Anatomy and Physiology Textbook Exam Questions - 1653 Verified Questions

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Anatomy and Physiology

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body at both the macro and microscopic levels. Students will examine the organization of the bodys major systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive activities, learners will develop an understanding of how these systems interact to maintain health and support bodily functions, as well as the physiological processes underlying homeostasis, movement, and disease states. This course provides essential knowledge for students pursuing careers in health sciences and related fields.

Recommended Textbook

Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr

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25 Chapters

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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science

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Sample Questions

Q1) List the characteristics that are common to all living organisms.

Answer: Organisms are organizeD They have the ability to acquire materials and energy.They can reproduce and grow.Organisms have an evolutionary history.

Q2) The domain Eukarya contains ________ kingdom(s).

A) one

B) two

C) three

D) four

E) five

Answer: D

Q3) Which of the following statements best explains the atomic bomb and the benefit of nuclear physics to cancer therapy?

A) Science and technology are not risk free.

B) Science and technology are wrong.

C) Science and technology are good for mankind.

D) Science and technology are value-neutral.

E) Science and technology always provide value to people.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

A) glucose

B) fructose

C) galactose

D) maltose

E) None of these are monosaccharides.

Answer: D

Q2) The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of

A) protons.

B) neutrons.

C) electrons.

D) protons and neutrons.

E) protons and electrons.

Answer: A

Q3) ATP is called the energy currency of the body because it is a type of electricity.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?

A) cell marker

B) receptor

C) support

D) channel

E) enzyme

Answer: C

Q2) Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane?

A) endosymbiont model

B) fluid-mosaic model

C) plasmagel-plasmasol model

D) lock and key model

E) induced-fit model

Answer: B

Q3) A malfunction with the microtubules would interfere with mitosis and meiosis.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which systems help to adjust the blood's acid-base balance?

A) cardiovascular and muscular

B) cardiovascular and urinary

C) respiratory and urinary

D) respiratory and skeletal

E) muscular and skeletal

Q2) What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue?

A) bone and blood

B) fibroblasts and matrix

C) hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage

D) adipose and cartilage

E) loose fibrous and dense fibrous

Q3) Moving from the outside of the body,the first type of tissue encountered is epithelial tissue.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The cells in bone tissue are found scattered throughout the matrix and are not connected to each other.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood

Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) If your pulse is 70 beats per minute,how fast is your heart beating?

A) 140 beats per minute

B) 35 beats per minute

C) 70 beats per minute

D) 120 beats per minute

E) 80 beats per minute

Q2) Choose the most correct statement concerning capillaries.

A) Networks of capillaries are called capillary nets.

B) Almost all capillaries are open at the same time.

C) The site of nutrients, gas exchange, and waste exchange is the capillaries.

D) Precapillary sphincters contract to increase capillary flow.

E) The walls of capillaries contain smooth muscle.

Q3) Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?

A) right atrium

B) right ventricle

C) left atrium

D) left ventricle

E) aorta

Q4) Compare the structure and function of arteries to that of veins.

Q5) Describe the three general functions of the cardiovascular system.

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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Jennifer received a gamma globulin shot after being exposed to hepatitis.The gamma globulins served what function?

A) blood clotting agents

B) transport molecules for cholesterol and iron

C) antibodies

D) osmoregulatory molecules

E) transport molecules for glucose

Q2) Which term refers to uncontrolled growth of white blood cells?

A) leukemia

B) infectious mononucleosis

C) thrombocytopenia

D) hemophilia

E) thromboembolism

Q3) If a person does not have enough iron in the diet,he or she may suffer from A) acidosis.

B) blood doping.

C) hemolysis.

D) anemia.

E) jaundice.

Q4) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes?

A) thyroid and tonsils

B) tonsils and thymus

C) bone marrow and thymus

D) bone marrow and thyroid

E) tonsils and bone marrow

Q2) In SCID,antibodies are missing,but T cells function normally.

A)True

B)False

Q3) If the lymph system did not do its job,what would be one of the consequences?

A) excess glucose in the blood stream

B) slow reaction time to external stimuli

C) inability to clot

D) edema in the tissues

E) jaundice

Q4) All autoimmune diseases are caused strictly by environmental factors,such as viral infections.

A)True

B)False

Q5) List and describe the body's innate defenses.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Infectious Diseases

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Sample Questions

Q1) People can become resistant to antibiotics.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Where does the life cycle of the Plasmodium protist take place?

A) in mosquitoes

B) in humans

C) in both mosquitoes and humans

D) in snails

E) in pigs

Q3) HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people around the globe.This is due to

A) both cellular and antibody-mediated responses.

B) the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome.

C) HIV's high rate of mutation.

D) the fact that HIV targets T cells.

E) the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection.

