Allied Health Chemistry Practice Exam - 2205 Verified Questions

Page 1


Allied Health Chemistry Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Allied Health Chemistry is an introductory course designed to provide students pursuing careers in health professions with a fundamental understanding of chemical concepts relevant to biological systems and medical practice. The curriculum covers key topics including atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, reactions, solutions, acids and bases, and properties of organic and biochemical compounds. Emphasis is placed on the application of chemistry in physiology, pharmacology, diagnostics, and disease processes, enabling students to relate foundational chemical principles to real-world situations encountered in healthcare environments.

Recommended Textbook Chemistry for Today General Organic and Biochemistry 8th Edition by Seager

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25 Chapters

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Matter, measurements, and Calculations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ethanol (ethyl alcohol)has a density of 0.789 g/mL at 25°C.If 75.5 g of ethanol is needed for a reaction,what volume in mL should be added to the reaction container?

A) 95.7 mL

B) 59.6 mL

C) 0.0105 mL

D) 78.9 mL

Answer: A

Q2) Which of the following is a derived unit of the S.I.system?

A) kilogram

B) meter

C) liter

D) mole

Answer: C

Q3) Over the counter (OTC)medicines are dangerous because they are not regulated.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Atoms and Molecules

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Q1) How many moles of hydrogen molecules (H<sub>2</sub>)would be required to produce two moles of hydrogen peroxide (H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>)?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: B

Q2) You discover a new element which consists of two isotopes.The first isotope,<sup>243</sup>X (mass = 242.45 u)comprises 40.000% of the total.The second isotope,<sup>248</sup>X (mass = 247.11 u)accounts for the rest.What would be the average atomic mass for your new element?

A) 242.45 u

B) 244.32 u

C) 245.25

D) 247.11

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Electronic Structure and the Periodic Law

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following subshells has the higher energy?

A) 4s

B) 4p

C) 4d

D) 4f

Answer: D

Q2) A bromine atom has a larger radius than a chlorine atom.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Which element has the largest atomic radii?

A) I

B) F

C) Li

D) Cs

Answer: D

Q4) Hydrogen is a noble gas.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Forces Between Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) In one system of naming multiple cations of an element,ic is used to indicate the cation with the higher charge.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The name for the compound formed between Co<sup>3+</sup> and O<sup>2-</sup> is cobalt(II)oxide.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When magnesium forms an ion,it would be represented as _____ .

A) Mg<sup>-</sup>

B) Mg<sup>2-</sup>

C) Mg<sup>+</sup>

D) Mg<sup>2+</sup>

Q4) H<sub>2</sub>O is a binary compound.

A)True

B)False

Q5) K<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup> have the same electronic configuration as argon.

A)True

B)False

Page 6

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Chapter 5: Chemical Reactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a combination reaction?

A) SO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2SO<sub>3</sub>

B) 2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> + 5O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 4CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O

C) 2H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 2H<sub>2</sub>O + O<sub>2</sub>

D) AgNO<sub>3</sub> + NaCl \(\rarr\) AgCl + NaNO<sub>3</sub>

Q2) In ionic compounds,metals have a positive oxidation number.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Barium sulfate is often ingested to aid in the diagnosis of GI tract disorders.The equation for its production is Ba<sup>2+</sup> + SO \(\rarr\) BaSO<sub>4</sub>(s).What type of equation is this?

A) a total ionic equation

B) a full equation

C) an oxidation-reduction equation

D) a net ionic equation

Q4) Water is a product when any inorganic acid reacts with any inorganic base.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: The States of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a liquid sample is taken from sea level to a higher elevation,what happens to the external (atmospheric)pressure on the liquid and the boiling point of the liquid?

A) both decrease

B) both increase

C) pressure goes down,but boiling point goes up

D) pressure goes up,but boiling point goes down

Q2) Using d = m/V,what is the volume (V)of a solid that has a density of 3.14g/cm<sup>3</sup> and has a mass of 7.04 grams?

A) 22.1 cm<sup>3</sup>

B) 22.11 cm<sup>3</sup>

C) 2.24 cm<sup>3</sup>

D) 2.242 cm<sup>3</sup>

Q3) Which of the following specific temperatures is defined in terms of vapor pressure?

