Allied Health Sciences
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of health care professions that support, complement, or supplement the roles of physicians and nurses in the healthcare system. This course introduces students to the foundation and scope of allied health professions, including laboratory technology, physiotherapy, radiology, optometry, medical imaging, respiratory therapy, and more. Students will explore the history, evolution, and current trends in allied health, emphasizing teamwork, communication, and ethical practices. The curriculum covers essential topics such as patient care, diagnostic procedures, rehabilitation, and the integration of technology in healthcare, preparing students for further specialization or entry-level positions in various allied health sectors.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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27 Chapters
1314 Verified Questions
1314 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to the umbilicus?
A) groin
B) armpit
C) navel
D) patellar
Answer: C
Q2) This organ is located in the ventral cavity,thoracic cavity,but not in the mediastinum.
A) lung
B) liver
C) stomach
D) heart
Answer: A
Q3) Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
A) umbilical
B) hypogastric
C) right iliac
D) right hypochondriac
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a solution in which water is the solvent?
A) colloidal suspension
B) aqueous solution
C) tincture
D) isotope
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following acts as a catalyst?
A) an acid
B) an enzyme
C) a buffer
D) ATP
Answer: B
Q3) What is the energy-transferring molecule?
A) H
B) ATP
C) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
D) NaCl
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perfume the skunk makes his presence known by A) filtration.
B) osmosis.
C) active transport.
D) diffusion.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best describes normal saline?
A) radioactive
B) hemolytic to red blood cells
C) isotonic
D) crenating to red blood cells
Answer: C
Q3) Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells?
A) hypotonic
B) isotonic
C) hypertonic
D) water
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An NH<sub>2</sub> group and a COOH group is most characteristic of a(n)
A) fatty acid.
B) amino acid.
C) monosaccharide.
D) ketoacid.
Q2) Which of the following is least related to urea?
A) hepatic synthesis
B) nitrogenous waste
C) chemical formula is NH4+
D) excreted in the urine
Q3) Which of the following is most descriptive of glucose?
A) disaccharide
B) peptide
C) glycerol
D) carbohydrate
Q4) With which process are both DNA and mRNA involved?
A) transcription
B) translation
C) glycolysis
D) ATP production
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which highly coiled microorganism resembles a corkscrew?
A) staphylococcus
B) streptococcus
C) bacillus
D) spirillum
Q2) This group includes single-cell animal-like microbes such as amebas.
A) bacilli
B) arthropods
C) viruses
D) protozoa
Q3) Tetanus,tuberculosis,and diphtheria are
A) staphylococcal infections.
B) caused by a spirochete.
C) localized infections.
D) bacterial infections.
Q4) The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n)
A) arthropod vector.
B) causative organism.
C) spirochete.
D) fungus.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following is intercellular matrix most abundant?
A) bone
6-PAGE 5
Test Bank
B) simple squamous epithelium
C) blood
D) simple columnar epithelium
Q2) A ligament is best described as
A) malignant.
B) glandular epithelium.
C) tough band of connective tissue.
D) squamous epithelium.
Q3) Which of the following is least descriptive of epithelial tissue?
A) squamous
B) glial
C) cuboidal
D) columnar
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a consequence of a congenital absence of eccrine glands?
A) jaundice
B) vitiligo
C) acne vulgaris
D) inability to regulate body temperature
Q2) What is the color of skin that is supplied by oxygen-poor blood?
A) flushed
B) jaundiced
C) cyanotic
D) pink
Q3) What is the result of the contraction of the arrector pili muscles?
A) nail growth
B) goosebumps
C) sweating
D) tanning
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9
Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The obturator foramen is the
A) large foramen in the coxal bone.
B) opening through which the medulla oblongata descends as the spinal cord.
C) meeting place of the ilium,ischium,and pubis.
D) space between the two iliac crests.
Q2) At which joint do the scapula and upper arm bone meet?
A) humeroulnar
B) radiocarpal
C) glenohumeral
D) sternoclavicular
Q3) Which of the following is located at the ends of a long bone?
A) diaphysis
B) periosteum
C) epiphysis
D) medullary cavity
Q4) This bone is formed by the ischium,ilium,and pubis.
A) sacrum
B) cranium
C) coxal bone
D) breastbone
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This flat muscle covers the forehead and raises the eyebrows (for a "surprised" look).
A) frontalis
B) zygomaticus
C) masseter
D) buccinator
Q2) The quadriceps femoris group and the hamstrings
A) lie along the anterior part of the leg.
B) flex the foot.
C) lie along the thigh.
D) shrug the shoulders.
Q3) Which of the following forms crossbridges with actin?
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) T-tubules
C) myosin
D) sarcolemma
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Broca's area
A) is concerned with motor speech.
