
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Advanced Neuroscience explores the complexities of the nervous system at molecular, cellular, and systems levels. This course delves into topics such as neural development, synaptic transmission, plasticity, neurogenetics, and advanced neuroimaging techniques. Emphasis is placed on understanding current research methodologies and critical analysis of primary scientific literature. Students will also investigate the neural basis of behavior, cognition, and neurological disorders through case studies and contemporary discoveries, preparing them for research or clinical careers in neuroscience and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience 9th Edition by Neil R. Carlson
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16 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) René Descartes would be most comfortable with which of the following statements?
A) The universe is a mental construction.
B) The body is a hallucination generated by the mind.
C) The body is made of matter; the mind is not.
D) The brain serves to cool the passions of the heart.
E) Reflexes are noted in humans, but not in animals.
Answer: C
Q2) The principles of natural selection and evolution were proposed by A) Paul Broca.
B) René Descartes.
C) Sigmund Freud.
D) Johannes Müller.
E) Charles Darwin.
Answer: E
Q3) Fritsch and Hitzig used electrical stimulation to locate the primary motor cortex in a dog brain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding neurons?
A) Interneurons are located outside the brain and spinal cord.
B) Motor neurons gather information from the environment.
C) The number of neurons in the human nervous system is estimated at more than 100 billion.
D) Neurons are found only inside the brain and spinal cord.
E) The number of neurons in the human nervous system is estimated at less than 10 billion.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is true of synapses?
A) Action potentials open chloride channels to release neurotransmitters.
B) Presynaptic voltage changes past threshold triggers the release of neurotransmitters.
C) The interior of the nerve cell becomes more negative during the action potential.
D) The exterior of the nerve cell becomes more positive during the action potential.
E) Glia are shown to slow down the release of transmitter substances from the axon.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) CSF is reabsorbed into the blood supply via the A) subarachnoid space.
B) choroid plexus.
C) foramen of Magendie.
D) nodes of Ranvier.
E) cerebral aqueduct.
Answer: A
Q2) The word "cortex" means
A) "almond."
B) "knee."
C) "smooth."
D) bark."
E) "grayish."
Answer: D
Q3) The rostral end of the neural tube forms the human forebrain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ route requires caution because this route is most likely to result in accidental overdose.
A) oral
B) topical
C) intravenous
D) intramuscular
E) intraperitoneal
Q2) Glutamate is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Injecting an animal with a dose of a chemical molecule that is a precursor for the synthesis of a synaptic neurotransmitter would be expected to
A) reduce the availability of that neurotransmitter.
B) increase the rate of synthesis and release of that neurotransmitter.
C) alter the number of postsynaptic receptors.
D) act as an antagonist at autoreceptors.
E) increase neurotransmitter reuptake into the axon.
Q4) Explain what is meant by a placebo effect.
Q5) Describe the varied effects of the activation of opiate receptors in the brain.
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Q1) Which technique uses photographic emulsions to record the activity of discrete cells in the brain?
A) neuromagnetometer
B) microdialysis
C) electroencephalograph
D) c-FOS
E) 2-DG autoradiography
Q2) Which of the following techniques creates a brain lesion by overstimulating neurons to death?
A) aspiration of a region of the cortex
B) extreme physical exercise
C) infusions of an excitatory amino acid into a brain region
D) 6-hydroxydopamine infusions into a brain region
E) radio-frequency current passed through a brain region
Q3) The primary disadvantage of the PET scan technique relates to
A) the operating cost of the scanner.
B) the long half-life of the radioactive 2-DG molecule.
C) the inherent danger posed by the technique.
D) an inability of the technique to assess changes in metabolic activity.
E) the fact that the technique can measure neuron volume, but not activity.
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Q1) Research by Hubel and colleagues indicate that neurons of the ________ show responses to ________ of the visual field.