A) boiling point

B) standard temperature

C) decomposition temperature

D) critical mass

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8

Chapter 7: Solutions and Colloids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements relating to a solution is not correct?

A) A solution may contain more than one solute.

B) A solution may contain only one solute.

C) Water is always the solvent in a solution.

D) More than one correct response given.

Q2) What is the underlying process involved in dialysis?

A) mixtures are homogenous.

B) osmosis is due to a difference in solution concentrations.

C) pressure is applied to the blood squeezing out the impurities.

D) an electrical potential separates the blood from the impurities.

Q3) Solvents and hydrated ions can usually pass though dialyzing membranes

A)True

B)False

Q4) The more soluble a substance is,the faster it will dissolve.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Attractive forces between solute and solvent molecules are an important factor in solution formation.

A)True

B)False

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Reaction Rates and Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) The only way to increase the rate of a reaction is to increase the concentration of the reactants.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A patient complains about having painful muscle spasms after working on a very hot day.The patient's skin is moist and cool,heart rate is near normal as well as his/her body temperature.What should you not do for them?

A) get them to a cool place

B) give them a caffeinated drink

C) sponge them with cool water

D) encourage them to lie down and rest

Q3) A room filled with a 2:1 mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gases can be safely inhaled.However,with a single spark,it can react explosively.Since the explosion would be considered a spontaneous process,what did the spark provide?

A) endothermic energy

B) exothermic energy

C) free energy

D) activation energy

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Chapter 9: Acids,bases,and Salts

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Sample Questions

Q1) The term,strong acid,refers to

A) the number of hydrogens attached to the acid molecule.

B) the speed at which it will dissolve metal.

C) if it will cause burns to the skin.

D) the ability for the acid to completely dissociate in solution.

Q2) Which of the following substances could behave as an Arrhenius base?

A) Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>

B) Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>

C) K<sub>2</sub>S

D) KOH

Q3) A patient comes to you suffering from a battery acid burn (sulfuric acid).What is the best thing to use to neutralize the acid,while you continue to run cool water over the affected area?

A) a 1 M sodium hydroxide solution (NaOH)

B) a 1 M sodium bicarbonate solution (NaHCO<sub>3</sub>)

C) a 1 M acetic acid solution (CH<sub>3</sub>COOH)

D) a 1 M carbonic acid solution (H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>)

Q4) Nitric acid,HNO<sub>3</sub>,is a weak acid.

A)True

B)False

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Radioactivity and Nuclear Processes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Technetium-99m is used in medical diagnosis by injecting a solution and watch for the pattern of emissions.A 0.325 g sample was injected into a person,and the emission rate indicates that there are approximately 0.01016 grams of Tc-99 left.How much time has passed since the injection? Tc-99 has a half-life of 6 hours.

A) 24 hours

B) 30 hours

C) 36 hours

D) Not enough data.

Q2) Nuclear power plants have control rods that absorb neutrons to control the reaction.What is the composition of the control rods?

A) steel

B) concrete

C) U-238

D) carbon

Q3) A desirable characteristic of a radioisotope used as a tracer is that it produces a radioactive daughter.

A)True

B)False

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12

Chapter 11: Organic Compounds: Alkanes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following compounds can exhibit structural isomerism?

A) propane

B) methane

C) butane

D) ethane

Q2) A general formula for cycloalkanes is _____ .

A) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2n+2</sub>

B) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub>

C) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub><sub>-2</sub>

D) C<sub>n</sub>H<sub>2n</sub><sub>-4</sub>

Q3) How many structural isomers are possible for compounds with a molecular formula C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Q4) Since all alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons,all of the carbon atoms are aligned in one continuous chain.

A)True

B)False

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Unsaturated Hydrocarbons

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Sample Questions

Q1) A characteristic of alkynes is a region of strong polarity caused by the multiple bond.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Color is a property associated with which type of hydrocarbon?

A) alkanes

B) alkenes

C) alkynes

D) cycloalkanes

Q3) Which is a difference between butane and butene?

A) butane burns and butene does not

B) the presence of a double bond

C) they are isomers

D) the presence of a triple bond

Q4) CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>2</sub> is the formula for a saturated hydrocarbon.