B) allows the person to hear and interpret sound.
C) is located in the temporal lobe.
D) coordinates eye movements as in scanning a page in a book.
Q2) Which of the following is located within the subarachnoid space?
A) blood
B) lymph
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) cytoplasm
Q3) The primary somatosensory area and the primary motor area are separated by A) Broca's area.
B) the central sulcus.
C) the pia mater.
D) the longitudinal fissure.
Q4) The astrocytes
A) support and protect the neurons and help to form the blood-brain barrier.
B) secrete myelin.
C) secrete cerebrospinal fluid.
D) are concentrated within the choroid plexus.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ulnar,radial,and median nerves supply the A) forearm and hand.
B) breathing muscles.
C) jaw.
D) hip and thigh.
Q2) If the phrenic nerve were cut or severed,the patient would not be able to A) walk.
B) speak.
C) breathe.
D) swallow.
Q3) A person with ___________ is most likely to require eyedrops in order to moisten the cornea.
A) Bell's palsy
B) anosmia
C) a severed optic nerve
D) an impaired gag reflex
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels,thereby elevating blood pressure.Which of the following drug classifications lowers blood pressure?
A) vagolytic
B) sympatholytic
C) parasympathomimetic
D) vagomimetic
Q2) Muscarinic receptors are
A) activated by norepinephrine.
B) located on the effector organs of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) activated by catecholamines such as adrenalin and dopamine.
D) activated by ACh.
Q3) Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)?
A) enzyme that degrades norepinephrine
B) found within all cholinergic nerve terminals
C) associated with sympathetic activity
D) associated with adrenergic fibers
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14
Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This ossicle picks up vibrations from the tympanic membrane.
A) stapes
B) malleus
C) stirrup
D) incus
Q2) The conjunctiva
A) covers the cornea.
B) is a mucous membrane.
C) contains blood vessels that nourish the retina.
D) secretes aqueous humor.
Q3) The gustatory sensation is most related to the A) eighth cranial nerve.
B) rods and cones.
C) organ of Corti.
D) taste buds.
Q4) This layer of the eyeball supplies blood to the retina.
A) rods and cones
B) sclera
C) choroid
D) iris
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) PTH
A) lowers plasma calcium.
B) stimulates osteoclastic activity.
C) is an iodine-containing hormone.
D) stimulates osteoblastic activity and causes blood calcium to increase.
Q2) Growth hormone
A) is secreted by the adenohypophysis.
B) stimulates growth of the musculoskeletal system.
C) is also called somatotropic hormone.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) hormones of the anterior pituitary gland:ACTH,prolactin,TSH,oxytocin
B) steroids:cortisol,aldosterone,testosterone
C) secretions of the gonads:estrogen,progesterone,testosterone
D) hormones secreted by the thyroid gland:T3,T4,calcitonin
Q4) Lactogenic hormone
A) is also called oxytocin.
B) is a gonadotropin.
C) stimulates the mammary glands to make milk.
D) exerts its greatest effect on the gonads.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes prothrombin and fibrinogen?
A) thrombolytic agents
B) anticoagulants
C) clotting factors
D) plasminogen activators
Q2) Which function is most associated with fibrinogen,prothrombin,and calcium?
A) blood coagulation
B) platelet aggregation
C) fibrinolysis
D) blood cell production
Q3) What is the name of the condition that is caused by a diet that is deficient in iron?
A) leukopenia
B) anemia
C) jaundice
D) kernicterus
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure "sees" oxygenated blood?
A) tricuspid valve
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) right semilunar valve
Q2) Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve?
A) left heart
B) bicuspid
C) semilunar
D) chordae tendineae
Q3) Under what condition is blood most likely to flow "backward" (e.g.,from the left ventricle back into the left atrium)?
A) pulmonary artery hypertension
B) left ventricular hypertrophy
C) an insufficient mitral valve
D) pulmonary edema
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systole and diastole describe the function of the A) pericardium.
B) SA node.
C) myocardium.
D) mediastinum.
Q2) Vagal stimulation to the heart causes
A) a (+)inotropic effect.
B) heart rate to slow.
C) cardiac output to increase.
D) stroke volume to increase.
Q3) Vagal stimulation on the heart
A) increases the force of myocardial contraction.
B) increases the amount of blood that flows into the heart from the vena cava.
C) causes tachycardia.
D) slows the heart rate.
Q4) Cardiac output
A) is determined by heart rate and pulse.
B) decreases in response to sympathetic nerve stimulation.
C) increases in response to vagal discharge.
D) is determined by heart rate and stroke volume.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth,blood shunts from the aorta to the
A) pulmonary artery.
B) pulmonary veins.
C) coronary artery.
D) vena cava.
Q2) Which of the following blood vessels brings unoxygenated blood to the liver?
