Applied Microbiology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in various sectors including healthcare, agriculture, industry, and environmental management. This course covers microbial physiology, metabolic pathways, and genetic manipulation, emphasizing how bacteria, fungi, and viruses can be harnessed for the production of antibiotics, enzymes, vaccines, and biofuels. Students learn about bioremediation, fermentation technology, food and beverage microbiology, and emerging biotechnological applications. Through lab work and case studies, the course also highlights the roles of microbes in sustainable practices, public health, and the development of microbiological products, preparing students for careers in research, industry, and clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proper way to indicate that a bacterium has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) would be
A)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia.
B)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia ) cepacia
C)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) cepacia
D)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia ) cepacia.
Answer: C
Q2) A bacterium that has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia) would be correctly noted as
A)Pseudomonas (Burkholderia).
B)Burkholderia (Pseudomonas).
C)Pseudomonas, formerly Burkholderia.
D)Burkholderia, formerly Pseudomonas.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used when oxidative phosphorylation uses oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor is
A)substrate level phosphorylation.
B)fermentative metabolism.
C)oxidative phosphorylation.
D)aerobic respiration.
E)anaerobic respiration.
Answer: D
Q2) The major difference between the cell walls of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is that
A)the peptidoglycan layer in gram-positive bacteria is substantially thicker.
B)the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria contains mycolic acids.
C)gram-positive bacteria contain a cytoplasmic membrane.
D)gram-positive bacteria may have a polysaccharide capsule as a covering.
E)All of the above are correct.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Swelling, redness, heat, and pain are all manifestations of A)nosocomial infection.
B)inflammation.
C)bacterial colonization.
D)coagulation.
Answer: B
Q2) Infectious processes that develop quickly are referred to as A)chronic infections.
B)latent infections.
C)acute infections.
D)nosocomial infections.
Answer: C
Q3) Acute infections are those that
A)develop and progress slowly.
B)develop quickly.
C)exist as a silent phase in which the agent is causing no notable effect.
D)develop quickly and last longer.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Working with biosafety Level 3 agents
A)requires USDA credentials and a postgraduate degree in microbiology or a related field.
B)requires laboratory design features that control air movement.
C)requires that personnel wear protective clothing and devices and enter a decontaminating chamber before leaving.
D)requires that workers have blood samples routinely tested to rule out infection or contamination.
Q2) Procedures such as grinding, mincing, vortexing, and preparing smears
A)are hazardous and should be done wearing gloves and gown protection.
B)create aerosol droplets and should be performed only in an approved biosafety cabinet.
C)should be avoided with specimens known to contain infectious agents.
D)produce a spill hazard and should be done over an absorptive mat.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Biosafety Level 4 agents
A)include those that are the common agents of infectious disease.
B)require only standard good laboratory technique.
C)include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M.gordonae, and Brucella.
D)require the use of maximum containment facilities.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q2) Anaerobes grow best in
A)ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide.
B)increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O .
C)Five percent to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O .
D)Reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%).
Q3) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluorochrome stain that can be used to detect mycobacteria is A)calcofluor white.
B)acridine orange.
C)auramine.
D)immunofluorescence.
Q2) The acid-fast stain is specifically designed for bacteria whose cell walls contain A)teichoic acids.
B)mycolic acids.
C)peptidoglycan.
D)disaccharide-pentapeptide subunits.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true concerning dark-field microscopy?
A)This type of microscopy is used in some laboratories to detect spirochetes.
B)The condenser does not allow light to pass directly through the specimen but directs the light to hit the specimen at an oblique angle.
C)This technique involves the alteration of microscopic technique rather than the use of dyes or stains to achieve contrast.
D)All of the above are correct.
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) To read the hemolytic reaction on a blood agar plate accurately, the technologist must
A)hold the plate up to the light and observe the plate with the light coming from behind.
B)hold the plate under the light and observe the plate with the light coming from the top.
C)hold the plate over a white background.
D)examine the plate using reflected and transmitted light.
Q2) Which medium can be described as suppressing the growth of most gram-negative organisms while allowing gram-positive bacteria to grow?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA (colistin, nalidixic acid) blood
C)BHI (brain heart infusion)
D)Thioglycollate
Q3) A candle jar is used to cultivate which type of bacteria?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and
Characterization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acid sequencing methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
Q2) Target nucleic acid amplification (PCR) methods are based on
A)the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to specifically bond with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B)detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C)the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication that are applied repeatedly through numerous cycles.
