suffers loss.
C)A false statement of fact made knowingly,which the other person relies upon and suffers loss.
D)A false statement of fact made carelessly,which the other person relies upon and suffers loss.
Q2) In order to succeed in an action in negligent misrepresentation,what must the plaintiff establish in a court?
Q3) Which of the following statements is the best description of 'unconscionability'?
A)The improper use of fraudulent information.
B)The improper use of violence or of threats of violence to induce a contract.
C)The improper use of a position of influence or power to induce a contract.
D)The improper use of a superior bargaining position to induce a contract.
Q4) Explain the difference between duress and undue influence.
Q5) Explain the difference between innocent and fraudulent misrepresentation.
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Chapter 12: Is the Contract Legal
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Q1) In which of the following cases did the court decide that the contract was valid but illegal as performed?
A)St John Shipping Corporation v Joseph Rank Ltd [1957] 1 QB 267.
B)Pham v.Doan [2005] NSWSC 201.
C)Anderson Ltd v Daniel [1924] 1 KB 138.
D)Yango Pastoral Company Pty Ltd v First Chicago Australia Ltd [1978] HCA 42.
Q2) At common law,a restraint of trade clause will be enforced if it is reasonable in the circumstances.If you were drafting legislation intended to enact this common law principle,how would you define the term 'reasonable'?
Q3) A restraint of trade contract will be void if:
A)the time for which the restraint is to apply is too long.
B)the geographical extent of the restraint is too wide.
C)the restraint does not apply to a proprietary interest of the person applying the restraint.
D)any of the above.
Q4) An employee in possession of secret information belonging to their employer is under a duty to keep it secret.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Terms of the Contract
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Q1) If a document containing an exclusion clause is not signed,the clause will not apply.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If one of the parties had a specific skill or knowledge with regard to the subject matter of the contract,then a statement is probably a term.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why was the plaintiff bound by the exclusion clause in the case of: L'Estrange v Graucob Ltd [1934] 2 KB 394?
A)Because the clause applied to the damage that occurred.
B)Because the clause was explained to them.
C)Because the clause was contained in a written document signed by the plaintiff.
D)Because of previous dealings between the parties.
Q4) In order for a party to rely on an exclusion clause in a contract,what must they show?
Q5) Explain how the courts decide between a mere representation and a term.
Q6) Define a condition and a warranty,and identify their differences.
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Chapter 14: Rights and Liabilities of the Parties,discharge and Remedies
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Q1) If there has been substantial performance of the contract,the doctrine of substantial performance may permit the defaulting party to still obtain the contract price.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A waiver is where one party leads the other to reasonably believe that strict performance will not be insisted upon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An assignment of a debt at common law:
A)requires clear evidence of intention plus consideration from the assignee to the assignor.
B)is impossible because it is prohibited.
C)requires notice to the debtor plus consideration from the assignee to the assignor.
D)stipulates that an assignment in writing signed by the assignor.
Q4) Use practical examples to illustrate each of the four circumstances in which incomplete performance of your obligations under a contract legally and fairly gives rise to a right to at least partial payment.
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Chapter 15: Remedies in Contract
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Q1) The main purpose of damages is to enable the innocent party to receive monetary compensation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The case of Hadley v Baxendale (1854)9 Ex 341 is authority for the principle that breach of contract entitles a plaintiff to:
A)damages which are a natural consequence of the breach or expressly bought to the attention of the defendant.
B)damages that are a reasonably direct consequence of the breach of contract.
C)damages that are reasonably foreseeable based on the actual or constructive knowledge of the defendant.
D)all of the above.
Q3) In Commonwealth of Australia v Amann Aviation Pty Ltd (1991)104 ALR 1,the court ordered the Commonwealth to:
A)pay exemplary damages.
B)mitigate the loss suffered by Amman.
C)pay damages for expectation and reliance losses.
D)perform the contract.
Q4) Define penalty and discuss its purpose.
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Chapter 16: Statutory Consumer Guarantees and the Australian Consumer Law
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Q1) The legal obligation to ensure that spare parts and repair facilities are reasonably available to consumers applies to both suppliers and manufacturers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In relation to the consumer guarantee of fitness for purpose,which of the following statements is NOT true?
