Advanced Practice Nursing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Advanced Practice Nursing is designed to deepen students' understanding of the role, scope, and influence of advanced practice nurses (APNs) across diverse healthcare settings. The course explores advanced clinical decision-making, complex case management, health assessment, diagnostic reasoning, evidence-based interventions, and leadership within interdisciplinary teams. Emphasis is placed on the integration of theory and research into practice, the development of professional competencies in specialized fields such as nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, nurse anesthetist, and nurse midwife roles, as well as policy and ethical considerations shaping advanced nursing practice today. Through theoretical frameworks and clinical experiences, students prepare to lead initiatives that improve patient outcomes and drive innovative change in healthcare delivery.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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20 Chapters
432 Verified Questions
432 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2914
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a chromosome centromere?
A)Connecting sister chromatids to form a chromosome
B)Preventing the chromosome arm tips from unraveling
C)Allowing chromatids to separate during DNA replication
D)Ensuring that DNA replication proceeds only in the 3'-to-5' direction
Answer: A
Q2) Why does a person with normal chromosomes only have two alleles for any single gene trait?
A)A minimum of two alleles is required for the expression of monogenic traits.
B)When a dominant allele is paired with a recessive allele, only the dominant allele is expressed, and the recessive allele is silent.
C)One allele for the monogenic trait is on the paternally derived chromosome, and the other allele is on the maternally derived chromosome.
D)Expression of more than two alleles of any single-gene trait results in enhanced expression of recessive alleles and suppressed expression of dominant alleles.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the relationship among genes, DNA, and proteins?
A)DNA is composed of a series of amino acids that provide the directions for synthesizing proteins.
B)Protein is composed of DNA that is organized into specific gene sequences called amino acids.
C)A gene is a section of DNA that provides the directions for synthesizing a specific protein.
D)Proteins are the nitrogenous bases that form double strands of DNA in its helical shape.
Answer: C
Q2) Which feature or characteristic is most critical for protein function or activity?
A)The number of amino acids
B)The sequence of amino acids
C)Deletion of all active exons
D)Transcription occurring after translation
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation,
and
Gametogenesis
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the consequence of synapsis and crossing over?
A)Pure segregation of alleles along the metaphase plate
B)Tetraploidy, in which there are four copies of each chromatid
C)Diploidy of chromosome number and haploidy for DNA content
D)Random recombination of genetic material between paternal and maternal chromatids
Answer: D
Q2) Why is meiosis II for both spermatogenesis and oogenesis called an "equatorial division?"
A)The amount of cytoplasm in the secondary sex cells is evenly divided among the final cells.
B)The actual number of chromosomes within the resulting cells is the same as before this division.
C)Crossing over stops, and the bivalent chromosomes coil and condense in preparation for segregation.
D)The division of both the two secondary spermatocytes and the two secondary oocytes results in a total of eight gametes.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is it possible for two parents with achondroplasia to have a child who is of normal stature?
A)Yes, because the disorder is autosomal dominant, and if both parents are heterozygous, the child could inherit two normal stature gene alleles.
B)Yes, if the parent who is homozygous for the gene mutation demonstrates variable expressivity of the health problem.
C)No, because the disorder is autosomal recessive, and the child can only inherit two mutated gene alleles for the health problem.
D)No, because homozygosity for this health problem is lethal.
Q2) Mating of a female rabbit with a long tongue with a male rabbit that had a short tongue resulted in 12 offspring. Two had long tongues, two had short tongues,and eight had medium-length tongues. Which allele combinations explains the tongue lengths of the offspring?
A)Short tongue dominant; long tongue recessive
B)Short tongue recessive; long tongue dominant
C)Short tongue dominant; long tongue dominant
D)Short tongue dominant; long tongue X-linked recessive
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Chapter 5: Epigenetic Influences on Gene Expression
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the microbiome is true?
A)The microbiome does not undergo further changes after development is complete.
B)With aging, its influence on health is reduced.
C)The microbiome is necessary for good health.
D)Identical twins have identical microbiomes.
Q2) How is eating a diet high in broccoli thought to reduce cancer risk?
A)Increasing the excretion rate of foods known to be methyl donors
B)Increasing histone acetylation, turning on anticancer genes
C)Decreasing the rate of microDNA synthesis and activity
D)Decreasing the exposure of carcinogens to nuclear DNA
Q3) What part of a chromosome's DNA is altered by histone modification?
A)Complementary base pairing
B)Attachment of phosphate groups
C)Development of telomeric "caps"
D)The degree of tension in helical tightness
Q4) By which mechanism does microRNA "silence" gene expression?
A)Preventing cytoplasm from coming into contact with the gene
B)Surrounding mRNA and preventing attachment of ribosomes
C)Binding to mRNA and keeping it double stranded
D)Substituting a thymine for uracil
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Chapter 6: Autosomal Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description is the best example of "genomic imprinting"?
A)A child inherits a trait that his paternal grandfather expressed but that his father did not express.
B)Boys can inherit only masculine traits from their fathers because women do not have a Y chromosome.
C)There is a qualitative difference in some gene alleles based on whether they are inherited from the mother or the father.
