Applied Microbiology Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in various industries, including food production, pharmaceuticals, agriculture, and environmental management. The course covers the fundamentals of microbial physiology and genetics, industrial fermentation processes, biotechnological innovations, and the development of microbial products such as antibiotics, enzymes, and biofuels. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, quality control, and regulatory considerations, as well as the role of microorganisms in bioremediation and public health. Students gain a comprehensive understanding of how microbial systems are harnessed to solve real-world problems and drive advancements in technology and sustainability.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The general term for the ability of an organism to overcome host defenses and cause disease is associated with the _____ of a pathogen.
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Latency
C)Virulence
D)Innate immune response
E)Natural habitat
Answer: C
Q2) Temperature,pain,redness,and swelling are the hallmarks of
A)Inflammation
B)Virulence
C)Nosocomial infections
D)Immunological memory
E)None of the above
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) Carbon atoms can form how many bonds with other atoms?
A)6
B)12
C)4
D)2
E)8
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following refers to the loss of protein three dimensional structure when temperature or pH is altered?
A)Denaturation
B)Polarity
C)Hydration
D)Hydrolysis
E)Dehydration
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) The biosynthesis of glycogen,using glucose,is an example of
A)Aerobic respiration
B)Anabolism
C)Glycolysis
D)The Krebs cycle
E)Proton motive force
Answer: B
Q2) The regulation of enzymes is illustrated by the ability of the end product of a series of enzymatic reactions to inhibit the first enzyme in the pathway.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which is an example of a dehydration reaction?
A)Amino acids to protein
B)DPN to DPNH
C)DPNH to DPN
D)Glycogen to glucose
E)Glucose to phosphoglucose
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) Organisms that can cause disease only if they exploit a host's decreased resistance to infection and disease are referred to as
A)Auto-inducers
B)Opportunists
C)Primary pathogens
D)Mutualistic pathogens
E)Quorum sensors
Q2) An organism whose cells lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound structures is a (n)
A)Organelle
B)Eukaryote
C)Human
D)Prokaryote
E)Plasmid
Q3) Explain why basic dyes and not acidic dyes are used when examining the morphology and arrangement of bacterial cells.
Q4) A new device,developed at Lawrence Livermore laboratories,can detect any of 300,000 different pathogens in with one test.Explain the basis for the analysis.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Connective tissue in the host is compromised by the production of _____ by bacteria.
A)Hyaluronidase
B)Capsules
C)Streptokinase
D)M protein
E)Leukocidins
Q2) Explain how the bacterium Helicobacter pylori can survive the acidic environment of the stomach.What is the consequence of a Helicobacter infection?
Q3) The fecal-oral route of contamination refers to the situation where infectious pathogens exit from the host through the _____ and enter another host through the
A)anus; skin
B)Respiratory tract; gastrointestinal tract
C)Anus; mouth
D)Genitourinary tract; gastrointestinal tract
E)Gastrointestinal tract; genitourinary tract
Q4) How does Bacillus anthracis ensure that the activity of the anthrax toxin is exerted only inside the host cell?
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) Epidemiological studies that sometimes identify the index case are known as _____ studies.
A)Common-source
B)Retrospective
C)Prospective
D)Analytical
E)Descriptive
Q2) Which term refers to diseases that persist in a population at low levels?
A)Endemic disease
B)Epidemic
C)Prevalent disease
D)Sporadic disease
Q3) Out of a population of 200,000,500 people are infected by a disease on January 1,2013.The prevalence of the disease is
A)500/year
B)500
C)250/100,000
D)0
Q4) Describe and provide examples for the three types of contact transmission.
Q5) What are potential sources of nosocomial infections? List at least six.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Carriers of Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi,the agents of typhoid fever,can have persistent infections in the
A)Gall bladder
B)Respiratory tract
C)Nasopharynx
D)Digestive tract
Q2) Which of the following defines an acute disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q3) Name and describe the three strategies used by health professionals to control communicable diseases.Characterize each of them.
Q4) Which of the following is commonly associated with tuberculosis?