D)determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
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10
Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Sample Questions
Q1) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) The precipitin test that involves antigen and antibody diffusing toward each other, producing a visible precipitin band at the point at which they meet is referred to as A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as
A)a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B)a direct fluorescent antibody test.
C)an indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D)a radioimmunoassay.
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Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antibody that has 10 antigen-binding sites is
A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
Q2) The difference between latex agglutination and coagglutination is
A)the type of particle used to carry the antibody.
B)the type of target organism involved.
C)that coagglutination is less specific but more sensitive.
D)coagglutination can be used for direct antigen detection but not latex agglutination.
Q3) Antibodies that function by attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement are called
A)opsonizing antibodies.
B)neutralizing antibodies.
C)complement-fixing antibodies.
D)chemotaxic antibodies.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Penicillin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q2) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q3) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q4) Bacterial resistance to beta-lactams may be mediated by
A)enzymatic destruction of the antibiotics.
B)altered antibiotic targets.
C)decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The serum bactericidal test (SBT) involves A)subculturing the clear tubes of a completed broth dilution test.
B)99.9% reduction in CFU/mL compared with the organism concentration in the original inoculum.
C)using patient serum to detect bacteriostatic and bactericidal activity and the antibacterial impact of factors other than the antibiotics.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to A)vancomycin.
B)aminoglycosides.
C)cephalosporins.
D)amikacin.
Q3) Detection of the haze produced by some resistant staphylococci and enterococci against methicillin and vancomycin can best be accomplished by A)using reflected light.
B)using transmitted light.
C)placing the medium under the light rather than in front of it. D)microscopy.
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of A)clumping factor.
B)free coagulase.
C)extracellular coagulase.
D)catalase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The purpose of the coagulase test is to
A)detect the presence of an enzyme that binds plasma fibrinogen.
B)detect the ability of the organism to clot plasma.
C)detect the production of clumping factor.
D)help identify staphylococci.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The species of Staphylococcus that is one of the most important human pathogens is
A)Staphylococcus luteus.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Staphylococcus mucilaginosus.
D)Staphylococcus intermedius.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug of choice for most enterococcal infections is
A)vancomycin and a penicillin.
B)clindamycin and vancomycin.
C)a penicillin and an aminoglycoside.
D)Septra.
Q2) CAMP factor is produced by
A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)viridans streptococci.
Q3) The bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, beta hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and producer of the CAMP factor is
A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)viridans streptococci.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Media that can be used for isolation of Bacillus anthracis include
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)CNA blood agar.
Q2) Induction of sporulation by Bacillus sp.can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with A)5% sheep blood agar.
B)PLET agar.
C)bicarbonate agar.
D)urea agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Patients who are immunocompromised and pregnant women should avoid eating soft cheeses such as Mexican-style, feta, brie, Camembert, and blue-veined cheese to prevent
A)foodborne listeriosis.
B)staphylococcal food poisoning.
C)gastric gangrene.
D)salmonella infection.
Q2) Primary inoculation to a Loeffler slant, overnight incubation, and subculture of any growth to cystine-tellurite blood agar is no longer recommended for recovery of A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q3) The organism that exhibits characteristic end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours is
A)Listeria monocytogenes.
B)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
C)Bacillus anthracis.
D)Bacillus cereus.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothirix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, non-branching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into TSI agar is most likely
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q2) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q3) Large numbers of large gram-positive bacilli are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has
A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)no apparent vaginal infection.
C)bacterial vaginosis caused by Lactobacillus sp.
D)gonorrhea
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Chapter 18: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.form branched filaments that extend along the agar surface that are called
A)surface hyphae.
B)substrate hyphae.
C)aerial hyphae.
D)topical hyphae.
Q2) The organism that has been most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Gordonia.
C)Tsukamurella.
D)Streptomyces.
Q3) Nocardia have as part of their cell wall peptidoglycan
A)mesodiaminopimelic acid (DAP).
B)arabinose.
C)galactose.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be presumptively identified based on a positive indole test is
A)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
B)Proteus vulgaris.
C)Enterobacter aerogenes.
