Astronomy for Non-Science Majors Test
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Course Introduction
Astronomy for Non-Science Majors is an introductory course designed to provide students with a broad understanding of the universe, its structure, and the fundamental principles governing celestial phenomena. Through a combination of lectures, visual aids, and observational activities, the course covers topics such as the solar system, stars, galaxies, cosmology, and the tools and methods used by astronomers. Emphasis is placed on making complex scientific concepts accessible, fostering an appreciation for the scope and scale of the cosmos, and discussing the impact of astronomical discoveries on human understanding and culture. No prior scientific background is required, and course material is tailored to engage students from diverse academic disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
HorizonsExploring the Universe 14th Edition by Michael A. Seeds
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Here and Now
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Milky Way Galaxy is
A)a spiral galaxy.
B)part of a cluster of galaxies that contains a few dozen galaxies.
C)about 80,000 light years in diameter.
D)All of the other choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) The average distance from Earth to the Sun is
A)1 ly.
B)1 million km.
C)1 million miles.
D)1 billion km.
E)150 million km.
Answer: E
Q3) The Sun is
A)a star which generates its own energy.
B)1 AU from Earth.
C)visible by its own light emission.
D)All of the other choices are correct.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: A Users Guide to the Sky
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Sample Questions
Q1) The star Vega has an apparent visual magnitude of 0.03 and the star HR 4374 has an apparent visual magnitude of 4.87. It has been determined that both stars are at the same distance from Earth. What does this information tell us about the two stars
A)Vega must be closer to Earth than HR 4374.
B)Vega must be farther from Earth than HR 4374.
C)Vega must produce less energy per second than HR 4374.
D)Vega must produce more energy per second than HR 4374.
E)Vega will appear fainter to us than HR 4374.
Answer: D
Q2) Polaris is a second magnitude star, and Phi Pegasi is about 16 times fainter than Polaris. What is the approximate magnitude of Phi Pegasi
A)18
B) 14
C)3
D) 3
E)5
Answer: E
Q3) Less formally defined groupings of stars are called __________________. Answer: asterisms
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cycles of the Sun and Moon
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Sample Questions
Q1) The planet(s) of our solar system that are usually or never visible to the naked eye are
A)Mars.
B)Mercury and Neptune.
C)Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
D)Uranus and Neptune.
E)Mercury and Venus.
Answer: D
Q2) The ____________________ period (or "month") of the Moon is the time required for one revolution of the Moon around Earth with respect to the stars.
Answer: sidereal
Q3) The ____ Moon is visible above the eastern horizon a couple of hours before sunrise.
A)waning gibbous
B)waxing gibbous
C)waxing crescent
D)waning crescent
E)new
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Origin of Modern Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object in orbit around Earth
A)is not experiencing gravity.
B)is in free fall.
C)is accelerating towards Earth.
D)is in free fall and is accelerating toward Earth.
Q2) Kepler's second law of planetary motion states that the orbits of the planets are ellipses with the Sun at one focus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a satellite is in orbit around Earth and the satellite's altitude is decreased, then the circular velocity __________________.
A)decreases
B)increases
C)stays the same
D)is zero
Q4) A geocentric universe is Sun centered.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Galileo discovered ____ new planets called 'Galilean moons.'
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Chapter 5: Light and Telescopes
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Q1) The main reason for building large optical telescopes on Earth's surface is
A)that there is a lot of money in science that needs to get spent.
B)to collect as much light as possible from faint objects.
C)to nullify the blurring effects of the Earth's atmosphere and thus produce higher resolution images.
D)to bring astronomical objects closer to make them brighter.
E)that the warm temperatures of the Earth's surface allow for easier telescope operation.
Q2) Which of the items below is electromagnetic radiation
A)gamma rays
B)X-rays
C)visible light
D)radio
E)All of the other choices are correct.
Q3) The light-gathering power of a telescope increases as the size of the objective increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process of combining signals from separate telescopes to improve resolution is called ____________________.
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Chapter 6: Atoms and Spectra
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____________ will be obtained from an observed star's spectrum that has been shifted towards shorter wavelengths as the star is moving ________ us.
Q2) A zero Kelvin temperature is also known as ________________________.
Q3) The wavelength of the hydrogen line from level 1 to level 2 in a hot star is ____________ the wavelength of the same line in a cool star. The stars have the same radial velocities away from Earth.
A)larger than B)the same as C)smaller than D)not enough information to answer
Q4) Where are neutrons found in the hydrogen atom
A)nucleus
B)cloud surrounding the nucleus
C)outside the atom
D)None of the other choices are correct.
Q5) The flow of energy is always from hot to cold and is called ___________.
Q6) ____________________ is a measure of the amount of energy due to the motion of the particles in a gas, liquid, or solid.
Q7) The ____________________ of a star can be determined from its color.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effects does solar activity have on Earth
Q2) The solar neutrino experiments detect about twice as many neutrinos as theory predicts should be detected.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The proton-proton chain
A)combines two hydrogen nuclei to produce a single helium nucleus and energy.