A) celiac trunk
B) jugular vein
C) portal vein
D) saphenous
Q3) The renal arteries
A) are part of the splanchnic circulation.
B) are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
C) exit from the celiac axis.
D) deliver oxygenated blood to the kidneys.
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures has the greatest effect on vascular resistance?
A) veins
B) arterioles
C) heart
D) capillaries
Q2) Which artery is most often used to measure the blood pressure?
A) carotid artery
B) brachial artery
C) femoral artery
D) circle of Willis
Q3) What is the pulse pressure when a person's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg?
A) 120
B) 80
C) 40
D) Can't determine the pulse pressure from this information.
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21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The subclavian vein
A) receives lymph from the large lymphatic ducts.
B) pumps blood into the large lymphatic ducts.
C) forms the thoracic duct.
D) is called a lacteal.
Q2) What happens if the lymphatic vessels and nodes are removed from the right axillary region?
A) All lymph will drain directly into the superior vena cava.
B) The right arm will become gangrenous from lack of oxygen.
C) The right arm will become edematous.
D) The patient will experience anginal pain.
Q3) The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into the A) jugular vein.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) portal vein.
D) subclavian veins.
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is most common in people with AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)?
A) anaphylaxis
B) autoimmune diseases
C) infections
D) hypertension
Q2) Which of the following is characterized by a local tissue response to T cell activity?
A) anaphylaxis
B) wheezing,edema,and hypotension
C) contact dermatitis
D) immunotolerance
Q3) This cell engages in cell-to-cell combat.
A) erythrocyte
B) platelet
C) B cell
D) T cell
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures is located in the lungs?
A) pharynx
B) epiglottis
C) alveoli
D) larynx
Q2) Boyle's law states the relationship between volume and A) O2.
B) CO2.
C) pressure.
D) H2O.
Q3) The collection of mucus in the lower airways is most likely to cause A) laryngospasm.
B) pneumothorax.
C) atelectasis.
D) pharyngitis.
Q4) The pleural membranes
A) line the respiratory passages.
B) form the bronchioles.
C) are serous membranes.
D) are confined to the mediastinum.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the chief organ of drug detoxification.
A) pancreas
B) cecum
C) liver
D) stomach
Q2) Which of the following does not communicate with the common bile duct?
A) cystic duct
B) duodenum
C) portal vein
D) hepatic ducts
Q3) Which of the following structures allow(s)the stomach to expand?
A) chief cells
B) the appendix
C) villi
D) rugae
Q4) The cecum,colon,and rectum are parts of this structure.
A) hepatic portal system
B) small intestine
C) large intestine
D) biliary tree
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the meaning of an elevated serum creatinine?
A) The kidneys are making too much creatinine.
B) Too much creatinine is being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries.
C) The kidneys are not filtering creatinine;this is a sign of kidney failure.
D) The kidneys are excreting too much urine.
Q2) This substance is filtered by the glomerulus and is excreted in the urine;there is minimal reabsorption.
A) albumin
B) glucose
C) sodium
D) creatinine
Q3) What is the urine-making structure of the kidney?
A) trigone
B) renal pyramid
C) renal capsule
D) nephron unit
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Chapter 25: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is caused by vomiting stomach contents?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypernatremia and blood volume expansion
C) hypocalcemic tetany
D) alkalosis
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) cations:sodium,potassium,calcium
B) acid-base imbalances:acidosis and alkalosis
C) lines of defense against acid-base imbalance:buffers,lungs,kidneys
D) transcellular fluids:aqueous humor,cerebrospinal fluid,plasma
Q3) More than 99% of this cation is stored in the bones and teeth.
A) potassium
B) hydrogen
C) chloride
D) calcium
Q4) Most diuretics increase urine production by blocking the effects of this cation.
A) calcium
B) bicarbonate
C) chloride
D) sodium
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) This uterine lining is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone.
A) perineum
B) myometrium
C) fundus
D) endometrium
Q2) Implantation
A) occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts.
B) is achieved by the morula.
C) is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst.
D) occurs within the ovaries.
Q3) The corpus luteum
A) is located within the uterus.
B) is a placental structure.
C) secretes gonadotropins.
D) secretes large amounts of progesterone.
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) extraembryonic membranes:amnion,chorion,yolk sac,allantois
B) stages of labor:dilation,expulsion,lactation
C) ovarian structures:corpus luteum,corpus albicans,graafian follicle
D) genes:dominant,recessive,codominant
Q2) What is the name of the developmental process that refers to the shaping of the cell cluster?
A) implantation
B) conception
C) morphogenesis
D) fertilization
Q3) Which hormone literally means "swift birth" and initiates labor?
A) prostaglandin
B) progesterone
C) oxytocin
D) prolactin
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