D)Escherichia coli.
E)Shigella sonnei.
Q2) The first biochemical test that is performed on a gram-negative bacillus growing on MacConkey agar to determine the identification scheme is the A)catalase test.
B)oxidase test.
C)urease test.
D)indole test.
Q3) The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H S- positive is A)Proteus aerogenes.
B)Proteus vulgaris.
C)Proteus mirabilis
D)Escherichia coli.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) An organism that can be described as oxidase-negative, MacConkey agar-positive, glucose nonfermenter is likely
A)Escherichia.
B)Pseudomonas.
C)Acinetobacter.
D)Moraxella.
Q2) For more serious infections caused by Acinetobacter spp., such as pneumonia or bacteremia, effective treatment may require the use of
A)multiple rounds of penicillin or similar antibiotic.
B)a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside.
C)repeated high level doses of gentamycin.
D)single-drug therapy in combination with a steroid.
Q3) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are
A)Bordetella spp.
B)S.maltophilia.
C)Acinetobacter spp.
D)P.oryzihabitans.
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) An organism described as oxidase-positive, TSI slant with an alkaline/no change, good growth at 42° C, and producing bright bluish green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Q2) Excluding Enterobacteriaceae, name the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens.
A)Pseudomonas
B)Burkholderia
C)Ralstonia
D)Vibrio
Q3) The disease referred to as melioidosis is caused by A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
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Chapter 22: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Paracoccus yeei.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) The most common type of infection caused by both Rhizobium radiobacter and Ochrobactrum anthropi is
A)peritonitis.
B)endocarditis.
C)meningitis.
D)bacteremia .
Q3) The natural habitat of Achromobacter sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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24
Chapter 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Among the yellow-pigmented, oxidase-positive, glucose oxidizers that are occasionally encountered in human specimens are
A)Chryseobacterium meningosepticum.
B)Flavobacterium meningosepticum.
C)Sphingobacterium spiritivorum.
D)Empedobacter brevis.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The natural habitat of Chryseobacterium sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) B.bronchiseptica is
A)oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B)indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar and at 42° C.
D)nonmotile and both urea- and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q2) Psychrobacter phenylpyruvicus can be described as
A)oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B)indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar and at 42° C.
D)nonmotile and both urea- and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q3) Achromobacter, Alcaligenes, and Bordetella are all
A)MacConkey-positive.
B)oxidase-positive.
C)nonglucose utilizers.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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26
Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) The primary habitat for Vibrio spp is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q2) The primary habitat for Plesiomonas shigelloides and Chromobacterium violaceum is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q3) The primary habitat for Chromobacterium violaceum is A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which statement best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats are unknown.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q2) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar but not MacConkey that is indole- and urease-negative, oxidase-positive, and positive on wet mount motility testing is most likely
A)Treponema.
B)Leptospira.
C)Borrelia.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q3) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively) gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include
A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella elongata appears as
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
E)either coccobacilli or short, straight rods.
Q2) Differentiation of Moraxella lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q3) True cocci, such as most Neisseria spp.and Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis, can be differentiated from morphologically similar Moraxella species by A)comparing the penicillin susceptibility testing results of the bacteria.
B)subjecting the bacterium to noninhibitory concentrations of penicillin.
C)the resistance of Moraxella to many beta-lactam antimicrobials.
D)performing the DNA test.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by which characteristic?
A)Its pink pigmentation
B)Its grapelike odor
C)Its large spreading colony morphology
D)Its bleachlike odor
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli, which bacterial species can be recognized in culture by its bleachlike odor?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Capnocytophaga hominis can be distinguished from Haemophilus aphrophilus by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for indole.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Kingella spp.can be distinguished from Neisseria spp.by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Of the following organisms, which can be described as slow or poorly growing, are capnophiles, and will not grow on MacConkey agar?
A)Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B)Kingella denitrificans
C)Cardiobacterium hominis
D)Capnocytophaga gingivalis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) Performance of the "factor requirement test" for Haemophilus involves
A)inoculation of unsupplemented media with a light suspension of the organism and placement of X and V factor disks on the agar surface.
B)inoculation of liquid media, unsupplemented and supplemented with X and V factors.
C)detecting the presence of enzymes that convert d-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) into porphyrins.