A)The goods must be supplied in trade of commerce.
B)The consumer must,either expressly or by implication,make known the intended purpose of the goods.
C)The consumer must rely on the skill and judgment of the supplier.
D)The consumer must request the goods under their trade name or patent.
Q3) To which of the following services do the consumer guarantees relating to the supply of services apply?
A)Doctors.
B)Architects.
C)Contracts of insurance.
D)All of the above.
Q4) How does a sale by sample differ from a sale by description?
Q5) Under the Australian Consumer Law,who is a consumer?
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Chapter 17: General and Specific Consumer Protections
Under the Acl
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Q1) Allegations of a breach of a specific unfair practices section of the Australian Consumer Law will often also involve a breach of the general prohibition in s 18 for misleading and deceptive conduct.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Nationwide News Pty Ltd v ACCC [1997] ATPR 41-543 an advertisement offering a 'free mobile for every reader' was found to be a false or misleading representation because:
A)the advertisement contained conditions which required readers to enter into a service contract at a substantial cost.
B)the conditions were in smaller print than the offer itself and therefore less likely to be noticed.
C)in fact the offer of the mobile was not free.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Section 82 of the Australian Consumer Law gives customers a 30-day cool off period during which a consumer may terminate an unsolicited agreement.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Companies and Incorporated
Associations
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a requirement which must be satisfied before a company can buy back shares from its members?
A)The share capital reduction must not materially prejudice the company's ability to pay its creditors.
B)The share capital reduction must be approved by shareholders.
C)The share capital reduction must be approved by the court.
D)The share capital reduction must be fair and reasonable to the company's shareholders as a whole.
Q2) In which of the following situations will a director have breached their duty to exercise their powers for a proper purpose?
A)The director has put themselves in a situation where their duties to the company and their personal duties conflict.
B)The director has agreed to vote in a certain way at future board meetings.
C)The director has done something which no reasonable director could regard as being in the interests of the company.
D)The director has exercised one of their powers primarily in order to gain some private advantage.
Q3) What are the duties of company directors?
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Chapter 18: Agency
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Q1) In the event of an agent's breach,rescission is a possible remedy for the principal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where a principal,by words or conduct,creates the appearance of an agency that is reality does not exist,this is an example of:
A)implied actual authority.
B)express actual authority.
C)retrospective actual authority.
D)apparent or ostensible authority.
Q3) A del credere agent is a general agent who buys and sells without having possession or control of the goods or their documents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Agency is a fiduciary relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how an agency relationship can be terminated.
Q6) Explain the meaning of 'agent of necessity' and give two examples.
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Chapter 20: Partnerships
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Q1) Why was the partnership found to be liable in the case of Polkinghorne v Holland [1934] HCA 28?
A)The negligent advice was given within the normal course of the business of the partnership.
B)The negligent advice was given outside the partnership's business.
C)The negligent advice was not given within the normal course of the business of the partnership.
D)The negligent advice was given by a partner in the partnership without a disclaimer.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an essential element for the creation of a partnership?
A)The partners must be carrying on a business in common.
B)The business must be carried on by or on behalf of all the partners.
C)The partnership must be registered with the Australian Securities and Investments Commission (ASI
D)The partners must intend to make a profit.
Q3) Is it necessary for a partnership to advise customers when a partner retires?
Q4) A partnership is automatically dissolved if one of the partners dies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Choosing a Business Entity
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Q1) Which of the following statements about a sole trader is NOT true?
A)Most small businesses fail within the first five years of their establishment.
B)The death of the sole trader usually means the death of the business.
C)The degree of personal involvement by the sole trader can make the business difficult to sell.
D)Sole traders have limited liability for the debts of the business.
Q2) What is the purpose of registering a business name?
Q3) Which of the following statements about a partnership is NOT true?
A)Partners must keep their capital separate for tax purposes.
B)It can be difficult to sell a share in a partnership.
C)Partners are unable to contract with the firm.