A)Megasomes
B)Sepsis
C)Granulomas
D)Mutualism
Q5) Explain why Koch's postulates cannot be applied to all pathogens.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) SARS is transmitted by all of the following mechanisms except
A)Droplet
B)Fomite
C)Direct contact
D)Mosquitoes
E)Aerosol
Q2) Explain which measures led to the development of resistance to amantadine and rimantadine in the H5N1 influenza virus and why this resistance is a problem.Are there any alternative drugs to combat H5N1 and,if so,could sufficient protection be provided if there was an influenza pandemic?
Q3) Which of the following epidemics was caused by an H1N1 virus
A)Asian influenza
B)Hong Kong influenza
C)Spanish influenza
D)Swine influenza of 2009
E)Spanish influenza and Swine influenza of 2009
Q4) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates production of edema?
Q6) Explain the term "incubator" as it applies to an influenza pandemic involving pigs.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) What is the process by which bacteria in a dormant spore state return to the vegetative state?
A)Translation
B)Group translocation
C)Germination
D)Conjugation
E)Sporulation
Q2) Which disease is caused by Treponema pallidum? Explain which characteristics enable this bacterium to enter the body through epithelia of the genitourinary tract but end up in the central nervous system.
Q3) A waxy substance called _____ is part of the cell wall of Mycobacterium spp.
A)Mycolic acid
B)M protein
C)Lipid A
D)Lipoteichoic acid
E)The slime layer
Q4) Describe the strategy used by Neisseria species for immune escape involving pili.
Q5) Describe two types of passive transport.Explain how they are similar and different from each other.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Which growth characteristic best matches Clostridium perfringens?
A)Extreme thermophile
B)Spirochete
C)Obligate anaerobe
D)Short doubling time
E)Grows inside mucous layer
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Differential medium contains ingredients that that allow only a few species of bacteria to grow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plant and meat extracts are commonly found in _____ media.
A)Complex
B)Selective
C)Differential
D)Chemically defined
Q4) Answer true or false to the following statement: Successful bacterial growth depends on the right temperature,pH,and osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rearrange the following events in the order in which they occur during DNA proofreading.Which is the first event?
A)Nuclease activity catalyzes nucleotide removal
B)The elongating DNA strand leaves the exonuclease site
C)The elongating DNA strand slides to the exonuclease active site
D)DNA polymerase action slows
Q2) The term "complementary" refers to what in DNA?
A)The opposite orientation of the two polynucleotide strands
B)Chemical reaction used to form a nucleotide
C)The replication fork
D)The pairing between purines and pyrimidines in the two polynucleotide strands
Q3) In bacteria,the synthesis of the amino acid tryptophan is regulated by a mechanism analogous to
A)Gene induction
B)Feedback inhibition
C)Constitutive gene expression
D)Suppressor mutation
E)Frame shift regulation
Q4) Identify the similarities and differences between the repressor proteins of the lactose and tryptophan operons.
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates neuraminidase or hemagglutinin?
Q2) Explain the difference between helical and icosahedral symmetry.Provide an example of each.
Q3) A capsid is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q4) Why is the capsid an important part of the structure of the virus?
A)It allows for the virion to withstand harsh environments until it infects a cell
B)It is easily shed when the virion enters into the host cell
C)It selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter into the virion
D)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and is easily shed when it enters the host cell
E)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter the virion
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral infections that last the lifetime of the host are referred to as _____ infections.
A)Acute
B)Latent
C)Persistent
D)Immunosuppressive
E)Chronic
Q2) The duration of a rhinovirus infection and an influenza infection is usually only limited to 4-5 days.What type of viral infection does this represent?
A)Acute infection
B)Persistent infection
C)Latent infection
D)Slow infection
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair in reference to viral transmission?
A)HIV: in utero
B)Rabies: zoonotic disease
C)Iatrogenic: sexually transmitted
D)Rhinovirus: aerosol
E)Herpes simplex virus: semen
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: Fungi are classified according to the characteristics of their sexual spores and hyphal septation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What can reach a length exceeding 10 meters while inhabiting the human jejunum?
A)Taenia saginata
B)Clonorchis sinensis
C)Schistosoma species
D)Paragonimus species
Q3) Rearrange the following into the order of events following ingestion of Ascaris eggs.Which is the fourth event?
A)Invasion of intestinal epithelium
B)Pumped into the lung
C)Conversion to larval stage
D)Coughed into mouth
E)Liver invasion
Q4) Describe the lifecycle of Plasmodium falciparum beginning with the ingestion of human blood by the Anopheles mosquito.
Q5) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are acute-phase proteins?
A)Mannose-binding protein
B)Leukotrienes
C)C-reactive protein
D)Mannose-binding protein and C-reactive protein
E)Mannose-binging protein, leukotrienes, and C-reactive protein
Q2) The interaction between natural killer (NK)cells and macrophages amplifies the innate immune response.Rearrange the following into the order of events during this amplification.Which is the second event?
A)Macrophage production of cytokines TNF and IL-12 increases
B)Increased production of IL-2 by NK cells
C)NK cells produce gamma interferon (IFN-?)
D)Proliferation of NK cells
Q3) Which of the following is an effect of proteins C3a and C5a?
A)Activation of the classical pathway
B)Histamine release
C)Opsonization
Q4) Identify the two ways barrier defenses contribute to the first line of defense in innate immunity.Provide two examples of each and an example of a barrier that functions in both ways.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) The concentration of antibody in the serum generated in response to an infectious pathogen is called the
A)Plasma profile
B)Antigenic load
C)Titer
D)Secretory piece
Q2) Which of the following explains why IgM activates complement so effectively?
A)IgM is the principal isotype in the blood
B)Pentameric IgM has five constant regions available to interact with C1
C)IgM is made in the innate immune response and does not require previous exposure to antigen
D)IgM is transported across mucosal epithelium, where antigens are often first encountered by the host
E)IgM binds with high affinity to mast cells in the connective tissue and is strategically located beneath skin and mucosal surfaces
Q3) Describe the process of transcytosis of dimeric IgA.Why is this process especially important in relation to newborns and passive immunity?
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Summarize the sequence of events during HIV infection,beginning with adsorption of the virion on the host cell surface and ending with the release of virions from the infected cell.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Autoimmunity can be induced by infection, drugs, and toxins
B)Some individuals are genetically predisposed to the development of autoimmune disease
C)Autoimmune diseases are classified according to whether they are organ-specific or systemic
D)Graves' disease affects the nervous system
Q3) B-cell immunodeficiencies cause all of the following except
A)Failure to protect mucosal surfaces with neutralizing antibody
B)Increased susceptibility to viral infections
C)Inability to opsonize encapsulated bacteria
D)Loss of toxin neutralization function
E)Severe combined immunodeficiency
Q4) Explain what accounts for the high level of mutation associated with HIV. Why does this pose a problem for the host?
Q5) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Silver nitrate: catheters
B)Ozone: water treatment
C)Peracetic acid: food-processing equipment
D)QUATS: mouthwashes
E)Ethylene oxide: bed laundry
Q2) The microbial death rate associated with antimicrobial agents is
A)Sporadic
B)Logarithmic
C)Latent
D)Linear
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Aseptic: pathogen-free environment
B)Pasteurization: heat to kill pathogens
C)Bacteriocidal: kills all bacteria
D)Sterilization: destruction of all forms of microbes
E)Antisepsis: inanimate objects
Q4) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Disruption of DNA synthesis occurs if _____ is targeted by antibiotics.
A)Bacterial RNA polymerase
B)N-acetylglucosamine
C)Bacterial topoisomerase
D)The A site of the bacterial ribosome
Q2) Bacteria that have evolved the ability to produce ?-lactamase have become resistant to penicillin because all forms of penicillin contain this ring structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cephalosporins are more effective than the penicillins against Gram-negative bacteria because they
A)Are unable to penetrate the outer membrane through the porin molecules
B)Lack a beta-lactam ring
C)Have a longer half-life in vivo
D)Contain Cilastatin, which prevents destruction of the antibiotic by the kidneys
E)Are resistant to ?-lactamase enzyme activity
Q4) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Specialized membrane proteins are activated in which type of antibiotic resistance?
A)Drug inactivation
B)Target modification
C)Efflux pumping
D)Alternate pathway
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair in reference to antibiotic compounds composed of peptide fragments and where they are derived from?
A)Drosocin: insects
B)Nisin: Gram-positive bacteria
C)Apidaecin: insects
D)Defensins: Gram-negative bacteria
E)lantibiotics: Gram-positive bacteria
Q3) Describe the four types of protective mechanism microbes use to develop resistance to antibiotics.Provide an example of each type.
Q4) Why is selective toxicity particularly problematic when developing antimicrobials to treat viral infections?
Q5) Describe the test used to determine whether an antimicrobial agent is microbicidal.
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22
Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Describe three ways in which host defenses can be breached,leading to predisposition to respiratory tract infections.
Q2) If the mucociliary escalator is compromised by a viral infection,an individual is predisposed to the development of bacterial infections of the A)Tonsils
B)Nose
C)Conjunctiva
D)Middle ear
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because of the large number of serotypes of Rhinovirus,it is unlikely that an effective vaccine will ever be developed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: A mild form of pneumonia is called walking pneumonia because there is no need for hospitalization during this infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify and describe the three stages of a pertussis infection.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) What is the most likely mode of transmission for Campylobacter jejuni?
A)Contaminated water
B)Shellfish
C)Chronic human carriers
D)Undercooked poultry
E)Ground meat
Q2) Which of the following organisms is the most appropriate match for traveler's diarrhea?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Campylobacter jejuni
E)Salmonella enterica
Q3) What is the most likely mode of transmission for Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi?
A)Chronic human carriers
B)Contaminated water
C)Shellfish
D)Undercooked poultry
E)Ground meat
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement:
C. trachomatis cannot be grown outside host cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is called the
A)Reticulate body
B)Endocytic body
C)Initial body
D)Elementary body
E)Chancroid body
Q3) Gonococcal resistance to _____ has prompted the development of third-generation anti-gonococcal antibiotics?
A)Cephalosporin
B)Fluoroquinolone
C)Azithromycin
D)Doxycycline
E)Penicillin
Q4) Identify and differentiate between the four types of urinary tract infection (UTI)affecting men.How are UTIs treated?
Q5) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Compare abortive to paralytic polio in relation to the following statement: Recovery can take six months.
A)Abortive
B)Paralytic
C)Both abortive and paralytic
D)Neither abortive or paralytic
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Poliomyelitis is essentially nonexistent in developed countries because of intensive supportive care.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss how prions differ from conventional pathogens that cause persistent infections of the central nervous system.Name four diseases caused by prions in humans.
Q4) The _____ form of rabies occurs in wild animals.
A)Urban
B)Zoonotic
C)Sylvatic
D)Encephalitic
Q5) Describe the three forms of botulism.
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the ID<sub>50</sub> for tularemia is large there are many routes to tularemia infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare the Ebola and Marburg infections.A vaccine is available for A)Ebola
B)Marburg
C)Both Ebola and Marburg
D)Neither Ebola or Marburg
Q3) Identify the causative agent and the three types of tularemia.Compare and contrast the pathology associated with each type of tularemia.
Q4) _____ infectious endocarditis presents with high fever,whereas _____ infectious endocarditis presents with low-grade fever.
A)Acute; chronic
B)Subacute; chronic
C)acute; subacute
D)acute; vegetative
Q5) Describe the life cycle of Trypanosoma cruzi.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Tissue invasion by Candida albicans is facilitated by the formation of A)Yeast cells
B)Koplik's spots
C)Hyphae
D)Cutaneous warts
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement:
Human-to-human transfer of tinea requires close contact because dermatophytes are very infective and have very high virulence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sweat glands that become blocked are susceptible to infection by bacteria,which may result in the formation of
A)A maculopapular rash
B)A vesicular rash
C)Necrotizing fasciitis
D)A comedo
E)A boil
Q4) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
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