D)When the number of sex chromosomes is greater than normal, the resulting individual is most often infertile.
Q2) Which syndrome or condition represents monosomy?
A)Cri du chat
B)Patau syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)Robertsonian translocation
Q3) Which cancer type has an increased incidence among children with WAGR syndrome?
A)Acute leukemia
B)Brain tumors
C)Colorectal cancer
D)Nephroblastoma
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Chapter 7: Sex Chromosome and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which single physical feature is most often associated with a 47,XXX karyotype?
A)Infertility
B)Large breasts
C)Female-pattern baldness
D)Height greater than siblings
Q2) What factor most strongly influences the development of the paramesonephric tissue into female sex organs?
A)Proper positioning of the bipotential gonad
B)The presence of estrogen during puberty
C)The presence of two X chromosomes
D)The absence of a Y chromosome
Q3) What is the risk for a man with a 47,XYY karyotype to produce a child with a 47,XYY karyotype?
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)0%
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which issue is considered a "red flag" for the need for referral to a genetics professional?
A)A family history of both breast and colon cancer
B)Myocardial infarction in several parents or grandparents older than 64 years of age
C)The presence of brothers and sisters who do not resemble any known family member
D)The presence of neurodevelopmental disorders in one or more members of the kindred
Q2) What is the best way to ensure completeness and accuracy in constructing a pedigree?
A)Eliminating the contributed information from any family member who is cognitively impaired.
B)Asking the oldest person in the kindred to provide the familial information.
C)Having several family members work together to develop the pedigree.
D)Using a template for drawing the symbols.
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Chapter 9: Congenital Anomalies, Basic Dysmorphology, and
Genetic Assessment
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ear location is considered "low set"?
A)The earlobes are aligned with the highest point of the upper lip.
B)The earlobes are aligned with the highest point of the bottom lip.
C)The roots of the ears are aligned with the outer canthus of the eyes.
D)The roots of the ears are aligned an inch below the outer canthus of the eyes.
Q2) How is a congenital anomaly that requires intervention or management categorized?
A)A dysmorphology
B)A major anomaly
C)A minor anomaly
D)A disruption
Q3) What type of problem is Pierre-Robin, in which micrognathia begins a series of events that can result in an obstructed airway?
A)A syndrome
B)An association
C)A sequence
D)A dysplasia
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pair of unrelated 4-year-olds (Lester and Lucy) have mucopolysaccharidosis 1 (MPS1). Lester has severe dysmorphic features and many skeletal anomalies. Lucyhas onlymildly coarse features and slight developmental delay. What is the best explanation for these differences?
A)Skewed X inactivation allowed more paternal X expression for Lucy and more maternal X expression for Lester.
B)Lucy's mother had better prenatal care, including good diet, exercise, and vitamins, than Lester's mother.
C)It is likely that Lucy has been misdiagnosed and really has MPS2.
D)The disorder has wide variability in expression of severity.
Q2) Why does a person with Hurler syndrome have an enlarged abdomen?
A)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the lysosomes within the liver cells.
B)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the cells of the liver and the spleen.
C)The excess glycosaminoglycans weaken the muscles of the abdomen, and all contents move forward.
D)The excess glycosaminoglycans cause the person to develop type 2 diabetes, with greatly increased abdominal fat.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For individuals who have increased genetic susceptibility for type 1 diabetes, what is the most common environmental trigger for disease expression?
A)Obesity and a sedentary lifestyle
B)Exposure to radiation
C)Premature birth
D)Viral infection
Q2) Which specific type of genetic problem causes sickle cell disease?
A)Deletion of an exon
B)Deletion of an intron
C)Unbalanced translocation
D)Single-nucleotide polymorphism
Q3) A 12-year-old girl was diagnosed with von Willebrand disease (VWD) when she developed profound anemia from very heavy menstrual periods. Her levels of von Willebrand (vWf) factor are normal. What specific type of von Willebrand disease is she most likely to have?
A)Type 1 VWD
B)Type 2 VWD
C)Type 3 VWD
D)Type 4 VWD
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Common Adult-Onset Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factors increase the clinical severity of -1 antitrypsin (ATT) deficiency?
1) Whether or not the person smokes
2) Whether or not the person uses alcohol
3) The severity of disease in affected relatives
4) The specific alleles of the genes inherited
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 4 only
Q2) What can be interpreted about type 2 diabetes mellitus in monozygotic twins when it affects only one twin 70% of the time and affects both twins 30% of the time?
A)The trait is recessive.
B)Mutation repair is incompletely penetrant.
C)Nongenetic factors can influence expression.
D)Homologous genes can undergo chromatid exchanges.
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Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physical finding in a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?
A)Lipomas
B)Xanthomas
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Hemangiomas
Q2) Why is factor V Leiden disorder considered a form of thrombophilia?
A)Platelet activity is impaired.
B)Blood clots form more easily.
C)Atherosclerosis development is accelerated.
D)Excessive bleeding episodes occur in response to minor trauma.
Q3) For patients who have familial hypercholesterolemia, what should be the focus of teaching for blood cholesterol reduction?