D)Partnerships can be cheap and quick to establish.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT one of the duties of a trustee?
A)Preserve the trust property.
B)Indemnify the beneficiaries for any losses.
C)Act in accordance with the trust.
D)Avoid conflict of interest and personal benefit.
Q5) A trustee is a person who benefits under the trust.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Other Business-Related Torts
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Q1) Which of the following statements is the best description of 'Assault'?
A)An intentional act which causes another to reasonably believe that they are in imminent danger of harmful or offensive contact.
B)An intentional or negligent act which brings about an immediate or direct harmful or offensive contact to another.
C)An intentional,direct and total restraint upon the liberty of another.
D)A statement made to another in a way that is intended to cause physical injury to them and that does in fact cause a reasonably foreseeable physical harm to them.
Q2) False imprisonment involves the unlawful restraint of a person's freedom in such a way that the person has no reasonable means of escape.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The tort of conspiracy involves intentional or unintentional injury to the plaintiff. A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the meaning of private nuisance and what the plaintiff must prove to succeed.
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Chapter 23: Insurance
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Q1) Carla insures her residence for $300,000 when it is in fact worth $500,000.If the contract contains a 'subject to average' clause and a fire causes $100,000 worth of damage,how much is the insurer obliged to pay?
A)$75,000.
B)$60,000.
C)$100,000.
D)$80,000.
Q2) In a contract of insurance,the offer is accepted when:
A)the insurer sends the insured a proposal form (acceptance)following the insured's request (offer).
B)the insured completes and submits (acceptance)the proposal form sent out by the insurer (offer).
C)the insurer issues a cover note (acceptance)following the insured's request (offer).
D)the insurer accepts the proposal (acceptance)submitted by the insured (offer).
Q3) Insurance aims to protect parties by spreading risk.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the purpose of a cover note.
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Chapter 24: Sale of Goodsbusiness to Business
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Q1) When will the remedy of 'Specific Performance' be available to a buyer of goods?
A)Where the goods were common such as material used to make garments.
B)Where the goods were under a value of $5,000.
C)Where the goods were rare.
D)Where the goods were perishable.
Q2) An unpaid seller has rights against the goods and against the buyer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is the Sale of Goods legislation limited with respect to consumer protection?
A)The legislation only applies to contracts for the sale of goods and services.
B)The legislation has been made irrelevant by the Competition and Consumer Act 2010 (Cth).
C)The legislation is UK law and does not apply in Australia.
D)The implied conditions and warranties can be excluded by a clause in the contract.
Q4) What are unascertained goods?
Q5) Now that the Competition and Consumer Act 2010 (Cth)contains the major consumer protection provisions,what do you perceive to be the major benefits in a contract for the sale of goods of the various state Sale of Goods acts?
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Chapter 25: Property and Mortgages
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Q1) In the context of property law,which of the following is the best definition of the term: 'property'?
A)The rights or ownership of an object.
B)Possession or physical control of an object.
C)Land and anything fixed to it.
D)Real property.
Q2) An agreement for lease must contain which of the following terms?
A)Details of the consideration to be paid.
B)The date of commencement and term of the lease.
C)A description of the parties and the property being leased.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Indefeasibility of title means that the registered proprietor holds the land free from all registered interests.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is an equitable,rather than a legal mortgage?
A)A registered mortgage of Torrens title land.
B)A conveyance of common law system land to the mortgagee.
C)An unregistered mortgage of Torrens title land.
D)None of the above.
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Chapter 26: Intellectual Property
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Q1) What was the reason for the decision in Francesco Cinzano and Cia (Aust)Pty Ltd v Ruggiero (No.2)(1980)25 SASR 341?
A)Simply using the brand name or trade mark of another business is not sufficient to establish the tort of passing off.
B)There was no reasonable possibility of the public being deceived by the use of the plaintiff's name.
C)The difference in the nature of the two businesses was substantial.
D)All of the above.
Q2) A trade mark is used to indicate a connection between:
A)a product and a particular location.
B)manufacturers and retailers.
C)a manufacturer and a particular location.
D)a business and their product.