A) lateral geniculate nucleus; moving bars of light in the center
B) retinal periphery; color stimuli
C) striate cortex; points of light and darkness
D) retina; points of light and darkness
E) striate cortex; specific features
Q2) Approximately 25% of human cerebral cortex is dedicated to the analysis of visual information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Area V6 of human extrastriate cortex is critical for the analysis of
A) color and the memory of color.
B) depth perception.
C) movement.
D) object texture.
E) form.
Q4) Explain the concept of a receptive field in the visual system and provide an example of this concept for a ganglion cell within the cat retina.
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Q1) Which of the following strongly supports the notion that a place code is involved in detecting medium pitch to high pitch sounds?
A) Cochlear implants can restore the understanding of speech sounds.
B) Mutant mice that lack inner hair cells are unable to hear.
C) Damage to the posterior temporal cortex impairs hearing.
D) Overgrowth of bone over the round window impairs hearing of high-but not low-pitch sounds.
E) Antibiotics can degenerate hair cells in an apical to basal direction and produce corresponding deficits in intensity perception.
Q2) The _____ receptor mediates pain induced by burning of the skin.
A) TRPM8
B) TRPV1
C) TRPA1
D) TRPV4
E) TRPV3
Q3) Explain how the brain codes for the spatial location of sound.
Q4) Describe the physical and psychological properties of sound.
Q5) Explain how a few hundred types of olfactory receptors can code for thousands of different odorants.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A full day of physical exercise would be expected to A) produce insomnia.
B) reduce the amplitude of delta activity in the frontal lobes.
C) increase the amount of time spent that night in slow-wave sleep.
D) increase the need for REM sleep.
E) increase the amount of time spent dreaming.
Q2) Explain how melatonin may act to ameliorate jet lag.
Q3) Which of the following is not a disorder of slow-wave sleep?
A) somnambulism
B) night terrors
C) nocturnal enuresis
D) cataplexy
E) bedwetting
Q4) ________ is a sleep disorder that involves a buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood during sleep.
A) Situational insomnia
B) Sleep apnea
C) REM disorder
D) Narcolepsy
E) Cataplexy

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Q1) The Whitten effect and the Vandenbergh effect are induced in a female rodent by exposure to ________ from a(n)________.
A) urine; intact male rodent
B) ultrasounds; stranger
C) urine; intact female rodent
D) sweat; castrated male rodent
E) sweat; pregnant female rodent
Q2) Provide two types of evidence to support the proposition that there is a biological basis for homosexuality.
Q3) Transection of the spinal cord abolishes male sexual reflexes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following conditions will block or diminish female rodent sexual behavior?
A) damage to the lateral thalamus
B) being in a nonestrous state
C) targeted mutations of ghrelin receptors
D) genetic ablation of the SRy gene.
E) administration of estradiol followed by progesterone.
Q5) Compare the neural circuits that control male and female sexual behavior.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a function of the right hemisphere?
A) the processing of tactile information
B) the comprehension of emotions
C) the capacity to recognize the emotional content of hand gestures
D) the ability to communicate using language
E) the control of the right side of the body
Q2) People with volitional facial paresis are unable to
A) voluntarily move their facial muscles.
B) cry.
C) comprehend other people's emotions.
D) recognize facial expressions.
E) use tone of voice to communicate their emotional states.
Q3) Seizures that involve the ________ hemisphere are most likely to induce ________.
A) right; thought disorder
B) left; emotional disorder
C) right; emotional disorder
D) left; arousal and difficulty sleeping
E) right; speech deficits
Q4) Explain the significance of a conditioned emotional response (CER).
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Q1) Which of the following would be useful for the treatment of poor appetite in a cancer patient?
A) a serotonergic agonist
B) an endocannabinoid agonist
C) a drug that activates CART receptors
D) an NPY antagonist
E) an endocannabinoid antagonist
Q2) An aqueous solution whose solute concentration is less than that of the intracellular fluid is termed
A) cytoplasmic.
B) isotonic.
C) hypovolemic.
D) hypertonic.
