Advanced Musculoskeletal and Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course offers an in-depth exploration of advanced evaluation and intervention techniques for musculoskeletal and cardiopulmonary conditions commonly encountered in physical therapy practice. Emphasizing evidence-based approaches, students will refine their clinical reasoning skills through the integration of complex case studies, manual therapy concepts, therapeutic exercise prescription, and patient-centered management strategies. The curriculum addresses the pathophysiology, assessment, and treatment of acute and chronic dysfunctions in both systems, with particular focus on interdisciplinary collaboration and progression of care across various clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition
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45 Chapters
861 Verified Questions
861 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1316 Page 2
by Donna Frownfelter
Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing Contemporary
Physical Therapy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the concepts of the health belief model is self-efficacy,which is defined as:
A) confidence in one's ability to take action.
B) one's belief in the seriousness of a condition.
C) strategies to activate "readiness."
D) one's belief of the chances of getting a condition.
Answer: A
Q2) This past century,health care priorities have shifted from prevention and management of acute infectious diseases to prevention and management of lifestyle-related conditions.Examples of these lifestyle-related conditions are:
A) multiple sclerosis and stroke.
B) osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.
C) hypertension and stroke.
D) hearing and vision loss.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
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Q1) Cellular ATP and creatine phosphate are used first for energy as the patient or client initiates exercise activities; food substances are necessary to maintain energy stores.The process by which energy is created within the body is:
A) an anaerobic process.
B) an aerobic process.
C) a glycolysis process.
D) a glycolytic process.
Answer: C
Q2) Nitrogen is the largest component of atmospheric (room)air.This concentration of nitrogen gas in the air is physiologically important to the mechanics of respiration for which of the following reasons?
A) Nitrogen is the gas that drives our respiration.
B) Nitrogen maintains the patency of the alveoli.
C) Nitrogen is a substitute for oxygen at higher elevations.
D) Nitrogen is the gas responsible for the ozone layer.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy
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Q1) Patients with COPD have a difficult time getting air out of the lungs during expiration.A physical therapist may be able to offer assistance by instructing the patient on ways to actively contract the .
A) erector spinae
B) trapezius
C) internal intercostals
D) abdominal muscle
Answer: D
Q2) The root of the lung or the hilus is the area where many structures enter the lung.The mainstem bronchi,pulmonary artery,pulmonary veins,bronchial arteries and veins,and lymph vessels are located here.The hilus is opposite the vertebral level of what thoracic bodies?
A) T4 and T5
B) T5, T6, and T7
C) T6, T7, and T8
D) T6 and T7
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology
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Q1) It is known that red blood cells contain hemoglobin and that hemoglobin has an affinity for oxygen.It is also know that oxygen dissolves into the bloodstream.What factor describes why the oxygen saturation in arterial oxygenated blood not 100%?
A) The oxygen saturation curve
B) High arterial pressure
C) Coronary and pulmonary circulation
D) The brain takes oxygen first
Q2) When preparing to position a patient for a planned intervention,the physical therapist should consider to prevent a stressful respiratory event for the patient.
A) Ventilation and perfusion matching
B) Respiratory mechanics
C) Oxyhemoglobin dissociation
D) Peripheral circulation
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6
Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology
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Q1) Much attention has been placed on cardiovascular health in recent years with atherosclerosis being discussed in advertisements.Atherosclerosis is the result of hypercholesterolemia.What effect does this condition have on the cardiovascular system?
A) Myocardial contractility is altered
B) Ischemic heart disease
C) Alters structure and function of cell membranes
D) Alters smooth muscle and conduction properties
Q2) Bullae present in the lungs of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)because of:
A) increased elasticity and compliance in the lung
B) decreased elasticity and alveolar hyperinflation
C) increased elasticity and alveolar hypoinflation
D) decreased elasticity and compliance in the lung
Q3) Which of the following conditions or diseases is NOT considered to be a restrictive lung disorder (RLD)?
A) Pregnancy
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Lung cancer
D) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions
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Q1) Pleural fluid accumulations and effusion of the thorax can lead to which of the following conditions?
A) Atelectasis
B) Decreased hydrostatic pressure
C) Increased oncotic pressure
D) Starling deficit
Q2) A patient seen by a physical therapist is suspect of having right-sided heart failure.This condition is likely to lead to because blood is not forwarded to the lungs effectively.
A) pulmonary vasodilation
B) hyperkalemia
C) hypoxemia
D) hypoventilation
Q3) For patients diagnosed with sickle cell anemia,all of the following are characteristics of the condition EXCEPT:
A) vitamin K deficiency.
B) pleuritic chest pain.
C) abnormal pulmonary function test results.
D) erythrocyte rigidity.
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Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation
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Q1) Which is the best example of a ratio measurement?
A) 0° Celsius
B) A classification of heart failure
C) 0° Kelvin
D) Grade 1 angina
Q2) Which best describes specificity?
A) A false-negative result has a negative test result even though the disease or characteristic is absent.
B) A high number of false-negative results would produce a high specificity.
C) Specificity is the ability of a measurement to identify individuals who have negative results or who do not have the characteristic.
D) Specificity is the ability of a measurement to identify individuals who have positive results or who have the characteristic that is being measured,
Q3) What is the best example of an interval measurement?
A) A classification of heart failure
B) Grade 1 angina
C) 0° Celsius
D) 0° Kelvin
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9
Chapter 8: History
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Q1) How does obtaining an occupational history help your assessment?
A) It provides information regarding attire.
B) It provides information about cognitive capability.
C) It provides information about chemical exposure.
D) It provides no useful information.
Q2) When conducting an interview regarding cardiopulmonary concerns,which is most important?
A) Lead the questions.
B) Hurry through the evaluation.
C) Allow the patient time to fully describe his or her symptoms.
D) