Applied Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Applied Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body with a focus on practical application in health, exercise, and clinical settings. This course examines the major body systems including musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, and endocrine and their roles in maintaining homeostasis. Students gain an understanding of anatomical terminology, physiological processes, and the integration of body systems during physical activity and in response to disease or injury. Through lectures and hands-on activities, this course bridges foundational theory with real-world scenarios, preparing students for careers in health sciences, sports, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology 1st Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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26 Chapters
3388 Verified Questions
3388 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protection from environmental hazards is a function of the ________ system.
A) skeletal
B) muscular
C) integumentary
D) endocrine
E) skeletal and muscular
Answer: C
Q2) The common name for the patella is the ________.
Answer: kneecap
Q3) Give an example of an abnormality or problem at one level of organization, and explain how it affects other levels of organization?
Answer: The levels of organization are dependent upon one another. Beginning with the chemical level, if the incorrect atom is put into a protein, then the protein does not function properly. Because this protein is ultimately part of a cell, or the cell's extracellular matrix, the tissue will not work correctly. It is possible that the type of tissue containing this protein is found in an organ, and possibly in many organs, therefore affecting multiple organ systems. Cystic fibrosis is a great example of a faulting protein that affects multiple organ systems.
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Chapter 2: Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adenine and guanine are
A) purines represented by T and C.
B) pyrimidines represented by A and G.
C) purines represented by A and G.
D) pyrimidines represented by T and C.
E) nucleotides represented by A and G.
Answer: C
Q2) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This compound would be
A) a strong base.
B) a weak base.
C) a strong acid.
D) a weak acid.
E) a salt.
Answer: C
Q3) Individual steroids differ in the ________ attached to the carbon rings. Answer: side chains
Q4) The molecule DNA contains a five-carbon sugar called ________. Answer: deoxyribose
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Chapter 3: Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microfilaments
A) are usually composed of myosin.
B) are hollow, filamentous structures.
C) anchor the cytoskeleton to integral proteins of the cell membrane.
D) interact with filaments composed of tubulin to produce muscle contractions.
E) are found in the cytoplasm radiating away from the centrosome.
Answer: C
Q2) Which organelle is most prominent in cells that make large amounts of protein?
A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) chromosome
D) proteosome
E) mitochondria
Answer: B
Q3) The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called
Answer: cytokinesis
Q4) In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as ________.
Answer: chromatin
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Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ secretions are released by the gland cells into the interstitial space.
Q2) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as ________.
Q3) The superficial fascia surrounds all muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of cartilage found in the intervertebral discs is ________ cartilage.
A) ligamentous
B) hyaline
C) elastic
D) fibrous
E) osseous
Q5) The body's first tissue response to any injury is ________.
Q6) In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter.
Q7) Analysis of a glandular secretion indicates that it contains some DNA, RNA, and membrane components such as phospholipids. What kind of secretion is this and why?
Q8) The study of tissues is called ________.
Q9) A biology student accidentally loses the labels of two prepared slides she is studying. One is a slide of an intestine, the other of an esophagus. You volunteer to help her sort them out. How would you decide which slide is which?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
A) melanin.
B) keratin.
C) carotene.
D) perspiration.
E) hemoglobin.
Q2) The tough "horny" superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the A) stratum corneum.
B) stratum lucidum.
C) stratum basale.
D) stratum granulosum.
E) stratum spinosum.
Q3) The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight.
A) sebum
B) hemoglobin
C) melanin
D) carotene
E) keratin
Q4) A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called a(n) ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure at "4."
A) intramembranous bone
B) spongy bone
C) hyaline cartilage
D) periosteum
E) mesenchyme
Q2) The large proximal projection on the femur is termed the A) ramus.
B) trochanter.
C) tuberosity.
D) tubercle.
E) condyle.
Q3) A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a(n) ________ fracture.
Q4) When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates
A) get wider.
B) become narrower.
C) increase slowly.
D) accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness.
E) are hardly affected.
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae?
Q2) Which of these surface features does the ulna possess?
A) olecranon
B) styloid process
C) trochlear notch
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae.
A) spinous processes
B) transverse processes
C) laminae
D) pedicles
E) auric arches
Q4) The bones that give the wrist a wide range of motion are the A) carpals.
B) tarsals.
C) metacarpals.
D) metatarsals.
E) phalanges.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include
A) strong muscular padding.
B) tough capsule.
C) almost complete bony socket.
D) supporting ligaments.
E) all of the above
Q2) Structurally, the public symphysis is classified as a(n) ________ articulation.
Q3) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the A) hand.
B) arm.
C) foot.
D) leg.
E) hip.
Q4) An extension past the anatomical position is known as A) double jointed.
B) extension.
C) flexion.
D) rotation.
E) hyperextension.
Q5) The location where two bones meet is called a joint or a(n) ________.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the
A) Z line.
B) M line.
C) H band.
D) A band.
E) I band.
Q2) What is the single response to each stimulus of a skeletal muscle called?
A) complete tetanus
B) incomplete tetanus
C) twitch
D) wave summation
E) treppe
Q3) The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called
A) incomplete tetanus.
B) complete tetanus.
C) treppe.
D) wave summation.
E) recruitment.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a muscle unit contain?
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the musculoskeletal system, levers are formed by ________.
Q2) Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following, except the A) supraspinatus.
B) infraspinatus.
C) subscapularis.
D) teres minor.
E) rhomboid.
Q3) The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the ________.
Q4) The zygomaticus major muscle acts to A) move the external ear.
B) purse the lips.
C) depress the lower lip.
D) retract and elevate the corner of the mouth.
E) close the eye.
Q5) While playing softball, Sid pulls his hamstring muscle. As a result of the injury, he has difficulty extending and medially rotating his thigh. Which muscle(s) of the hamstring group did he probably injure?
Q6) In a ________ muscle fascicles form a common angel on a tendon.
Q7) A(n) ________ is a rigid structure that moves on a fixed point.
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Chapter 11: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The all-or-none principle states that
A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential.
D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
Q2) The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump
A) is not involved in producing the resting membrane potential.
B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization.
C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization.
D) moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients.
E) depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy.
Q3) At a(n) ________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic membrane.
Q4) The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the ________.
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Chapter 12: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled " 1."
A) anterior white column
B) lateral white column
C) lateral white horn
D) median commissure
E) posterior white column
Q2) Where do somatic motor neurons reside?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
E) 15
Q3) The ________ of each spinal nerve innervates the skin and muscles of the back.
A) white ramus communicantes
B) gray ramus communicantes
C) dorsal ramus
D) ventral ramus
E) dermatome
Q4) The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed ________.
Q5) The neural "wiring" of a single reflex is called a(n) ________.
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Chapter 13: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tract that links the cerebellum with the pons is the
A) superior cerebellar peduncle.
B) inferior cerebellar peduncle.
C) middle cerebellar peduncle.
D) longitudinal fibers.
E) obverse fibers.
Q2) The Roman numeral V indicates the ________ nerve.
A) trigeminal
B) trochlear
C) abduces
D) oculomotor
E) vestibulocochlear
Q3) A fast-adapting tactile receptor that monitors movements across the body surface is a
A) tactile (Merkel) disc.
B) lamellated corpuscle.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
D) Ruffini corpuscle.
E) root hair plexus.
Q4) Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors.
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Splanchnic nerves
A) originate from first-order neurons located in the upper five thoracic segments of the spinal cord.
B) consist of axons that synapse in collateral ganglia.
C) control sympathetic function of structures in the thorax.
D) connect chain ganglia.
E) are formed of parasympathetic fibers.
Q2) Sweat glands contain ________ receptors.
A) nicotinic cholinergic
B) muscarinic cholinergic
C) alpha
D) beta
E) both muscarinic cholinergic and beta
Q3) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called ________ ganglia.
A) intramural
B) collateral
C) chain
D) paravertebral
E) suprarenal
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
Q2) Which of the following is True of the vascular tunic of the eye?
A) provides a route for blood vessels and lymphatics that supply tissues of the eye
B) regulates the amount of light entering the eye
C) secretes and reabsorbs the aqueous humor
D) controls the shape of the lens
E) all of the above
Q3) ________ fills the membranous labyrinth.
Q4) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of
A) light receptors in the eye.
B) mechanoreceptors in the ear.
C) olfactory receptors.
D) lamellated corpuscles.
E) Meissner corpuscles.
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the three phases of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) that constitute the body's response to stress. Which endocrine secretions play dominant roles in the alarm and resistance phases?
Q2) Identify the hormone labeled "5."
A) thyroid-releasing hormone
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) thyroxin (thyroid hormones)
D) thyrotropin
E) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Q3) Liver cells respond to growth hormone by releasing hormones called A) gonadotrophins.
B) prostaglandins.
C) hepatic hormones.
D) somatomedins.
E) glucocorticoids.
Q4) Two hormones that have additive effects are called ________.
Q5) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the ________.
Q6) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
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Q7) Hormones that produce different but complementary results are called ________.
Chapter 17: Blood and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cancer of the white blood cells is called
A) hemophilia.
B) pernicious anemia.
C) leukemia.
D) leukocytosis.
E) jaundice.
Q2) Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood?
A) RBCs
B) platelets
C) antibodies
D) lymphocytes
E) basophils
Q3) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood?
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) reticulocytes
D) lymphocytes
E) neutrophils
Q4) Blood is drained from the lower portion of the large intestine by the ________.
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Chapter 18: The Heart and Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the cardiac cycle, the
A) P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds.
B) QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure.
C) second heart sound occurs during atrial systole.
D) first heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG.
E) both QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure and first heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG.
Q2) The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the ________.
Q3) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the
A) superior vena cava.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) coronary sinus.
D) coronary sulcus.
E) aorta.
Q4) The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called ________.
Q5) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the ________.
Q6) The wall of the ________ rests on the diaphragm.
Q7) The space between the pleural cavities is called the ________.
Q8) A slower-than-normal heart rate is called ________.
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of
A) B lymphocytes.
B) NK cells.
C) T cells.
D) neutrophils.
E) NK cells and T cells.
Q2) ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) cortex
B) capsule
C) subcapsular space
D) trabeculae
E) outer cortex
Q4) The thoracic duct originates from an expanded chamber called the ________.
Q5) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called ________.
Q6) The process by which antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes is called ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottis.
Q2) Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to A) changes in PCO .
B) changes in PO .
C) changes in pH.
D) changes in blood pressure.
Q3) Which of the following is not True about the pharynx?
A) shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems
B) nasopharynx is superior
C) oropharynx connects to oral cavity
D) laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening
E) solids, liquids, and gases pass through
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the A) pharynx.
B) larynx.
C) fauces.
D) vestibule.
E) dip sulcus.
Q2) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid
A) rich in enzymes.
B) rich in bicarbonate ion (buffers).
C) rich in bile.
D) rich in mucus.
E) that contains only amylase.
Q3) ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of plates converging toward a central vein.
A) Kupffer cells
B) Hepatocytes
C) Bile canaliculi
D) Portal areas
E) Hepatic ducts
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energetics
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Q1) The major job of coenzymes in oxidative phosphorylation include all of the following, except
A) release of hydrogen ions.
B) ionization of hydrogen atoms.
C) release of electrons to the first cytochrome of the electron transport chain.
D) the breaking of carbon-carbon covalent bonds.
E) none of the above
Q2) Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, ________ yields energy the quickest.
A) glycogen
B) glucose
C) protein
D) fat
E) All of the above have the same rate.
Q3) Why is the citric acid cycle called a cycle? What substances enter the cycle, and what substances leave it?
Q4) Fatty acids that are necessary for proper health but cannot be synthesized by the body are called ________.
Q5) A(n) ________ contains all of the essential amino acids.
Q6) According to the food pyramid, there are ________ basic food groups.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is greater?
A) the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the beginning of the nephron loop (loop of Henle)
B) the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the bottom of the nephron loop (loop of Henle)
C) The concentrations at the top and bottom are identical.
Q2) Substances secreted by the distal convoluted tubule include
A) hydrogen.
B) penicillin.
C) creatinine.
D) potassium ions.
E) all of the above
Q3) Autoregulation of the rate of glomerular filtration has which of the following properties?
A) depends on changes in the afferent arteriole
B) depends on changes in the mesangial cells
C) depends on changes in the efferent arteriole
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) The filtration pressure at the glomerulus is equal to ________.
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Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The normal pH range for ECF is ________ to ________.
Q2) The ions in highest concentration in the extracellular fluid are
A) sodium and chloride.
B) sodium and potassium.
C) sodium and calcium.
D) sodium and hydrogen.
E) sodium and phosphorus.
Q3) Prolonged vomiting can result in
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q4) When the pH falls below 7.35, a state of ________ exists.
Q5) Aldosterone
A) is secreted in response to decreased blood volume.
B) promotes sodium retention in the kidneys.
C) helps increase blood volume and raise blood pressure.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q6) The principal ions in extracellular fluid are ________ and ________.
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called A) spermatogonia.
B) primary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatids.
E) spermatozoa.
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term uterine tube?
A) has ciliated epithelium
B) has stratified squamous epithelium
C) covers the glans penis or glans clitoris
D) where mature sperm are stored and processed
E) passes through erectile tissue in males
Q3) The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is A) the menses.
B) the proliferative phase.
C) the secretory phase.
D) the follicular phase.
E) the luteal phase.
Q4) The main portion of the uterus is called the corpus or ________.
Q5) The ________ is an opening through which the spermatic cord passes.
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Chapter 26: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Genes that appear on the X chromosome are said to be ________.
Q2) A blastocyst is a(n)
A) extraembryonic membrane.
B) solid ball of cells.
C) hollow ball of cells.
D) portion of the placenta.
E) origin of the urinary bladder.
Q3) The ________ chromosomes determine gender.
Q4) The mesoderm and the trophoblast combine to form the A) amnion.
B) amniotic sac.
C) chorion.
D) allantois.
E) none of the above
Q5) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) amnion
B) chorion
C) decidua basalis
D) placenta
E) endometrium
28
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