
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Aquatic Ecology explores the complex relationships and interactions among organisms and their environments within freshwater and marine ecosystems. The course examines the physical, chemical, and biological processes that shape the structure and function of lakes, rivers, wetlands, and oceans. Topics include nutrient cycling, food webs, primary productivity, community dynamics, and the impacts of human activities on aquatic systems. Students will develop skills in ecological analysis and field methods, gaining a comprehensive understanding of how aquatic ecosystems operate and the challenges they face in a changing world.
Recommended Textbook
Ecology Concepts and Applications 5th Edition by Manuel Molles
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Q1) Which of the following levels of organization is/are correctly ordered?
A) population, ecosystem, landscape, individual, interaction
B) individual, population, interaction, community, ecosystem
C) biosphere, landscape, individual, community, interaction
D) ecosystem, landscape, region, interaction, population
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q2) Field studies and laboratory studies are mutually exclusive. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Populations changing genetically over time in response to variation in its environment is termed ____________. Answer: Evolution
Q4) ____________ are aerial plants obtaining nutrient from trapped organic matter. Answer: Epiphytes
Q5) The scientific method deals with absolute truths. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) A biome is characterized primarily by
A) flora and fauna.
B) temperature and moisture.
C) climate and predominate plant types.
D) global weather patterns.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) Most of the earth's deserts are
A) located at 0<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> latitude.
B) located at 30<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> north and south latitudes.
C) located at 60<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> north and south latitudes.
D) located at 90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> north and south latitudes.
E) randomly scattered around the earth's surface.
Answer: B
Q3) Mycorrhizae are parasitic fungi that are depleting tropical trees of nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Desert soils are often termed _________________.
Answer: lithosols

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Q1) The benthic portion of eutrophic lakes can become _______________.
Answer: anaerobic
Q2) Aquatic organisms located off the ocean floor are
A) benthic.
B) pelagic.
C) neritic.
D) littoral.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: B
Q3) The oceans are the largest water reservoir on the planet.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Bottom dwelling aquatic organisms are called _______________.
Answer: benthic
Q5) Oxygen is a major limiting factor in the distribution of intertidal organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Vila-Aiub and colleagues found that populations of the weed Sorghum halepense that have been persistently exposed to the herbicide,glyphosate,were not resistant to its effects.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Research conducted on the Glanville fritillary butterfly (Melitaea cinxia)can be summarized in all of the following statements except:
A) inbreeding can contribute to local extinctions.
B) smaller meadows can contribute to local extinction.
C) a decrease in heterozygosity can contribute to local extinctions.
D) increase in predation can contribute to local extinctions.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) All of the following conditions are included in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle except:
A) no mutation.
B) large population size.
C) non-random mating.
D) no immigration.
E) genotypes of equal fitness.
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Q1) The arctic flower,Dryas integrifolia,regulates the temperature of its reproductive structures by
A) sun-tracking behavior.
B) increasing its metabolic rate.
C) dark petal coloration.
D) both sun-tracking behavior and increasing its metabolic rate.
E) both increasing its metabolic rate and dark petal coloration.
Q2) When an organism becomes acclimated to a new environmental situation; it will generally involve
A) physiological changes.
B) genetic changes.
C) sociological changes.
D) both physiological changes and genetic changes.
E) both genetic changes and sociological changes.
Q3) The body temperature of ____________ varies directly with the environment.
A) homeotherms
B) poikilotherms
C) psychrotherms
D) envirotherms
E) microtherms
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Q1) Which of the following may be used to study the uptake of water by plants in a natural ecosystem?
A) non-stable isotope analysis
B) radioactive isotope analysis
C) <sup>14</sup>C isotope analysis
D) stable isotope analysis
E) water isotope analysis
Q2) The camel and saguaro cactus both
A) acquire massive amounts of water when water is available.
B) allow their internal temperature to rise.
C) reduce surface area exposed to direct sunlight.
D) reflect sunlight with dense hairs.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) In a terrestrial plant,water movement is as follows:
A) from less negative water potential to a more negative water potential.
B) from more negative water potential to a less negative water potential.
C) from less positive water potential to a more positive water potential.
D) from zero water potential to a more negative water potential.
E) from zero water potential to a more positive water potential.
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Q1) The photosynthetic response curve is most similar to A) type 1 functional response curve.
B) type 2 functional response curve.
C) type 3 functional response curve.
D) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) The longer the wavelength,the more energy they carry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Photosynthetic response curves examine photosynthetic rates and maximum irradiance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Müllerian and Batesian mimicries differ from one another because
A) in Müllerian mimicry, the mimic is actually harmless.
B) in Müllerian mimicry, the model is actually harmless.
C) Müllerian mimicry is a form of comimicry.
D) Müllerian mimicry is a form of camouflage.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q5) PAR is an acronym for photosynthetically active ________________________.
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Q6) Generally,as predator size decreases prey size _______________.
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Q1) Intersexual competition generally involves dominance or contest competition,whereas intrasexual selection involves mate selection through secondary sexual competition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In comparing the leafcutter ant's (Atta sexdens)society and the naked mole rat's (Heterocephalus glaber)society,there are several similarities in their cooperative living situation.What is the exception?
A) development of castes
B) one female 'queen' breeder per colony
C) all workers are non-breeding females
D) partitioned subterranean living quarters
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) If a male scorpionfly (Panorpa latipennis)does not have a dead arthropod to present a potential mate as a nuptial offering,he can often substitute a
Q4) There is a _________________ correlation with the amount of rainfall and the reproductive success of the African green woodhoopoes.
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Q1) 'Rarity II' can be described as
A) restricted range, narrow habitat tolerances, and small local populations.
B) restricted range, broad habitat tolerances, and large local populations.
C) extensive range, narrow habitat tolerances, and large local populations.
D) restricted range, broad habitat tolerances, and small local populations.
E) extensive range, broad habitat tolerances, and small local populations.
Q2) Animals with antagonistic behaviors will most likely be distributed in a ________________ pattern.
Q3) Caughley found the distributions of the three largest kangaroo species in Australia are determined by
A) hunting pressure.
B) severe competition for den sites.
C) severe predation.
D) climate.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) An organism with a narrow habitat tolerance is called a ________________________.
Q5) Often an organism with a broad habitat tolerance is called a generalist.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Roland,Keyghobadi,and Fownes found in smaller meadow habitat,the Rocky Mountain Parnassian butterfly
A) has a larger wing span and more likely to disperse out of the patch.
B) populations are stable.
C) populations are smaller and individuals are more likely to disperse out of the patch.
D) population size is more variable.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following equations best represents the geometric rate of increase?
A) r = T/(ln R<sub>0</sub>)
B) r = (ln R<sub>0</sub>)/T
C) \(\lambda\) = Nt/( N<sub>t+1</sub>)
D) \(\lambda\) = (N<sub>t+1</sub>)/Nt
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The 'net reproduction rate' equals
A) (\(\Sigma\)x l<sub>x</sub>m<sub>x</sub>)/R<sub>0</sub>.
B) \(\Sigma\) \(\lambda\) n<sub>x</sub>.
C) \(\Sigma\) l<sub>x</sub> m<sub>x</sub>.
D) \(\Sigma\) x l<sub>x</sub> m<sub>x</sub>.
E) None of the choices are correct.
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Q1) If the age distribution diagram is bell shaped or the number of individual in each age class is evenly distributed,this indicates that the population is
A) stable.
B) declining.
C) growing slowly.
D) growing rapidly.
E) not able to be determined.
Learning Outcome: 11.Applications.02 Distinguish between stable, declining and growing populations, using age distributions.
Q2) Grant and Grants' study on the large cactus finches (Geospiza conirostris)positively correlates ____________________ and egg clutches.
Q3) 'N/K' for a population can represent
A) environmental resistance.
B) logistic component.
C) population size decrease.
D) both environmental resistance and logistic component.
E) both logistic component and population size decrease.
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Q1) Which of the following observations can be explained by the energetic limitation of an organism's total reproductive effort?
A) Darter diversity is very high in the Ozark Highlands.
B) Darters that lay many eggs lay smaller eggs, on average.
C) Seed size in plants varies over at least 10 orders of magnitude.
D) Seed size in plants depends in part on the plant's seed dispersal mechanism.
E) More than one of the choices.
Q2) A polymorphic locus is one that
A) codes for more than one protein.
B) codes for both protein and lipid.
C) occurs in a population as more than one allele.
D) occurs on more than one chromosome.
E) can cause more than one phenotype in an individual, depending on the environment.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of riparian plant communities?