Q3) Protection under the Copyright Act 1968 (Cth)does not extend to include computer programs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Contrast an infringement of a registered trademark with an action in passing off.
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Chapter 27: Ethics and Business Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between the letter and the spirit of the law is a moral or ethical question.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A business can invest in both a socially responsible as well as socially irresponsible manner.Describe and provide examples of both types of investing.
Q3) An ethical investor invests in companies:
A)Whose directors have studied ethics.
B)Who operate ethically.
C)Whose shareholders behave ethically.
D)Who are regulated by ethical laws.
Q4) Which ethical theory evaluates behaviour according to the consequences of that behaviour?
A)Moral relativism.
B)Virtue ethics.
C)Deontological ethics.
D)Utilitarianism.
Q5) Explain an advantage associated with ethical business practices?
Q6) Describe the ethical considerations and duties of businesses in today's society?
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Chapter 28: Criminal Law in a Business Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an element of insider trading?
A)The use of price sensitive information which is not publicly available.
B)The use of price sensitive information.
C)The theft of confidential information.
D)The use of information gained as a result of a connection with a company.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a distinction between civil and criminal law?
A)There is no need to establish a mens rea in a civil case.
B)A crime is punished,civil action results in a remedy.
C)A crime is prosecuted by the state,civil action is taken by an individual.
D)In both cases,once judgement is obtained it will be enforced by the state.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage for an accused having a criminal matter dealt with summarily?
A)The matter will be dealt with more quickly.
B)The penalty imposed may be lower.
C)An acquittal by the magistrate cannot be appealed by the Crown.
D)It is cheaper to have the matter dealt with in a lower court.
Q4) A person who has stolen confidential information or secret formulas has committed the crime of industrial sabotage.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Competition Law
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Q1) How can the restrictive trade practices provisions of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010 (Cth)be reconciled with the liberal notion of a free market?
Q2) Which of the following is the definition of 'market' given by s 4E of the Competition and Consumer Act 2010 (Cth)?
A)An area of close competition between firms.
B)A market in Australia for goods or services and other goods or services which can be substituted for the first mentioned goods and services.
C)An area of actual and potential transactions between buyers and sellers amongst whom there can be strong rivalry.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Employers frequently use secondary boycott provisions as a way to resolve industrial conflicts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A voluntary industry code regulates the conduct of parties who have agreed to sign up to them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Insolvency and Debt Recovery
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Q1) Judgment is an order of the court stating that a person is insolvent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Arrangements under Part X of the Bankruptcy Act 1966 (Cth):
A)are not enforceable by the creditors.
B)are made under the supervision of the Official Trustee in Bankruptcy.
C)are made without the intervention of the court.
D)are made as part of the bankruptcy process.
Q3) In what way is a Part IX arrangement a preferable course of action for a person facing bankruptcy?
Q4) A creditor's petition sets the date of commencement of a bankruptcy as:
A)the date the creditor's petition is filed with the court.
B)the date the debtor is notified of the sequestration order.
C)the date of the earliest act of bankruptcy by the debtor in the six months preceding the date of the creditor's petition.
D)the date of the latest act of bankruptcy by the debtor in the six months preceding the date of the creditor's petition.
Q5) What are the three main aims of the Bankruptcy Act 1966 (Cth)?
Q6) What are the ways in which a person can become bankrupt?
Page 32
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Chapter 31: The Work Environment and the Employment Relationship
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Q1) Which of the following journeys are considered to be incidental to the employment relationship under the state workers' compensation legislation?
A)Journeys to or from medical attention and medical consultations.
B)Journeys to and from the workers home and their place of employment for the purpose of receiving wages.
C)Journeys from trade,technical or other training school.
D)All of the above.
Q2) The worker's compensations schemes are based on the laws of negligence. A)True
B)False
Q3) In Australia,employment relationships are subject to:
A)common law and state legislation.
B)common law and federal legislation.
C)state legislation and federal legislation.
D)common law,state legislation,and federal legislation.
Q4) The unfair dismissal provisions of the Fair Work Act 2009 (Cth)do not apply to small business employers.
A)True
B)False
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