Allied Health Sciences
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that prepares students to support healthcare delivery through a broad understanding of diagnostic, therapeutic, and preventive services. The course covers foundational knowledge in anatomy, physiology, medical terminology, and patient care, while introducing various allied health professions such as medical laboratory technology, radiography, physiotherapy, and nutrition. Emphasis is placed on communication skills, ethical practice, teamwork, and the integration of technology in modern healthcare settings, equipping students with versatile skills to assist healthcare professionals and improve patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 4th Edition by Christine
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Page 2
Dorresteyn
Chapter 1: Introduction to Immunity and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies are secreted by:
A) plasma cells.
B) B cells.
C) T cells.
D) dendritic cells.
Answer: A
Q2) The process by which leukocytes are attracted to a specific area by chemical messengers is called:
A) diapedesis.
B) degranulation.
C) chemotaxis.
D) opsonization.
Answer: C
Q3) Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in the:
A) peripheral blood.
B) connective tissue.
C) thymus.
D) lymph nodes.
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Nature of Antigens and the Major
Histocompatibility Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability to respond to antigen depends on which of the following factors?
A) Age
B) Proper nutrition
C) Genetic predisposition
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) A processed antigen first encounters and binds to class I MHC molecules in the:
A) nucleus.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) endosomal compartment.
D) membrane surface.
Answer: B
Q3) MHC molecules containing beta-2-microglobulin:
A) contain alpha and beta transmembrane polypeptides.
B) participate in the activation of CD4 T cells.
C) are determined by MHC-A, MHC-B, and MHC-C genes.
D) are determined by MHC-DR genes.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major function of C-reactive protein?
A) Opsonization
B) Binding hemoglobin
C) Causing vasodilation
D) Promoting clot formation
Answer: A
Q2) The phagosome of a macrophage is a membrane-bound vesicle that contains:
A) enzymes.
B) reactive oxygen intermediates.
C) ingested pathogens.
D) perforin and granzymes.
Answer: C
Q3) Which enzyme protects host cells rather than destroying invading cells?
A) Alpha-1 antitrypsin
B) Lysozyme
C) Granzyme
D) Myeloperoxidase
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A T cell that is rarely found in secondary lymphoid organs and recognizes a limited number of native epitopes is known as:
A) a helper T cell.
B) a gamma-delta T cell.
C) a cytotoxic T cell.
D) an alpha-beta T cell.
Q2) Which marker would be found on pre-B cells?
A) CD3
B) Mu heavy chains
C) CD16
D) IgD
Q3) T cells differ from B cells in which of the following ways?
A) T cells express surface immunoglobulin.
B) B cells express CD19 but not CD3.
C) T cells express CD19, CD3, and CD4.
D) B cells express surface immunoglobulin and CD3.
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Chapter 5: Antibody Structure and Function
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Q1) Which immunoglobulin activates the classical complement pathway?
A) IgD
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Q2) Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
A) Fab
B) CL
C) CH
D) Hinge region
Q3) Which antibody is found mainly as a dimer in mucosal secretions?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
Q4) The idiotype of an antibody is located on which region?
A) CH
B) CL
C) VH + VL
D) Fc
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cytokines
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person steps on a rusty nail,which punctures her skin and activates resident macrophages to secrete IL-1 beta.The fever that develops is an example of what type of cytokine signaling?
A) Autocrine
B) Paracrine
C) Endocrine
D) Kallikrein
Q2) What is a main function of chemokines?
A) Inhibit the immune response
B) Enhance synthesis of acute-phase reactants
C) Establish a concentration gradient to guide cell movement
D) Protect cells from viral invasion
Q3) A protein released from a virally infected cell that protects other cells from viral invasion best describes:
A) IL-3.
B) interferon-alpha.
C) TNF.
D) IL-4.
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Chapter 7: Complement System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lectin pathway is initiated by the presence of which of the following?
A) Antibody
B) C3
C) Mannose
D) C1qrs
Q2) A decreased CH50 and a decreased AH50 would indicate a low amount of which of the following complement components?
A) C4
B) C3
C) C4 binding protein
D) Factor B
Q3) Formation of the membrane attack complex (C5b-C9)is stopped by which factor?