A)Eliminating animal fats from the diet
B)Increasing the amount of fruit in the diet
C)Exercising at least 4 to 5 hours every week
D)Taking the lipid-lowering drug as prescribed
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15
Chapter 14: The Genetics of Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are people who have poor DNA repair mechanisms at greater risk for cancer development?
A)Their cancers are usually resistant to chemotherapy.
B)They have sustained the initial "hit" in all cells and tissues.
C)Their somatic mutations are more likely to be permanent.
D)They have greater exposure to environmental carcinogens.
Q2) How does an MSH<sub>2 </sub>gene mutation contribute to the development of colon cancer?
A)Suppressor gene function is enhanced.
B)DNA mutations are incorrectly repaired.
C)Trinucleotide repeat sequences are enhanced.
D)Drug resistance genes undergo amplification.
Q3) What is the result of a mutation occurring in a suppressor gene?
A)Gain of a new function
B)Loss of an existing function
C)Increased "error-prone" DNA repair
D)Increased unequal "crossing over" during meiosis I
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Chapter 15: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition or behavior suggests attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A)A 5-year-old who does not want to go to bed at 8:00 p.m. and begs to be allowed to stay up later
B)An 8-year-old who can hop on one foot but cannot ride a bicycle without training wheels
C)A 9-year-old who does not focus on a favorite story or game for longer than 3 minutes
D)A 10-year-old who prefers to play basketball rather than chess
Q2) Why is pharmacogenetics/pharmacogenomics of particular interest in treating patients with psychiatric/mental health problems?
A)Psychiatric medications may be effective in only a small group of patients.
B)Genetics restricts patients to only one drug in each classification.
C)Most psychiatric illnesses are single-gene disorders with predictable drug responses.
D)Psychotropic medications have few side effects.
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Chapter 16: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic testing of an asymptomatic woman whose sister is positive for the mutation that is responsible for an autosomal-dominant disorder that has a 70% penetrance ratewould fall into which testing category?
A)Diagnostic predisposition
B)Diagnostic presymptomatic
C)Predictive predisposition
D)Predictive presymptomatic
Q2) Which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene?
A)Immunohistochemistry
B)Direct DNA sequencing
C)Banded chromosomal analysis
D)Fluorescence in situ hybridization
Q3) How is cell-free DNA (cdDNA) testing being used clinically?
A)To determine a person's risk for developing breast cancer
B)As an inexpensive alternative to standard paternity testing
C)As a less invasive way to determine the characteristics of cancer cells
D)As a way to determine whether a specific suspect has committed a rape
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18
Chapter 17: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of parent compound must undergo first-phase metabolism to produce the intended response after it enters the body?
A)A prodrug
B)An active metabolite
C)An inactive metabolite
D)A sustained-released drug
Q2) How are the actions of naturally occurring estrogen changed when a patient is taking a drug that is an estrogen agonist?
A)Actions are increased.
B)Actions are decreased.
C)Actions are eliminated.
D)Actions are unchanged.
Q3) How do genetic/genomic issues influence individual variation in the response to a specific drug?
A)Polymorphisms of genes encoding metabolizing enzymes
B)Age-related loss of alleles within the cells lining the intestinal tract
C)Single-gene disorders that reduce the function of the kidneys or the liver
D)Genetic-based behavior problems that promote poor adherence to prescribed drug regimens
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Chapter 18: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which activity would a general registered nurse be expected to perform as part of genomic care?
A)Calculating recurrence risk for parents who have just had a child with nondisjunction Down syndrome
B)Informing a patient that his test results are positive for a genetic disorder
C)Obtaining an accurate family history and physical assessment data
D)Requesting a consultation visit from a clinical geneticist
Q2) The patient who has been found to have a mutation in a gene allele that greatly increases her risk for a serious health problem has asked a generalist nurse tobe present when she discloses this information to her family. What is the nurse's role in this situation?
A)Primary health-care provider
B)Genetic counselor
C)Patient advocate
D)Patient support
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Chapter
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis provides parents with which options?
A)The ability to screen normally fertilized embryos for genetic traits after the first trimester
B)The ability to select embryos for implantation that test negative for a familial disease mutation
C)The opportunity to determine how many children they will conceive
D)The ability to guarantee that they will have a healthy baby
Q2) Under which condition(s) would genetic testing for predisposition to an inherited disorder in a minor child be considered reasonable?
A)When the family pedigree indicates an autosomal-dominant pattern of inheritance
B)When the risk is high and prophylaxis to reduce the severity of the disorder is available
C)When penetrance is high and the expected onset is middle adulthood
D)When the mutation within a family is known and is specific
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Chapter 20: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factors could increase genetic diversity in a particular population?
A)Genetic drift
B)The population effect
C)The bottleneck effect
D)Increased number of haplotypes
Q2) What pieces of genetic information tend to be passed down from generation to generation with the least variation?
A)Mitochondrial DNA
B)Nuclear DNA
C)Ribosomal DNA
D)Histone proteins
Q3) Which practice is most likely to result in a change in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium of a population or geographic area?
A)Random mating from within the established population
B)Geographic isolation of the established population
C)Assimilation of immigrants into the existing population
D)Preponderance of autosomal-dominant traits in the existing population
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