AIS and Data Analytics Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
AIS and Data Analytics explores the integration of Accounting Information Systems (AIS) with modern data analytics techniques to support effective decision-making in organizations. The course covers the design, implementation, and management of AIS, emphasizing their role in collecting, processing, and securing financial data. Students will learn how to use data analytics tools to analyze large volumes of accounting information, detect anomalies, predict trends, and provide valuable business insights. Topics include database management, internal controls, data visualization, and the ethical considerations associated with data use in accounting. Through case studies and hands-on exercises, students will develop practical skills in leveraging AIS and analytics for strategic advantage.
Recommended Textbook
Accounting Information Systems 14th GLOBAL Edition by Marshall B. Romney
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Chapter 1: Conceptual Foundations of Accounting Information Systems
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Q1) Information is ________ when two knowledgeable people independently produce the same information.
A)verifiable
B)relevant
C)reliable
D)complete
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following tradeoffs between characteristics of useful information is least objectionable?
A)incomplete information received on a timely basis
B)irrelevant information received in an understandable format
C)unreliable information easily accessible
D)verifiable information received in unreadable format
Answer: A
Q3) How can an AIS add value to the organization?
Answer: An AIS can increase the efficiency and effectiveness of the value chain by improving the quality and lowering costs of products or services,improving efficiency of operations,improving decision making,enhancing the sharing of knowledge,improving the efficiency and effectiveness of its supply chain and improving the internal control structure.
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Chapter 2: Overview of Transaction Processing and Enterprise Resource Planning Systems
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Q1) Identify the item below that is not one of the four different types of data processing activities.
A)creating
B)reading
C)using
D)deleting
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Batch processing ensures that stored information is always current.
B)Batch input is more accurate than on-line data entry.
C)On-line batch processing is a combination of real-time and batch processing.
D)Batch processing is not frequently used.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is an example of source data automation?
A)a utility bill
B)POS (point-of-sale)scanners in retail stores
C)a bill of lading
D)a subsidiary ledger
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Systems Documentation Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a beginning,an ending,or a connection to another procedure?
A)#13
B)#14
C)#15
D)#16 Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not true about program flowcharts?
A)Program flowcharts are a high-level overview of all business processes.
B)Program flowcharts document the processing logic of computer programs.
C)A program flowchart will exist for every computer process symbol on a system flowchart.
D)Program flowcharts increase computer programmer productivity. Answer: A
Q3) Which symbol would be used in a flowchart to represent a computer process?
A)#1
B)#2
C)#5
D)#3 Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Relational Databases
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Q1) Pat Owen is chair of the National Grizzly Society,which maintains a database of all grizzly bears within the United States.One table will store the name,birth date,and other characteristics of all of the grizzly bears that have been registered.Each grizzly bear is uniquely identified by a registration number.A second table will contain data that link each grizzly bear to its male and female parents by means of their registration numbers.The primary key in the second table is A)name.
B)birth date.
C)the same as the primary key in the first table.
D)a combination of primary keys in the first table.
Q2) Kitchen World is changing its inventory system from a file-oriented system to a relational database system.Identify and design at least three tables that would be needed to capture data for Kitchen World's inventory.Each table should include a primary key,three non-key attributes,and foreign keys as necessary.Make up data values for two records within each table.
Q3) Describe the differences between the data definition language (DDL),data manipulation language (DML),and the data query language (DQL).
Q4) Explain the types of attributes that tables possess in a relational database.
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Chapter 5: Computer Fraud
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Q1) The fraud that requires the least computer knowledge or skill involves
A)altering or falsifying source data.
B)unauthorized use of computers.
C)tampering with or copying software.
D)forging documents like paychecks.
Q2) Most fraud perpetrators have previous criminal record; they were dishonest and disrespected members of their community.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At Facebook,an automated system for verifying configuration value errors backfired,causing every single client to try to fix accurate data it perceived as invalid.Since the fix involved querying a cluster of databases,that cluster was quickly overwhelmed by hundreds of thousands of queries a second.The resultant crash took the Facebook system offline for two-and-a-half hours.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some of the distinguishing characteristics of fraud perpetrators?
Q5) Why do fraudulent acts often go unreported and are therefore not prosecuted?
Q6) Describe some of the most frequent fraudulent financial reporting schemes.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Computer Fraud and Abuse Techniques
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Q1) The deceptive method by which a perpetrator gains access to the system by pretending to be an authorized user is called
A)masquerading.
B)bluebugging.
C)eavesdropping.
D)podslurping.
Q2) Describe the various form of spoofing.Select one type of spoofing and search for an actual case about the spoofing.Discuss what has happened and provide recommendations as to how the spoofing could have been prevented.
Q3) Jerry Schneider was able to amass operating manuals and enough technical data to steal $1 million of electronic equipment by A)scavenging.
B)skimming.
C)Internet auction fraud.
D)cyber extortion.
Q4) Identify theft has always been a federal crime.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe ways to help minimize social engineering.
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Chapter 7: Control and Accounting Information Systems
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Q1) Describe the three principles that apply to the information and communication process.
Q2) Applying the COBIT5 framework,monitoring is the responsibility of
A)the CEO.
B)the CFO.
C)the board of directors.
D)all of the above
Q3) A control procedure designed so that the employee that records cash received from customers does not also have access to the cash itself is an example of a(n)
A)preventive control.
B)detective control.
C)corrective control.
D)authorization control.
Q4) Which of the following is not a factor of internal environment according to the COSO Enterprise Risk Management Framework?
A)Analyzing past financial performance and reporting.
B)Providing sufficient resources to knowledgeable employees to carry out duties.
C)Disciplining employees for violations of expected behavior.
D)Setting realistic targets for long-term performance.
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Chapter 8: Controls for Information Security
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the essential criteria for successfully implementing each of the principles that contribute to systems reliability,as discussed in the Trust Services Framework?
A)Developing and documenting policies.
B)Effectively communicating policies to all outsiders.
C)Designing and employing appropriate control procedures to implement policies.
D)Monitoring the system and taking corrective action to maintain compliance with policies.
Q2) The Trust Services Framework reliability principle that states access to the system and its data should be controlled and restricted to legitimate users is known as A)availability.
B)security.
C)privacy.
D)integrity.
Q3) Explain the value of penetration testing.
Q4) Social engineering attacks often take place over the Internet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe what a man-trap is and how it contributes to information security.
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Privacy Controls
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Q1) The system and processes used to issue and manage asymmetric keys and digital certificates are known as
A)asymmetric encryption.
B)certificate authority.
C)digital signature.
D)public key infrastructure.
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding virtual private networks (VPN)?
A)VPNs provide the functionality of a privately owned network using the Internet.
B)Using VPN software to encrypt information while it is in transit over the Internet in effect creates private communication channels, often referred to as tunnels, which are accessible only to those parties possessing the appropriate encryption and decryption keys.
C)It is more expensive to reconfigure VPNs to include new sites than it is to add or remove the corresponding physical connections in a privately owned network.
D)The cost of the VPN software is much less than the cost of leasing or buying the infrastructure (telephone lines, satellite links, communications equipment, etc.)needed to create a privately owned secure communications network.
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Chapter 10: Processing Integrity and Availability Controls
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Q1) It is impossible to eliminate the risk of downtime.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the primary objective of ensuring systems and information are available for use whenever needed?
A)To minimize system downtime.
B)To minimize system expense.
C)To maximize system processing speed.
D)To maximize sales.
Q3) Cancellation and storage of documents means
A)documents are defaced and stored.
B)documents are defaced before being shredded.
C)cancellation data are copied from documents before they are stored.
D)data are copied from a document and stored before it is being shredded.
Q4) According to COBIT 5,what should be the common features for locating and designing data centers housing mission-critical servers and databases?
Q5) Discuss ways that can help ensure the processing integrity of electronic voting.
Q6) Define and contrast a recovery point objective and a recovery time objective.Provide a numeric example.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Auditing Computer-Based Information Systems
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Q1) Auditing involves the
A)collection, review, and documentation of audit evidence.
B)planning and verification of economic events.
C)collection of audit evidence and approval of economic events.
D)testing, documentation, and certification of audit evidence.
Q2) Organizing the audit team and the physical examination of assets are components of which two separate audit stages?
A)Planning; evaluating audit evidence.
B)Planning; collecting audit evidence.
C)Collecting audit evidence; communicating audit results.