D)growth of the organism in the presence of bacterial species that produce X and V factors as metabolic by-products.
Q2) Long, slender rods
A)H. haemolyticus
B)H. influenzae biotype aegypticus
C)H. influenzae
D)H. segnis
E)H. parainfluenzae
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Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatitis can all be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) A common characteristic of the bacterial species Bartonella henselae and Afipia felis is
A)both are believed to cause cat-scratch disease.
B)the ability to grow on chocolate agar but not very well on routine blood (trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood) and not at all on MacConkey agar.
C)that primary isolation from clinical specimens is best accomplished using special cultivation conditions.
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
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Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many
A)large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump, faintly staining gram negative bacilli.
Q2) Parenteral therapy can be defined as that which
A)must be approved and given by a parent under close supervision.
B)is not taken through the alimentary canal.
C)is taken orally.
D)is taken in the form of suppositories.
Q3) The majority of human infections with Campylobacter species are caused by
A)direct contact with carriers of the bacterium.
B)contamination of food, milk, or water with animal feces.
C)multiplication of the organism in food products.
D)direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)L-cysteine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Specimens for culture recovery of Legionella should be inoculated to A)BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
Q3) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) A nonmotile, urease- and nitrate-positive, strictly aerobic gram-negative coccobacillus is most likely
A)Bordetella.
B)Moraxella.
C)Kingella.
D)Acinetobacter.
E)Brucella.
Q3) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those which are
A)able to be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)able to exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)able to be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)can only be cultured inside living organisms like mice.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) The mode of transmission of Bordetella pertussis can best be described as A)person-to-person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q3) Pertussis (whooping cough) is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) F.philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it
A)is oxidase-positive.
B)is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C)hydrolyzes gelatin.
D)grows in 6% sodium chloride.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations is caused by
A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by A)chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B)a granulomatous lesion.
C)septic arthritis.
D)endocarditis.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
Q3) Sodoku, characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion is caused by
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis.
B)Spirillum minus.
C)Bordetella species.
D)Pasteurella species.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) M.catarrhalis may be differentiated from the gonococci and meningococci based on
A)its growth on blood agar at 35° C.
B)its growth on nutrient agar at 22° C.
C)the reduction of nitrite to nitrate.
D)its production of DNase.
E)All of the above
Q2) Presumptive identification of an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococcus on Thayer-Martin medium from genital sites of a 6-year-old female as Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A)provides the physician with quick and reliable results at minimal cost.
B)should be confirmed with a repeat culture.
C)may sometimes be incorrect and should not be reported.
D)should only be done when venereal disease is suspected.
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-negative diplococci.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Pre-reduced, anaerobically sterilized (PRAS) media
A)are produced, packaged, shipped, and stored under anaerobic conditions.
B)have a short shelf life of only 2 weeks.
C)enable the culture to be incubated in the regular incubator under aerobic conditions.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Urine via catheter
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q3) Actinomyces spp., Bifidobacterium spp., and Clostridium spp.can be described as
A)aerotolerant organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under microaerobic conditions.
B)strictly anaerobic organisms that cannot grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow only under anaerobic conditions.
C)microaerophilic organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under anaerobic conditions.
D)facultatively anaerobic organisms that grow in the presence or absence of atmospheric oxygen.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Choose the statement that is most true regarding the identification of anaerobes.
A)Complete identification can be very costly.
B)Complete identification often requires several different testing methods.
C)Most clinical laboratories no longer perform complete identification of anaerobes.
D)Presumptive identification is often just as useful as complete identification.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The most likely identification of a bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative, and indole-negative anaerobic Gram negative bacilli is
A)nonpigmented Prevotella.
B)Porphyromonas spp.
C)Bacteroides fragilis group.
D)pigmented Prevotella.
E)Bacteroides ureolyticus.
Q3) The absence of leukocytes in a Gram stain of a clinical specimen
A)rules out the presence of a serious anaerobic infection.
B)may indicate that the causative organism produces necrotizing toxins.
C)may indicate poor transport methods.
D)may indicate excessive exposure to air during specimen processing.
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Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) The system of classification based on growth rate and colonial pigmentation is called
A)Bergey's.
B)scotochromogenic.
C)Runyon.
D)carotenoid.