Q4) AIDS is the new name for what used to be called consumption.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the structure of a typical virus.

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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion.

A)True

B)False

Q2) List the layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall,starting with the outer layer and moving inward.

Q3) Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?

A) bile

B) sodium bicarbonate

C) amylase

D) trypsin

E) lipase

Q4) What serves as an emulsifying agent for fats in the small intestine?

A) lipase

B) bile

C) amylase

D) pepsin

E) maltase

Q5) The small intestine is longer than the large intestine.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) An X-ray revealed that Josh's lungs were filled with fluid.What is the proper diagnosis of Josh's illness?

A) bronchitis

B) emphysema

C) asthma

D) pulmonary fibrosis

E) pneumonia

Q2) Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system?

A) trachea

B) pharynx

C) esophagus

D) bronchus

E) nasal cavity

Q3) Which of the following can add an additional 2,900 ml of air to the lungs?

A) inspiratory reserve volume

B) expiratory reserve volume

C) residual volume

D) vital capacity

E) tidal volume

Q4) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.

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Chapter 11: Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the analogy where the liver is like the sewage treatment plant,the kidneys are like

A) the trucks that take the waste out of town.

B) the people who produce the waste.

C) trash cans where the waste is stored.

D) the trucks that carry the waste from the people who produce it to the treatment plant.

E) trucks that produce the waste.

Q2) Which substance is removed from the blood during tubular secretion?

A) H<sup>+</sup>

B) Na<sup>+</sup>

C) aldosterone

D) water

E) Cl<sup>-</sup>

Q3) Which of the following is not part of a nephron?

A) glomerular capsule

B) proximal convoluted tubule

C) loop of Henle

D) collecting duct

E) ureter

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13

Chapter 12: Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) From the outside to the inside of a long bone,what is the first tissue encountered?

A) compact bone

B) spongy bone

C) periosteum

D) medullary cavity

E) bone marrow

Q2) When you hit your "funny bone," what are you hitting?

A) olecranon process

B) deltoid tuberosity

C) acromion process

D) head of ulna

E) glenoid cavity

Q3) A simple break of the tibia is when the bone pierces the skin.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone.

A)True

B)False

Q5) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.

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Chapter 13: Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is the innervation ratio in the ocular muscles one motor axon per 23 muscle fibers,whereas in the gastrocnemius muscle,it is one motor axon per 1,000 muscle fibers?

A) There are more nerves in the upper body than in the lower extremities.

B) The ocular muscles require finer control than moving the legs.

C) The innervation ratio has to do with the overall size of the muscle- the bigger the muscle, the fewer the muscle fibers per motor axon.

D) The gastrocnemius muscle contracts much harder than the ocular muscles do.

E) There are fewer muscle fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle than in the ocular muscles.

Q2) What is the biggest muscle (in terms of mass)in the body?

A) gluteus maximus

B) sartorius

C) stapedius

D) quadriceps femoris

E) latissimus dorsi

Q3) One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.

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Chapter 14: Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which way are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic system similar?

A) Both utilize two neurons per message.

B) In both, the preganglionic neuron is shorter than the postganglionic neuron.

C) Both use norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter.

D) Both arise from the sacral spinal nerves.

E) Both are associated with the relaxed state (rest-and-digest).

Q2) List the order of events that will occur during a reflex arc.

Q3) The cerebrum is associated with the

A) two lateral ventricles.

B) third ventricle.

C) fourth ventricle.

D) posterior ventricle.

E) anterior ventricle.

Q4) Which is the largest part of the brain?

A) medulla oblongata

B) midbrain

C) diencephalon

D) cerebellum

E) cerebrum

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The receptors involved in our sense of equilibrium are A) mechanoreceptors.

B) chemoreceptors.

C) nociceptors.

D) thermoreceptors.

E) pain receptors.

Q2) Hearing actually results from the bending of stereocilia.

A)True

B)False

Q3) There are many more olfactory cells than there are taste buds.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Nearsighted people cannot see objects that are close.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch.

A)True

B)False

Q6) List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what they respond to.

Q7) Describe the steps involved in the action of a muscle spindle.

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Chapter 16: Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Peptide hormones

A) are able to pass through the membrane and bind to a receptor in the cytoplasm.

B) bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane.

C) act much more slowly than steroid hormones.

D) initiate gene expression.

E) are composed of a complex of four carbon rings.

Q2) Some of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary have an effect on other glands.Which of the following does not?

A) LH

B) ACTH

C) growth hormone

D) TSH

E) gonadotropic hormone

Q3) List the hormones that are produced by the following endocrine glands,and indicate the target tissue/organ the hormones act upon: hypothalamus,thyroid,thymus,and pineal gland.

Q4) Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic?

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following hepatitis viruses is normally transmitted through contaminated drinking water?