A)True

B)False

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Alcohols, phenols, and Ethers

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Sample Questions

Q1) An ether can be produced by dehydration of a pair of alcohols.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Thiols are not found in nature.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the acid catalyzed dehydration of an alcohol,the acid catalyst

A) removes an hydrogen atom from -OH the to form an intermediate.

B) removes the -OH to form water.

C) protonates the intermediate to form the product.

D) protonates the -OH to form an intermediate.

Q4) One reason that a person taking antidepressants should not consume alcoholic beverages,is that alcohol is also a depressant.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What is the group that distinguishes alcohols from other classes of compounds?

A) carboxyl

B) carbonyl

C) hydroxy

D) amide

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Chapter 14: Aldehydes and Ketones

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the major difference between a cyclic hemiacetal and a cyclic acetal?

A) The cyclic hemiacetal is an alcohol,whereas the cyclic acetal is an ether.

B) The cyclic hemiacetal is an acid,and the cyclic acetal is a base.

C) The cyclic hemiacetal contains more carbons in the ring than the cyclic acetal.

D) All of the responses are correct.

Q2) Ketones react readily with the Tollens' reagent.

A)True

B)False

Q3) What structural characteristic is shared by the aldehydes and the ketones?

A) They both are straight chain compounds.

B) Both of these compound classes have as the smallest compound a 5 carbon skeleton.

C) Aldehydes and ketones both contain a carbonyl carbon.

D) Aldehydes and ketones have no shared characteristics.

Q4) The addition of an alcohol molecule to an aldehyde carbonyl group gives a hemiacetal.

A)True

B)False

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Carboxylic Acids and Esters

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nitrate esters are found in some

A) flavoring agents.

B) detergents.

C) food preservatives.

D) explosives.

Q2) Two molecules of a carboxylic acid are joined together by two hydrogen bonds.This is referred to as a(n)____.

A) dimer

B) amide

C) ester

D) carboxylate

Q3) The simplest of the carboxylic acids is formic acid.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is an ingredient in soaps?

A) sodium benzoate

B) sodium propionate

C) sodium stearate

D) zinc 10-undecylenate

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Chapter 16: Amines and Amides

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Sample Questions

Q1) Amines function chemically as organic _____.

A) acids

B) bases

C) salts

D) more than one response is correct

Q2) The predominant form of 1-propanamine at low pH values is CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-NH<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup>.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Morphine sulfate is used as an anesthetic in preference to morphine.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The "fight or flight" hormone is _____.

A) epinephrine

B) amphetamine

C) serotonin

D) dopamine

Q5) t-Butylamine is a tertiary amine.

A)True

B)False

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Carbohydrates

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Sample Questions

Q1) A short description of a stereoisomer would be?

A) Stereoisomers are all of the isomers for compounds that can have in excess of two isomers.

B) Stereoisomers are those compounds that can have two isomers that are straight chain and the right side is different from the left side.

C) Stereoisomers are two isomers that resemble each other in the sense that one of the isomers is the mirror image of the other.

D) There is more than one correct response.

Q2) Worldwide,the major use of glucose is for energy storage.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following carbohydrates yields invert sugar upon hydrolysis?

A) fructose

B) sucrose

C) starch

D) glycogen

Q4) CH<sub>4</sub> could exist as a pair of enantiomers.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following fatty acids has the lowest melting point?

A) C<sub>19</sub>H<sub>39</sub>COOH

B) C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>33</sub>COOH

C) C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>29</sub>COOH

D) C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>31</sub>COOH

Q2) Biodiesel is a fuel that is derived from specific types of resources.Which of the following would not be considered a good source for biodiesel?

A) beef fat

B) corn oil

C) microalgae

D) shale oil

Q3) The flexibility of cell membranes is due to strong hydrogen bonding between lipids.

A)True

B)False

Q4) One should include olive oil in a healthy diet because it is high in monounsaturated fatty acids,high in antioxidants and very low in calories.

A)True

B)False

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Proteins

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Sample Questions

Q1) \(\alpha\)-Keratin,the protein of hair and skin,has extensive sections with the ____ secondary structure.

A) beta-pleated sheet

B) alpha-helix

C) alpha-pleated sheet

D) beta-helix

Q2) Ferritin functions as an iron storage protein.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The quaternary structure of hemoglobin contains two subunits.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A hormone sometimes given to induce labor is _____ .

A) prolactin

B) FSH

C) glucagon

D) oxytocin

Q5) A zwitterion is dipolar;it possesses a positive end and a negative end.

A)True

B)False

21

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Chapter 20: Enzymes

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does a zymogen differ from an apoenzyme?

A) An apoenzyme is deactivated by a cofactor.

B) A zymogen is initially lacking an active site.

C) A zymogen is activated by removing part of its structure.

D) An apoenzyme is produced from a holoenzyme + coenzyme

Q2) The number of substrate molecules acted upon per minute by one molecule of enzyme is referred to as the

A) optimum number.

B) optimum rate.

C) international unit.

D) turnover number.

Q3) Cofactors and enzymes form a tightly bound complex without which enzymes will not function.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What is the function of an inhibitor?

A) slow down the rate of reaction

B) inhibit the effect of temperature and pH changes on enzyme activity

C) inhibit substrate effects on other chemicals in the reaction environment

D) slow down the interaction between the solvent and the substrate

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

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Q1) DNA replication by DNA polymerase occurs in the ____ direction on the template strand.

A) 5'\(\rarr\)3'

B) 3'\(\rarr\)5'

C) both ways

D) none of these

Q2) The DNA molecule contains complementary nitrogen bases.There are four bases,but they pair as A-T and G-C with no cross pairing.How is this accomplished?

A) A and G are polar leaning heavily to the positive.T and C are negative.A-G and T-C repel each other and cannot pair.

B) A and G do not have their polar sites in the appropriate location to pair,and the same is true of T and C.

C) A and T have two matching but opposite polar sites.G and C have 3 polar sites.The two poles will not attract and maintain attraction for three poles.

D) There is more than one correct response.

Q3) Ligases are usually used to cleave DNA molecules in genetic engineering.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Energy for Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which fat-soluble vitamin is essential for the proper utilization of calcium and phosphorous in the body?

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin D

C) Vitamin E

D) Vitamin K

Q2) Which of the following nutritional guidelines is now officially endorsed in the United States?

A) Minimum Daily Requirements (MDR)

B) Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA)

C) Daily Value (DV)

D) more than one response is correct

Q3) One of the products of photosynthesis is _____ .

A) O<sub>2</sub>

B) CO<sub>2</sub>

C) H<sub>2</sub>O

D) More than one response is correct.

Q4) The reactive site in NADH is the phosphate groups.

A)True

B)False

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Phosphofructokinase,one of the enzymes which regulates the glycolysis pathway,is activated by _____ .

A) glucose

B) citrate

C) ADP

D) ATP

Q2) Glycogen breakdown is increased in muscle tissue by the presence of epinephrine.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following can be used to fuel the glycolysis pathway?

A) glucose

B) glucose and fructose

C) fructose and galactose

D) glucose,fructose and galactose

Q4) The first step in the processes of glycolysis is a phosphorolation.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that is self-regulating.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Lipid and Amino Acid Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chylomicrons are aggregates of triglycerides,phosphoglycerides,and cholesterol complexed with proteins.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Ten amino acids can be synthesized from intermediates of

A) glycolysis and the citric acid cycle.

B) glycolysis and the electron transport chain.

C) the urea cycle and the electron transport chain.

D) the urea cycle and the citric acid cycle.

Q3) The entire urea cycle occurs within the matrix of the mitochondria.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The liver is the most important site for the biosynthesis of fatty acids and triglycerides.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Of the three ketone bodies,acetone is produced at the highest levels in our bodies.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 25: Body Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) The life sustaining biochemical reactions take place mostly in the intracellular fluid.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Blood pressure across capillary walls is

A) highest at the venous end of the capillary.

B) highest at the arterial end of the capillary.

C) the same at the venous and arterial ends of the capillary.

D) zero all along the capillary.

Q3) Normal urine contains 10% urine salts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Chemically,plasma and interstitial fluid are nearly identical.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Lipid transport occurs by the formation of a suspension in blood plasma.

A)True

B)False

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