D)Communicating audit results; evaluating audit evidence.
Q3) Embedded audit molecules can be used to continually monitor the system and collect audit evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Auditors have the ability to change detection risk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define and give examples of embedded audit modules.
Q6) How is a financial audit different from an information systems audit?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Revenue Cycle: Sales to Cash Collections
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Q1) Which of the following controls can minimize the threat of failure to bill?
A)Separation of billing and shipping functions.
B)Use of cash registers.
C)Bar-code and RFID technology.
D)Restriction of access to master data.
Q2) Which of the decisions below is not ordinarily found as part of the revenue cycle?
A)What credit terms should be offered?
B)How often should accounts receivable be subjected to audit?
C)How can customer payments be processed to maximize cash flows?
D)What are the optimal prices for each product or service?
Q3) A type of business document in which part of the original document is returned to the source for further processing is called a ________ document.
A)feedback
B)returnable
C)closed-loop
D)turnaround
Q4) A credit sale should always be denied if it exceeds the customer's credit limit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Expenditure Cycle: Purchasing to Cash
Disbursements
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Q1) Which of the following is least likely to be a major criterion in vendor selection?
A)prices of goods
B)credit rating of the vendor
C)quality of goods
D)ability to deliver on time
Q2) A JIT inventory system would be especially useful for a company that manufactures A)toys associated with new movie releases.
B)toothpaste.
C)alarm clocks.
D)motor oil.
Q3) Ngai Nhung is the sales manager at Hung Technologies.At lunch with the company CEO,Ngai proudly announced that he had received a ________ from a client.The client had just requested a large quantity of components from Hung.
A)blanket purchase order
B)voucher
C)purchase order
D)purchase requisition
Q4) Define and describe the EOQ approach to inventory management.
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Chapter 14: The Production Cycle
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Q1) The operations list shows
A)the labor and machine requirements.
B)the steps and operations in the production cycle.
C)the time expected to complete each step or operation.
D)all of the above
Q2) An organization can implement which of the following controls to reduce the threat of inventory theft or damage?
A)review and approval of fixed asset acquisitions
B)improved and more timely reporting
C)better production and planning systems
D)document all movement of inventory through the production process
Q3) Which of the following is not proposed to be an advantage of activity-based costing?
A)Better product mix decisions.
B)Better product pricing decisions.
C)Less complex than traditional cost systems.
D)Better decision.
Q4) What is PLM and how management can use it to improve product design?
Q5) Discuss the criticisms of traditional cost accounting methods.
Q6) Explain what CIM means and its benefits.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Human Resources Management and Payroll Cycle
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Q1) Why are accurate cumulative earnings records important?
Q2) A report of wages and withholdings for each employee is called
A)form W-2.
B)form W-3.
C)form 1099-Misc.
D)form 941.
Q3) Which type of payroll report contains information such as the employees' gross pay,payroll deductions,and net pay in a multicolumn format?
A)Payroll register.
B)Deduction register.
C)Employee earnings statement.
D)Federal W-4 form.
Q4) Identify the two types of payroll deductions and give two examples of each type.
Q5) A report of income paid to independent contractors is called
A)form W-2.
B)form W-3.
C)form 1099-Misc.
D)form 941.
Q6) What is the difference between a payroll service bureau and a professional employer organization? Page 17
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Chapter 16: General Ledger and Reporting System
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Q1) Marina Filimena is an accountant at Jasmina Hair Products.Marina received the following error message while making an adjusting entry to the general ledger: "The account number referenced in your journal entry does not exist.Create a new account?"
This is an example of a A)validity check.
B)closed loop verification.
C)zero-balance check.
D)completeness test.
Q2) If you believe not all adjusting entries were posted in the general ledger,you should prepare a general ledger control report listing journal vouchers in A)numerical sequence.
B)chronological order.
C)general ledger account number order.
D)any order, since you have to review them all anyway.
Q3) Explain the purpose of a journal voucher file.
Q4) How is a balanced scorecard used to assess organizational performance?
Q5) The SEC requires U.S.companies to use XBRL when submitting their filings.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Database Design Using the Rea Data Model
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Q1) Data modeling is an element of A)systems analysis.
B)conceptual design.
C)system analysis and conceptual design.