Q2) Negative mycobacterial cultures are reported final, and the cultures are discarded after what period of time?
A)7 days
B)2 weeks
C)4 weeks
D)8 weeks
Q3) To inoculate test media, such as biochemical tests and pigmentation and growth rate determinations, the laboratorian would
A)use a broth subculture or the primary liquid culture.
B)use isolated colonies from the primary solid medium.
C)subculture from primary media to solid media and work from those subcultures.
D)swab the growth on the primary solid medium.
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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogen and a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is
A)Rickettsia.
B)Chlamydia.
C)Calymmatobacterium.
D)Coxiella.
Q2) Which of the following bacteria are fastidious, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacilli, are obligate intracellular parasites that survive only briefly outside of a host (reservoir or vector), and can multiply only intracellularly?
A)Coxiella
B)Chlamydia
C)Rickettsia
D)Calymmatobacterium
Q3) Diagnosis of C.trachomatis is done by which methodology?
A)Cytology
B)Culture
C)Direct detection of antigen or nucleic acid
D)Serologic testing
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q2) Which of the following agents lacks a cell wall and is the smallest known free-living form?
A)Chlamydia
B)Mycoplasma
C)Rickettsia
D)Coxiella
Q3) Media that can be used for isolation of Mycoplasma include
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)Hemin and NAD supplements.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Nontreponemal antibodies are those that
A)are produced against antigens of the organisms themselves.
B)are those that are produced by infected patients against components of mammalian cells.
C)are those that are produced by the organism that cause the systemic destruction of the disease.
D)are also called reaginic antibodies.
Q2) A specific treponemal serologic test performed by overlaying whole treponemes that are fixed to a slide with serum from patients suspected of having syphilis and using fluorescein-conjugated antihuman antibody reagent to detect specific antitreponemal antibodies is called
A)RPR (rapid plasma reagin) test.
B)FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption) test.
C)VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test.
D)TP-PA (T.pallidum particle agglutination) test.
Q3) Compared to other spirochetes, Borrelia can be described as
A)long, more slender, with hooked ends.
B)somewhat thicker with fewer and looser coils.
C)long, more slender, with tight coils.
D)somewhat thicker than treponemes with fewer and looser coils.
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Q1) Enterobius vermicularis
A)Rectal tape prep
B)Tissue biopsy
C)Sputum
D)Feces
E)Blood smear
Q2) Plasmodium falciparum
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
Q3) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) The same dermatophyte is isolated from plucked hairs, skin scrapings, and nails of an older patient.The most likely identification is
A)Trichophyton.
B)Epidermophyton.
C)Microsporum canis.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The loose intertwined network of basic structural units of the molds which penetrates the substrate from which it obtains the necessary nutrients for growth is called the A)hyphae.
B)germ tubes.
C)pseudohyphae.
D)mycelium.
Q3) The genus ___________ is capable of invading the hair, skin, and nails.
A)Trichophyton
B)Epidermophyton
C)Microsporum canis
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) Cytomegalovirus can be detected in clinical specimens using A)cell culture.
B)shell vial assay.
C)antigenemia immunoassay.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) If a 2- to 3-day delay in processing of a specimen for viral culture is unavoidable, the specimen should be
A)refrigerated until processing occurs.
B)frozen until processing occurs.
C)inoculated into cell culture at the bedside.
D)allowed to sit at room temperature or warmer, such as in an incubator.
Q3) The specimen of choice for detecting respiratory syncytial virus is a A)throat swab.
B)nasopharyngeal aspirate.
C)bronchoalveolar wash.
D)lung biopsy.
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Suppurative thrombophlebitis
A)Infections that result from bacteria entering the blood circulation through the lymphatic system from another site of infection
B)An infection of the endocardium that is most commonly caused by bacteria
C)A web of platelets, fibrin, inflammatory cells, and entrapped organisms that deposits on damaged cardiac endothelium
D)An intravascular infection that causes inflammatory damage and weakening of an arterial wall, causing a bulging of the arterial wall that can eventually rupture
E)An inflammation of a vein wall that is then seeded with organisms, thereby establishing a primary site of infection.
Q2) A factor that contributes to the initiation of bloodstream infections is A)immunosuppressive agents.
B)broad-spectrum antibiotics that suppress the normal flora.
C)invasive procedures.