E) hypotonic.
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding CART?
A) Infusion of an antibody to CART decreases feeding.
B) CART is a peptide localized within the area postrema.
C) CART inhibits eating.
D) CART is excitatory for MCH/orexin neurons.
E) CART is the precursor molecule for the synthesis of CCK.
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Q1) The NMDA receptor controls ________ that is normally blocked by ________.
A) the input to the hippocampus; presynaptic inhibition
B) a potassium channel; magnesium ions
C) the presynaptic membrane potential; GABA
D) a calcium channel; magnesium ions
E) a chloride channel; sodium ions
Q2) Damage to the caudate nucleus/putamen impairs the learning of an instrumental task.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People with retrograde amnesia are unable to
A) learn new information.
B) recall childhood experiences.
C) remember stressful or traumatic events.
D) transform their short-term memories into long-term memories.
E) recall events that occurred prior to the brain injury.
Q4) Patient H.M.had difficulty in navigating around a new environment.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Provide a definition of learning and memory.
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Q1) Which of the following speech deficits is a common feature of all forms of aphasia?
A) agrammatism
B) articulation difficulties
C) dysgraphia
D) anomia
E) Averbia
Q2) A person who has difficulties in the use of word order,use of function words,and selection of appropriate word endings would be said to have
A) averbia.
B) anosmia.
C) agrammatism.
D) articulation disorder.
E) anomia.
Q3) The meanings of words are most likely stored in
A) the association cortex.
B) Wernicke's area.
C) the primary auditory cortex.
D) Broca's area.
E) the lateral temporal cortex.
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Q1) Acute anterior poliomyelitis is a(n)
A) form of viral encephalitis.
B) bacterial infection.
C) congenital disorder.
D) immune system disease.
E) degenerative disease.
Q2) ________ involve(s)periodic bouts of overactivity of cerebral neurons.
A) Dementia
B) Metastases
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Seizure disorders
E) Strokes
Q3) In the chapter prologue,Mrs.R.suffered from ________ brought on by ________.
A) tinnitus; a genetic disorder
B) seizures; alcoholism
C) seizures; a brain tumor
D) impaired vision; years of reading under low-light conditions
E) headaches; excessive caffeine intake
Q4) Describe the risk factors for stroke.
Q5) Differentiate between a benign and a malignant tumor.
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Sample Questions
Q1) MRI studies indicate that bipolar depression is associated with abnormalities of the A) caudate nucleus.
B) nucleus accumbens.
C) cerebral ventricles.
D) corpus callosum.
E) prefrontal cortex.
Q2) Episodes of mania in bipolar disorder are characterized by A) strong feelings of guilt.
B) extreme sadness.
C) crying spells.
D) suicidal thoughts.
E) euphoria.
Q3) Explain the rationale used for sleep deprivation as a treatment for depression.
Q4) The term schizophrenia means a split of the mind into multiple personalities. A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast the actions of amphetamine-like stimulant drugs and of antipsychotic drugs on brain dopamine.
Q6) Explain why it is thought that genes convey a susceptibility for schizophrenia.
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Q1) Explain why it is no longer believed that parenting plays a role in producing autism in children.
Q2) The inhibitory action of stress on immune function is mostly due to
A) inactivation of the pituitary.
B) impaired secretion of CRH.
C) increased secretion of glucocorticoids.
D) inactivation of the PVN.
E) increased formation of immunoglobulins.
Q3) Which of the following is true of the neural substrates of reinforcement?
A) Aversive stimuli do not increase dopamine levels within the accumbens.
B) Release of dopamine within the accumbens is a necessary condition for reinforcement.
C) Damage to brain dopamine systems enhances the reinforcing properties of addictive drugs.
D) Release of dopamine within the accumbens is a sufficient condition for reinforcement.
E) Drugs that increase dopamine by blocking reuptake are not addictive.
Q4) At low doses,alcohol reduces anxiety.
A)True
B)False

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