A) Factor H
B) Factor I
C) C1INH
D) S protein
Q4) What is cleaved by C3bBb?
A) C3
B) C5
C) C6
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Chapter 8: Safety and Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the acronym PASS stand for?
A) Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep
B) Pass, activate, sweep, scram
C) Pull, alarm, squeeze, sweep
D) Pass, activate, scram, scream
Q2) In performing routine quality control on a particular laboratory test,a high-quality control value is obtained that changes the mean.What type of change does this represent?
A) Trend
B) Standard deviation
C) Shift
D) Central tolerance
Q3) Which part of a quality management program involves the use of external controls?
A) Preexamination
B) Examination
C) Postexamination
D) Reexamination
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Chapter 9: Principles of Serological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The probability that a person with a positive screening test actually has the disease screened for is called:
A) sensitivity.
B) specificity.
C) positive predictive value.
D) negative predictive value.
Q2) A blowout pipette would be labeled:
A) TD.
B) TC.
C) ML.
D) SD.
Q3) A blood sample is processed,and the resulting serum is pink.This indicates:
A) a normal serum sample.
B) a hemolyzed serum sample, but hemolysis is common and can be ignored.
C) a hemolyzed serum sample, which may adversely affect testing.
D) definite evidence of bacterial contamination.
Q4) An antibody titer is defined as the reciprocal of the:
A) last serial dilution tube in which a positive reaction is still visible.
B) first serial dilution tube in which a negative reaction is achieved.
C) diluent divided by the solvent.
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Chapter 10: Precipitation and Agglutination Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an agglutination reaction,the antibody isotype that most effectively overcomes the electrostatic repulsion between particles is:
A) IgA.
B) IgE.
C) IgG.
D) IgM.
Q2) When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not normally found on them,this is known as:
A) direct agglutination.
B) passive agglutination.
C) reverse passive agglutination.
D) hemagglutination.
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of a passive agglutination test?
A) The antigen is naturally found on particles.
B) Antigen molecules are artificially bound to particles.
C) Antibody is attached to particles.
D) The antigen-antibody reaction is competitive (no agglutination indicates a positive result).
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Chapter 11: Labeled Immunoassays
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the following equation,what is the ratio of bound radioactive (*)antigen to bound patient antigen (w:x)??8Ag* + 4Ag + 6Ab ---> (w)Ag*Ab + (x)AgAb + (y)Ag* + (z)Ag
A) 1:6
B) 1:3
C) 2:1
D) 8:6
Q2) An antigen is fixed to a microscope slide,then incubated with patient serum.After washing,fluorescently labeled anti-human immunoglobulin is applied.After an additional wash,the slide is inspected with a fluorescent microscope.This technique is called:
A) direct immunofluorescence.
B) indirect immunofluorescence.
C) fluorescence polarization.
D) autofluorescence.
Q3) The signal measured in a fluorescence polarization immunoassay is the:
A) wavelength of absorbed light.
B) angle of light scattering.
C) intensity of light emission.
D) orientation of emitted light waves.
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13
Chapter 12: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which technique is the signal amplified instead of the target DNA?
A) Branched DNA amplification
B) Polymerase chain reaction
C) Transcription-mediated amplification
D) Solution hybridization
Q2) Sanger chain termination sequencing differs from polymerase chain reaction because:
A) only three nucleotide bases are used.
B) DNA polymerase is not needed.
C) only one primer is used.
D) the process is isothermal.
Q3) In the process of translation,the addition of a particular amino acid to a growing protein may be specified by:
A) one specific mRNA nucleotide.
B) only one specific combination of three mRNA nucleotides.
C) one of several specific combinations of three mRNA nucleotides.
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14
Chapter 13: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the flow cytometer by which of the following?
A) Chemiluminescence
B) Fluorescence
C) Optical density
D) Radioactivity
E) Scatter
Q2) What is meant by "gating" in flow cytometry?
A) The chromatic arrangement of cellular populations
B) The process by which one cell population adheres to another population
C) An electronic window separating subpopulations of cells
D) An electronic device measuring all populations of cells
Q3) Identify the difference between batch and random-access analyzers.
A) Batch analyzers are not automated.