D)prolonged survival of debilitated and seriously ill patients.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old is
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
B)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
Q2) One of the most important uses of the Gram stain of expectorated sputum received for routine bacteriologic culture is
A)to give the physician a quick analysis of the type of organism causing the infection.
B)to evaluate the quality of the specimen.
C)to distinguish between the possibility of bacterial or viral source of infection.
D)to begin appropriate antimicrobial therapy as soon as possible.
Q3) Bacterial pneumonia in children is most commonly caused by A)H.influenzae.
B)S.pneumoniae.
C)S.aureus.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) A relatively common illness in young children, primarily those younger than 3 years of age, who present with variable fever, inspiratory stridor (difficulty in moving enough air through the larynx), hoarseness, and a harsh, barking, nonproductive cough is called
A)laryngitis.
B)laryngotracheobronchitis.
C)epiglottitis.
D)pharyngitis.
E)Vincent's angina.
Q2) Stomatitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) The innermost membrane layer surrounding the brain and spinal column is called A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q2) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is A)dura mater.
B)meninges.
C)arachnoid.
D)pia mater.
Q3) The most common source of infection in the central nervous system is A)hematogenous spread.
B)infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C)organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in central nervous system structures.
D)bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Blepharitis
A) Haemophilus influenzae and S. pneumoniae
B) Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C) S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and P. aeruginosa
D) Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E) Chlamydia
F) Actinomyces or Propionibacterium
G) S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and S. pneumoniae
Q2) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)Moraxella catarrhalis.
Q3) Canaliculitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is
A)Escherichia coli.
B)Klebsiella spp.
C)Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q2) Cystitis
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)The isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency but yielding fewer organisms than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) An organism that many women carry as part of their normal genital microbial flora that may be transmitted to the neonate during childbirth is A)Staphylococcus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)Gardnerella vaginalis.
Q2) An infection of the vaginal mucosa resulting in abnormal discharge and an offensive odor or itching is referred to as A)chorioamnionitis.
B)bartholinitis.
C)cervicitis.
D)vaginitis.
Q3) The predominant organisms in vaginal secretions from normal prepubescent girls and postmenopausal women are A)lactobacilli.
B)Streptococcus agalactiae.
C)Enterobacteriaceae.
D)staphylococci.
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Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) The normal flora of the adult large bowel consists predominantly of A)anaerobic species.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Enterococcus.
D)Enterobacteriaceae.
Q2) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least
A)Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.
B)Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C)Campylobacter and Vibrio.
D)Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio.
Q3) XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28926
Sample Questions
Q1) The most reliable specimen for determining the etiology of ulcers and nodules are
A)from the base of the ulcer or nodule.
B)those collected following removal of overlying debris.
C)those collected by surgical biopsy of deep tissues.
D)those collected without contact with the superficial layers of the lesion.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Chronic undermining ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Chapter
Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28927
Sample Questions
Q1) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q2) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Q3) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28928
Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of test results that are correctly identified by the test is called A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
E)efficiency.
Q2) Performance of a new procedure several times on the same sample and evaluating the range of test results would be validating which characteristic?
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Sensitivity
D)Specificity
Q3) The ability of the test under study to match the results of a standard test commonly known as the "gold standard" is A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Criteria that should be considered for rejection of specimens include
A)missing or inadequate information such as clinical diagnosis, current drug treatment, or other helpful facts.
B)illegible physician name.
C)improperly collected or stored specimen.
D)requests of multiple tests on one specimen.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Continuous quality assurance in the microbiology laboratory includes
A)monitoring personnel performance and providing education.
B)instrument maintenance and monitoring.
C)checking the performance of media, reagents, and other products.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Positive patient outcomes produced through quality management programs in the microbiology laboratory are
A)reduced hospitalization time.
B)reduced cost of stay.
C)reduced turn-around time for diagnosis of infection.
D)appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines an organism's susceptibility to bacterial peptides (proteins) is called
A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) Microorganisms are spread in hospitals through
A)direct contact in contaminated food or intravenous solutions.
B)indirect contact from patient to patient on the hands of health care workers.
C)inhalation of droplets.
D)vector-borne contact.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when they entered the hospital is referred to as
A)an autonomous infection.
B)a nosocomial infection.
C)an opportunistic infection.
D)septic introduction.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
Q2) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
Q3) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
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