B)splits a helium nucleus to produce 4 hydrogen nuclei and energy.
C)is the mechanism that increases the temperature between the photosphere and corona of the Sun.
D)is the interactions between protons in Earth's atmosphere that produces auroras.
E)produces energy in the core of the Sun in the form of gamma rays, positrons, and neutrinos.
Q4) Energy flows from hot to cold and thus from the core to the surface of the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how a photon is generated in the core of the Sun and how it is transported out from the Sun.
Q6) What is the Babcock model
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Family of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) White dwarfs have such a low luminosity that even the nearest white dwarfs are not visible to the naked eye.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A star whose parallax is 0.01 seconds arc is at a distance of 1000 pc.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The total mass of the pair of stars in spectroscopic binaries are difficult to estimate because
A)we can't measure the radial velocities of each star in the system.
B)we can't see the shape or tilt of the orbit.
C)we can't find the diameters of the stars.
D)we can't determine the luminosities of the stars.
E)the Doppler shift is not measurable.
Q4) We know the white dwarf star Sirius B has a mass comparable to the Sun because A)of its measured color.
B)of its measured temperature compared to Sirius A.
C)it is part of binary star system with Sirius A.
Q5) The masses and diameters of each star in a binary can be determined from ____________________ binaries.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Formation and Structure of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following energy transport processes involves mass motions of material
A)radiation
B)conduction
C)convection
D)All of the other choices are correct.
Q2) ____________________ is the resistance of a gas to the flow of radiation.
Q3) Star clusters are important to the study the stellar evolution because stars in a given cluster have the same A)temperature.
B)mass.
C)age.
D)luminosity.
Q4) The above image is an example of a/an _________ nebula.
A)dark
B)emission
C)Bok globule
D)reflection
Q5) How long a star can remain on the main sequence depends upon its __________.
Q6) What observations demonstrate the existence of an interstellar medium
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Chapter 10: The Deaths of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ particles were observed coming from supernova 1987A, confirming models and theories of core collapse formation of neutron stars.
Q2) What nuclear fusion mechanism does an isolated white dwarf use to generate energy
A)proton-proton chain
B)CNO cycle
C)triple alpha process
D)white dwarfs don't generate their own energy.
Q3) A(n) ____________________ is the expulsion of the outer layers of a moderate-mass star that has a degenerate carbon and oxygen core.
Q4) What properties of degenerate matter are important to the structure of stars Why
Q5) Why can't lower-main-sequence stars become giant stars
Q6) Once a star ejects a planetary nebula, it becomes a white dwarf.
A)True B)False
Q7) The helium flash is the cause of some supernovae. A)True B)False
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Q8) ___________ clusters are compact, round, and red, containing mostly old stars.
Chapter 11: Neutron Stars and Black Holes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The peculiar system SS 433
I.is emitting beams of energy and matter.
II.is producing a spectrum with both a red and a blue shift.
III.probably contains an accretion disk.
IV.is the result of a planetary nebula.
A)I
B)III
C)II & III
D)I, II, & III
E)I, II, III, & IV
Q2) None of the pulsars emit pulses of visible light because A)pulsars are too hot to emit visible light.
B)pulsars contain black holes that won't let visible light escape.
C)the gravitational field of a pulsar is so great that the visible light emitted is redshifted. D)pulsars are too far away for the visible light to be bright enough to be detected at Earth.
E)A few pulsars do emit visible light pulses.
Q3) Why do we not expect to find a 5-solar-mass neutron star
Q4) An object of zero radius is known as a __________________.
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Chapter 12: The Milky Way Galaxy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The orbits of population I stars
I.are confined to disk of the galaxy.
II.are very elliptical.
III.are nearly circular.
IV.are randomly inclined to the disk of the galaxy.
A)I
B)IV
C)I & IV
D)II & IV
E)I & III
Q2) The Sun is located near a spiral arm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Any element heavier than helium is collectively referred to as a _______________.
Q4) As viewed from above or face-on, a ____________ spiral galaxy has many branches and spurs, making the arms less discernible.
Q5) The production of elements heavier than helium by fusion in stars and during supernova explosions is called ______________________.
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Chapter 13: Galaxies: Normal and Active
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Sample Questions
Q1) ___________ have elongated nuclei with spiral structure extending from the ends of the elongations. The Milky Way is a member of this class of galaxy.
A)Spiral galaxies
B)Barred spiral galaxies
C)Elliptical galaxies
D)Irregular galaxies
E)S0 galaxies
Q2) From nearest to furthest from Earth, list the distance indicators and which type of object is best found at that distant indicator.
Q3) The above visual wavelength image is of a/an ____________-type galaxy.