D)system analysis and physical design.
Q2) Besides modeling entities as rectangles,there are no industry standards for entity-relationship diagrams.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In creating an entity-relationship diagram,________ is anything about which an organization wants to collect and store information.
A)a data model
B)an entity
C)a schema
D)a tuple
Q4) What is the minimum number of agents that must participate in each REA event?
A)0
B)2
C)1
D)3
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Chapter 18: Implementing an Rea Model in a Relational Database
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Q1) When using an REA diagram to develop a database,a many-to-many relationship must be
A)broken into two, one-to-one relationships.
B)combined into a single one-to-one relationship.
C)combined into a one-to-many relationship.
D)broken into two, one-to-many relationships.
Q2) Which of the following attributes would typically be included in the table that stores data about the Customer entity in a relational database?
A)Invoice number.
B)Credit limit.
C)Product code.
D)Backorder.
Q3) Which table is most likely to have a concatenated key?
A)Inventory.
B)Sales.
C)Sales-inventory.
D)Accounts receivable.
Q4) Merging redundant resources will affect cardinalities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Special Topics in Rea Modeling
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Q1) Identify the entity that stores most of the data typically found in the employee master file.
A)Time Worked.
B)Employee.
C)Salary.
D)Payroll.
Q2) The Interview event stores detailed data about each job interview.Since hiring only happens once,but there may have been several interviews,Interview is linked to the Hire Employees event in a(n)________ relationship.
A)1:N
B)1:1
C)M:N
D)1:M
Q3) Digital assets will affect the REA models of the revenue and expenditure cycles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the benefits of an integrated enterprise-wide data model?
Q5) Give an example of an M:N Agent-Event relationship.
Q6) Why might an REA diagram show relationships between agents?
Q7) Why is the event Issue Debt often modeled as a separate event entity?
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Chapter 20: Introduction to Systems Development and Systems Analysis
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Q1) In which tool is a prioritized list of projects contained?
A)The project development plan.
B)The implementation plan.
C)The master plan.
D)The program evaluation and review technique plan.
Q2) All of the elements of the system come together in which step of the systems development life cycle?
A)Conceptual design.
B)Implementation and conversion.
C)Physical design.
D)Systems analysis.
Q3) Which planning technique does not show the relationships among various activities?
A)Gantt chart.
B)PERT.
C)the critical path method.
D)VAN.
Q4) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of the four different methods for gathering data during a systems survey.
Q5) Describe the physical design stage of the systems development life cycle.
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Chapter 21: Ais Development Strategies
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Q1) In which of the following cases is outsourcing likely to be the best solution to the firm's data processing needs?
A)Peterson International is a trenchcoat wholesaler to retailers around the world. Sixty percent of sales orders are taken during the months of August and September. Peterson needs a system to manage online ordering and fulfillment.
B)Battlegoat Investment Strategies manages investors' portfolios and provides services to wealthy customers. The firm needs a system that will pull together selected investment data from a variety of sources and that allows account managers to prepare customized reports.
C)Yachtman Limited is in the business of buying businesses, managing them for a few years, then selling them for a profit. The firm requires a flexible system that will allow it to manage the types of businesses it controls.
D)Desalinas LLC, manages the construction of desalinization plants. It needs a system that will allow it to manage the construction process from bid to billing.
Q2) Describe end-user computing and the advantages and risks involved.
Q3) Discuss how an organization can develop custom software.
Q4) Describe the important characteristics of extreme programming (XP).
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Chapter 22: Systems Design, implementation, and Operation
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Q1) A(n)________ system test uses copies of real transaction and file records.
A)acceptance test
B)debugging test
C)test data processing
D)walk-through
Q2) What is the objective of output design? What are the output design considerations? What are the various categories of outputs?
Q3) Identify the element below that is not an objective of the output design phase of the physical systems design stage of the SDLC.
A)Determining the nature of reports.
B)Determining the timing of reports.
C)Determining the content of reports.
D)Determining the cost of reports.
Q4) Describe the post-implementation review activity.
Q5) Describe at least four considerations during controls design.
Q6) Describe structured programming.
Q7) Write one question that should be asked about each of the controls design considerations.
Q8) What are the purposes of a conceptual systems design report? Page 25
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