A) plant species adapted to frequent disturbance by flooding
B) plant species dependent on flooding often dominant
C) low species diversity, compared to surrounding terrestrial communities
D) high population densities, compared to surrounding terrestrial communities
E) seriously impacted by human activities
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Q1) In the Lotka-Volterra competition equations,the parameter \(\alpha\)<sub>12</sub> relates to the
A) population growth rate.
B) carrying capacity in the absence of competition.
C) carrying capacity in the presence of competition.
D) effect OF species 2 ON population growth rate OF species 1.
E) effect OF species 1 ON population growth rate OF species 2.
Q2) Rodents that feed primarily on seeds are called ____________.
Q3) Joseph Connell discovered that Balanus barnacles were excluded from the upper intertidal zone by ____________,while Chthalamus barnacles were excluded from the middle intertidal zone by ___________.
A) competition from mussels, prolonged immersion in water
B) competition from mussels, competition with Balanus
C) prolonged exposure to air, competition with Balanus
D) prolonged exposure to air, competition with algae
E) predation by wading birds, predation by starfish
Q4) Evolution of distinct niches in the presence of competition is called
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Q1) In the Lotka-Volterra predation model,the predator death rate is represented by A) c.
B) p.
C) cp.
D) d<sub>p</sub>N<sub>p.</sub>
E) d<sub>p.</sub>
Q2) In the Lotka-Volterra predation model,a prey (host)population in the absence of predators would A) grow exponentially.
B) grow logistically.
C) grow exponentially, and then crash when it has outstripped its own food supply. D) decline to extinction.
E) The model makes no assumptions about what happens in the absence of predators.
Q3) _______________________ is the idea that predators can have non-lethal effects on prey's behavior in which they avoid high-risk locations.
Q4) An organism inducing disease in its host is called a ______________.
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Q1) Mycorrhizal fungi (directly)help their plant partners acquire A) sugars.
B) sunlight.
C) seed dispersal.
D) soil nutrients.
E) pollination.
Q2) An interaction between individuals of different species that benefit both partners is called
A) commensalism.
B) predation.
C) exploitation.
D) mutualism.
E) ammensalism.
Q3) The major benefit obtained by aspen sunflower,Helianthella quinquenervis,from its ant mutualists is
A) reduced losses of seeds to seed predators.
B) reduced loss of leaf tissue to herbivorous insects.
C) more efficient extraction of soil nutrients.
D) more rapid growth early in the growing season.
E) improved attraction of pollinators.
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Q1) In both northern California and southwestern Ohio,the greatest number of bird species was found
A) in urban centers.
B) in golf courses.
C) in rural areas.
D) in urban centers and rural areas but not in areas of intermediate land use intensity.
E) Bird species richness did not vary along gradients of land use intensity.
Q2) Joseph Connell's "intermediate disturbance hypothesis" proposes that
A) species diversity is highest at intermediate frequencies of disturbance.
B) species diversity is lowest at intermediate frequencies of disturbance.
C) population growth rates are highest at intermediate frequencies of disturbance.
D) competitive exclusion is fastest at intermediate levels of disturbance.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Concentrations of inorganic nutrients typically don't vary much across the surface of a single lake.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Invasive Argentine ants have an important effect on community structure of the South African fynbos because
A) they do not disperse seeds, while native ants do.
B) they disperse seeds more effectively than do native ants.
C) they disperse seeds in different spatial patterns than do native ants.
D) as keystone species, they greatly increase the local diversity of native ants.
E) Argentine ants have invaded many communities, but not the South African fynbos.
Q2) Human hunters in the Amazon rain forests kill
A) large numbers of almost every mammal and bird species, for food and for skins.
B) large numbers of the smallest mammal and bird species, which are easiest to catch.
C) large numbers primarily of the largest mammal and bird species.
D) large numbers of mammals and birds, but do not greatly affect population densities.
E) only a few mammals and birds, but because humans are keystone species, these few kills greatly reduce population densities.
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Q1) Nitrogen stable isotopes are useful tools for the study of food web structure because isotope ratios
A) change in predictable ways across trophic levels.
B) often vary among alternative food sources for a consumer.
C) for a predator exactly match the isotope ratio in its prey.
D) both change in predictable ways across trophic levels and often vary among alternative food sources for a consumer.
Q2) "Actual evapotranspiration" for an ecosystem refers to the amount of water that
A) is taken up from soils by plant roots.
B) evaporates from soils.
C) is transpired by plants.
D) evaporates from soils plus the amount transpired by plants.