B) Random-access analyzers only analyze one sample at a time.
C) Batch analyzers only do one type of analysis at a time.
D) Random-access analyzers cannot be used for stat samples.
Q4) In flow cytometry,fluorescence is usually used to determine:
A) intrinsic cell parameters.
B) extrinsic cell parameters.
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Chapter 14: Hypersensitivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type I hypersensitivity can be treated by injecting a specific recombinant humanized IgG called omalizumab.This antibody:
A) binds allergens, preventing them from binding patient IgE.
B) occupies Fc receptors on mast cells, preventing binding by patient IgE.
C) binds to a heavy-chain domain on patient IgE, preventing the IgE from binding to mast cells.
D) inhibits Th2 cells that would otherwise promote excess IgE production.
Q2) Immune injury resulting from the localization of immune complexes in blood vessels and tissues describes which hypersensitivity reaction?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q3) Contact dermatitis can be characterized by:
A) formation of antigen-antibody complexes.
B) immediate sensitization of Th1 cells.
C) Langerhans cells acting as antigen-presenting cells.
D) decreased cytokine production.
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16
Chapter 15: Autoimmunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is considered a systemic autoimmune disease?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Graves disease
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Q2) Antibodies directed against thyroglobulin represent a significant finding in which of the following autoimmune diseases?
A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D) Contact dermatitis
Q3) Systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by:
A) HLA-DR antigens expressed on thyroid epithelial cells.
B) increase in cells lining the synovial membrane.
C) absence of immune complexes.
D) presence of dsDNA antibodies.
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Chapter 16: Transplantation Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine a patient's HLA type using the complement-dependent cytotoxicity test,which of the following must be used?
A) Viable lymphocytes
B) Purified T cells
C) A single antiserum from a commercial source
D) Complement from patient serum
Q2) In a patient who is exhibiting signs of graft-versus-host disease,which cell type is most likely responsible for the reaction?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Macrophages
D) Eosinophils
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of an acute graft-versus-host disease episode?
A) The reaction occurs within 100 days of the transplant.
B) The reaction involves the skin, gastrointestinal (GI) tract, and liver.
C) The reaction produces a fibrous condition of the mouth and eyes.
D) The reaction involves the recipient's bone marrow.
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Chapter 17: Tumor Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoembryonic antigen
A)Hepatocellular carcinoma
B)Ovarian cancer
C)Colorectal, breast, or lung cancer
D)Breast cancer only
E)Pancreatic and gastrointestinal cancers
Q2) A tumor that is classified as malignant is described as:
A) a disorganized mass that is not encapsulated and can invade nearby organs.
B) a slow-growing, organized mass of encapsulated cells.
C) usually confined to the skin.
D) an area of swelling that shows no abnormal growth of cells.
Q3) Tumor-associated antigens are expressed only in tumor cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carcinogenesis is thought to be initiated by the exposure of the host to factors such as bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 18: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cytogenetic abnormality is associated with an excellent prognosis in children with B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?
A) t(12:21)(p13;q22)
B) t(14:18)(p13;q22)
C) t(9;22)
D) Hypodiploidy
Q2) What is the correct order of protein migration,starting at the cathode and moving to anode,following serum protein electrophoresis?
A) Albumin, gamma, alpha 1, alpha 2, beta
B) Albumin, alpha 1, alpha 2, beta, and gamma
C) Gamma, beta, alpha 2, alpha 1, albumin
D) Beta, gamma, alpha 2, and alpha 1, albumin
Q3) Which of the following findings is a diagnostic criterion for monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance?
A) Serum monoclonal protein greater than 3 g/dL
B) Plasma cell count lower than 10% of total cells in bone marrow
C) Increased calcium in the blood
D) Presence of CRAB features
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Chapter 19: Immunodeficiency Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accumulation of immune complexes in renal glomeruli or joints (lupus-like syndromes)can be caused by a deficiency in the complement component:
A) C5.
B) MASP.
C) properdin.
D) C2.
Q2) The most common complement component deficiency is:
A) C1q.
B) factor B.
C) MASP.
D) C2.
Q3) Which of the following statements about severe combined immunodeficiency is true?
A) It may be associated with a signal transduction defect.
B) It is accompanied by hypergammaglobulinemia.
C) Patients can be vaccinated with live virus.
D) It occurs only in males.
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21
Chapter 20: Serological and Molecular Detection of Bacterial Infections
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of bacterial culture in diagnosing an infection?
A) Standardized, selective media can differentiate bacteria based on their ability to grow.
B) All bacteria can be easily evaluated by culture.
C) The method is very rapid.
D) The method rarely poses risks to laboratory personnel.
Q2) Antibodies detected by reacting patient serum with rickettsial antigens,followed by incubation with an anti-immunoglobulin with a fluorescent tag,could be used to diagnose:
A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia.
C) stomach ulcers.
D) rheumatic fever.
Q3) Stevens-Johnson syndrome,in which the top layer of the skin dies and sheds,is caused by:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C) Rickettsia rickettsii.
D) Helicobacter pylori.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Spirochete Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with syphilis.Which of the following laboratory tests can be used to monitor the effectiveness of therapy in this patient?
A) RPR
B) TP-PA
C) C-reactive protein
D) Monospot test
Q2) Using the reverse algorithm method for syphilis diagnosis,a positive initial test and a negative follow-up test could be interpreted as:
A) a false negative in the treponemal test.
B) a false positive in the nontreponemal test.
C) past syphilis infection with subsequent decline in nontreponemal antibody titers.
D) current syphilis, likely in the secondary stage.
Q3) RPR stands for:
A) reagin plasma reactive.
B) reactive phosphate reagent.
C) rapid plasma reagin.
D) random positive reagin.
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Chapter 22: Serological and Molecular Diagnosis of
Parasitic and Fungal
Infections
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with coccidioidomycosis.This infection can be classified as:
A) subcutaneous.
B) systemic.
C) opportunistic.
D) superficial.
Q2) Eosinophilia and an increase in which immunoglobulin play a role in the defense against parasites?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
Q3) To correctly determine an infection with toxoplasmosis within the last 12 months,both IgG and IgM should be negative.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Serology and Molecular Detection of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons alpha and beta help the host in defense against viral infections by:
A) enhancing antibody production.
B) stimulating cytotoxic T cells.
C) activating Toll-like receptors.
D) inhibiting viral replication.
Q2) The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Epstein-Barr virus.
D) HIV.
Q3) The most common cause of congenital infections is:
A) cytomegalovirus.
B)rubella.
C) varicella-zoster virus.
D) human T-cell lymphotropic virus type I
Q4) Which virus is transmitted primarily by aerosolized respiratory droplets?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Hepatitis E
C) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type I
D) Varicella-zoster virus
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Chapter 24: Laboratory Diagnosis of HIV Infection
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Q1) Of the designated subtypes of HIV,which is the most common in the United States?
A) Subtype B
B) Subtype C
C) Subtype A
D) Subtype K
Q2) Which of the following is considered the best indicator of immune function in HIV-infected individuals?
A) HIV-1 viral load
B) Presence of HIV-2 antibodies
C) CD4 T-cell count
D) Absolute lymphocyte count
Q3) Histoplasmosis (disseminated or extrapulmonary)is an opportunistic infection of stage 3 HIV infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most commonly used HIV drug-resistance assays are based on:
A) culture of HIV in the presence of antiretroviral drugs.
B) detection of genetic mutations in HIV.
C) ability of HIV antibodies to react with drug-resistant viral strains.
D) typing for the HLA-B27 allele.
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Chapter 25: Immunization and Vaccines
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Q1) Active immunity
A) Immunization with a specific antigen
B) Transfer of antibodies from immunized host to nonimmune host
C) Transfer of cells, usually lymphocytes, from an immune host to a nonimmune host
Q2) Inactivated vaccine
A) Vaccine produced by incorporating a gene from a pathogenic microorganism into the genome of nonpathogenic bacteria, yeast, or other cells
B) Vaccine in which intact, killed viruses or bacteria retain antigenic properties to induce a predominantly humoral immune response
C) The use of bacteria or viruses that have been weakened
D) Chemically inactivated bacterial exotoxins that induce the production of antibodies
Q3) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is an example of adoptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Passive immunity involves the activation of IgD.
A)True
B)False
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