A) A

B) B

C) C

D) D

E) G

Q2) Where does fertilization of the egg normally occur?

A) ovary

B) abdominal cavity

C) fimbria

D) oviduct

E) vagina

Q3) What structure is present within a follicle?

A) labia

B) mucus-secreting glands

C) oocyte

D) clitoris

E) vaginal cleft

Q4) Describe the six stages of the ovarian cycle that a follicle will go through.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Development and Aging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not involved in the increase in blood volume in a pregnant woman?

A) progesterone

B) artery expansion

C) renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

D) an increase in blood oxygen levels

E) sodium and water retention

Q2) The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the

A) mesoderm.

B) endoderm.

C) chorion.

D) allantois.

E) blastula.

Q3) Which of the following is not associated with the egg?

A) corona radiata

B) acrosome

C) zona pellucida

D) cortical granule

E) fertilization membrane

Q4) Describe what occurs during cleavage,growth,morphogenesis,and differentiation.

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis,one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte.

A)True

B)False

Q2) List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.

Q3) Which phase of meiosis matches those of mitosis in regards to the events occurring in the cell?

A) anaphase II and anaphase

B) anaphase I and prophase

C) metaphase I and prophase

D) telophase II and telophase

E) None of the phases of meiosis will match up with mitosis.

Q4) Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?

A) deletion

B) duplication

C) translocation

D) inversion

E) trisomy

Q5) List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Cancer

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Sample Questions

Q1) If someone has no genetic predisposition to cancer,then environmental exposure to carcinogens will not cause them to develop cancer.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Unfortunately,the cancer in Ted's body has spread to multiple sites.Which is the most viable treatment option to handle Ted's cancer?

A) surgery

B) radiation therapy

C) chemotherapy

D) herbal therapy

E) vaccination

Q3) What do BRCA1 and p53 have in common?

A) Both cause breast cancer.

B) Both cause eye cancers.

C) Both are oncogenes.

D) Both are tumor suppressors.

E) Both are inherited as autosomal dominant traits.

Q4) Explain what CAUTION means as the acronym for the warning signs of cancer.

Q5) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.

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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the term "polygenic traits."

Q2) The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square.

A)True

B)False

Q3) If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood,what phenotypes can their children be?

A) all type A

B) all type B

C) types A and O

D) types B and O

E) types A, B, O, and AB

Q4) In a dihybrid cross,if the resulting ratios are 1:1:1:1,what are the genotypes of the parents?

A) GgRr x ggrr

B) GGRR x ggrr

C) GgRr x GgRr

D) Gg x Rr

E) GG x RR

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Chapter 22: Dna Biology and Technology

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand?

A) DNA polymerase

B) DNA helicase

C) DNA replicase

D) DNA ligase

E) DNA telomerase

Q2) Both DNA and RNA are

A) found in the cytosol.

B) transcribed.

C) translated.

D) found in the nucleus.

E) considered the genetic material of the cell.

Q3) How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse?

A) 1%

B) 10%

C) 35%

D) 85%

E) 99%

Q4) Transcribe and then translate the following DNA code: AATCGGTTCCATCGG

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Chapter 23: Human Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) What energy source was used by Stanley Miller in his 1953 experiment to replicate the Earth's early environment?

A) electric spark

B) heat

C) ultraviolet radiation

D) gamma radiation

E) sunlight

Q2) We do not have any fossils of unicellular prokaryotes.The first organisms to appear in the fossil record are unicellular eukaryotes.

A)True

B)False

Q3) There are two important aspects to biological evolution: descent from a common ancestor and the fossil record.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft-bodied animals,like jellyfish?

A)True

B)False

Q5) Describe the four stages of chemical and biological evolution.

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Chapter 24: Ecology and the Nature of Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) What kind of an organism is an earthworm?

A) producer

B) herbivore

C) carnivore

D) omnivore

E) detritus feeder

Q2) There are no reservoirs of carbon for the carbon cycle.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food web?

A) leaves

B) detritus

C) birds

D) earthworms

E) shrews

Q4) Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities?

A)True

B)False

Q5) List and explain the six steps in the hydrological cycle.

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Chapter 25: Human Interactions With the Biosphere

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Q1) A sustainable society is able to provide the same amount of goods and services for future generations as it does for the current one,while preserving biodiversity.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is not an unsustainable practice of society?

A) reduction in population growth rate

B) eating more meat than vegetables

C) using more freshwater resources for agriculture than in homes

D) using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides

E) deforestation and desertification

Q3) Which of the following is considered a benefit of a dam?

A) electricity generation

B) altering river flow

C) loss of water by evaporation

D) seepage into underlying rock beds

E) sediment buildup

Q4) List and describe the criteria that are used to measure quality of life.

Q5) Describe the factors that are contributing to the biodiversity extinction crisis we are currently experiencing.

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