E) could evaporate from soils, if they were kept wet at all times.
Q3) Bowman and his colleagues,who added nutrients to the alpine tundra on Niwot Ridge,Colorado,found
A) phosphorus is the main nutrient limiting primary production in all meadows.
B) nitrogen is the main nutrient limiting primary production in all meadows.
C) phosphorus is the main nutrient limiting primary production in dry meadows.
D) nitrogen is the main nutrient limiting primary production in wet meadows.
E) nitrogen and phosphorus jointly limit primary production in wet meadows.
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Q1) The largest reservoir of phosphorus in most ecosystems is phosphorus
A) in the atmosphere.
B) dissolved in water.
C) in rocks and sediments.
D) bound in animal tissues.
E) bound in plant tissues.
Q2) Nitrogen export was greatest in streams draining watersheds from A) forested areas.
B) agricultural areas.
C) suburban areas.
D) urban areas.
E) Nitrogen export was similar in streams from forested, agricultural, suburban, and urban areas.
Q3) _____________ is the movement of nutrients between pools of an ecosystem and influences the distribution of nutrients.
A) Nutrient shedding
B) Nutrient cruising
C) Nutrient source
D) Nutrient sink
E) Nutrient flux
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Q1) A community in which secondary succession is very rapid has
A) high resistance.
B) low resistance.
C) high resilience.
D) low resilience.
E) high replication.
Q2) A tendency for a community to maintain its structure even when subject to potential disturbance is called ____________.
Q3) High nitrogen retention early in stream succession is probably due to
A) nitrogen fixation by aquatic fungi.
B) increasing biomass of algal and animal populations.
C) increasing nitrogen inputs from surrounding terrestrial soils.
D) increasing binding of nitrogen to developing organic sediments.
E) reduced denitrification following disturbance.
Q4) On intertidal boulders in California,the climax community is dominated by perennial red algae.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The first plants in a successional sequence are called the ______________.
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Q6) A set of sites differing in successional age is called a ____________.
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Q1) "Argyllic horizons" in soil are rich in A) phosphorous.
B) organic matter.
C) sand.
D) gravel.
E) clay.
Q2) Expansion of forest in Veluwe,Netherlands at the expense of heathland has occurred primarily as a result of
A) reduction of grazing pressure as native herbivore populations were decimated by hunting.
B) changing climates due to the greenhouse effect.
C) new legal restrictions on land use.
D) reductions in sheep farming as Australian wool became less expensive.
E) reductions in sheep farming as young people left family farms for other careers.
Q3) Reduced regulation of water flow in the Kissimmee River has led to increases in populations of fish that require highly oxygenated water.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Among the major regions of Mediterranean woodlands and shrublands,diversity is
A) highest in California, which has the largest area.
B) highest in California, although it has the smallest area.
C) highest in the fynbos of the Cape Floristic Province, which has the largest area.
D) highest in the fynbos of the Cape Floristic Province, although it has the smallest area.
E) roughly equal across regions, even though they differ in area.
Q2) Which of the following is not a hypothesis proposed by ecologists to explain increased species diversity in the tropics?
A) increased time since perturbation in the tropics over temperate regions
B) increased productivity in the tropics over temperate regions
C) increased environmental homogeneity in the tropics over temperate regions
D) increased favorable environments in the tropics over temperate regions
E) increased speciation rates and decreased extinction rates in the tropics over temperate regions
Q3) The network of satellites allowing a handheld receiver to determine latitude,longitude,and altitude is known as a ______________.
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Q1) A carbon dioxide concentration record from the Vostok ice core indicates
A) little change in atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub> concentration before the Industrial Revolution.
B) dramatic increases in atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub> associated with ice ages.
C) dramatic increases in atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub> associated with interglacials.
D) dramatic changes in atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub>, but no obvious association with the glacial/interglacial cycle.
E) an inverse correlation between atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub> concentration and temperature.
Q2) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to tropical forest edges?
A) Trees grow more rapidly and survive better in edge habitat than in the forest interior.
B) Edge habitat is drier than the forest interior.
C) Edge habitat has higher solar radiation than the forest interior.
D) Edge habitat is hotter than the forest interior.
E) Forest fragmentation increases the ratio of edge habitat to forest interior.
Q3) Ozone in the stratosphere is destroyed during breakdown of ________ molecules.
Q4) In the "U.S.LTER Network",LTER stands for ________.
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