A)S0
B)elliptical
C)barred spiral
D)spiral (non-barred)
Q4) The rapid fluctuations of quasars show that the energy emitting portions of these objects must be very small.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the rotation curve method differ from the analysis of binary stars
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Chapter 14: Modern Cosmology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the density of the universe equals the critical density, then the Universe must be ___________ (i.e., having zero curvature).
Q2) How long is one Hubble time
A)1/4 the age of the Universe
B)1/2 the age of the Universe
C)the age of the Universe
D)double the age of the Universe
Q3) Describe how we know that the expansion rate of the Universe is currently accelerating.
Q4) How might we tell whether the Universe is open or closed
Q5) Which of the following is NOT true about the above graph
A)Helium was formed early in the universe but the universe became too cool for the fusion to continue.
B)Recombination occurs at a lower temperature than electron-positron annihilation.
C)A time existed where neither radiation nor matter dominated in the universe.
D)Temperature increases with time.
Q6) Deuterium and lithium-7 are part of the 4.5% normal matter.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Origin of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The solar system contains no extrasolar planets.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The condensation sequence cannot explain the composition of the terrestrial and Jovian planets.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The adding of material an atom at a time to create a solid grain or flake is the process of ____________.
Q4) If a star is found with five planets orbiting it, and a process like that described in the solar nebula theory formed the planets, which of the planets would be expected to have the greatest uncompressed density
A)The one farthest from the star.
B)The one with the greatest mass.
C)The one with the greatest radius.
D)The one closest to the star.
E)The one that has liquid water on its surface.
Q5) Violent impacts of infalling particles release energy called ____________.
Q6) Describe four effects that helped to clear the solar nebula.
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Chapter 16: Earth and Moon: Bases for Comparative Planetology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes erosion
A)wind
B)water
C)glacier ice
D)all of the other choices.
Q2) Why is the ozone layer in Earth's atmosphere important to life on its surface
Q3) What is the above graph showing
A)when the ozone hole formed
B)how the industrial revolution contributed to global warming
C)how the industrial revolution contributed to greenhouses gasses in Earth's atmosphere
D)None of the other choices are correct.
Q4) Three major greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere are ___________, ___________, and ____________, but ____________ is believed to contribute most to global warming.
Q5) Earth and the Moon could not have condensed from the same materials because they have different densities and compositions.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the four stages in the development of a terrestrial planet. Page 18
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Chapter 17: Mercury, Venus, and Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which Terrestrial planet has the largest moon or moons relative to the planet circled
A)Mercury
B)Venus
C)Earth
D)Mars
Q2) The two moons of Mars are known as ____________________ and ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following supports the idea that the Martian crust is not divided into moving plates like those on Earth
I.the size of Olympus Mons
II.the lack of folded mountain chains
III.the lack of rift valleys outlining entire plates
IV.the presence of dry river beds and sea floors
A)I & II
B)II & III
C)II, III & IV
D)I, II, & III
E)I, II, III, & IV
Q4) The terrestrial planet with the most moons is ____________________.
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Chapter 18: The Outer Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the possible history of a typical Plutino as astronomers now believe it occurred.
Q2) Saturn is less dense than Jupiter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is one possible reasons Jupiter and Saturn radiate more energy than they receive from the Sun
A)Magnetic and electric fields heat the planet.
B)Fusion reactions of hydrogen into helium inside the planet provide an additional heat source.
C)The planets are still radiating heat from when they first formed.
D)Friction between the planet and its moons heat the planet.
Q4) The rings of Neptune contain lots of dust as indicated by forward-scattering light. A)True
B)False
Q5) The region of Jupiter that is responsible for the magnetic field is composed of
Q6) What observations suggest that Triton has had an active crust
Q7) Discuss why astronomers no longer consider Pluto a planet.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Meteorites, Asteroids, and Comets
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meteorites seem to be primarily composed of material very similar to the material in asteroids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) ____________ is produced when Earth passes through the debris left by a comet when it passed through the inner solar system.
Q3) What processes cause the difference in appearance between gas tails and dust tails in comets
Q4) The meteors in meteor showers are believed to be the debris left behind in comet orbits.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Jupiter was probably influential in preventing the formation of a planet at the present location of the asteroid belt.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Achondrites are rich in volatiles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Astrobiology: Life on Other Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is coiled into a tight spiral and makes up the ____________ that are the genetic material in a cell.
A)genes
B)amino acids
C)enzymes
D)nucleus
E)chromosomes
Q2) The most likely region of the radio spectrum for communication with other civilizations is the water hole, the part of the spectrum
A)near the radio emission of water.
B)near the radio emission of oxygen molecules.
C)between the radio emissions of hydrogen and oxygen.
D)between the radio emissions of hydrogen and OH.
E)near the radio band where water in the Earth's atmosphere strongly absorbs energy.
Q3) The Viking landers searched for life on ____________.
Q4) List three celestial objects in our solar system that may be good candidates for life and explain why.
Q5) The Miller experiment succeeded in creating ____________.
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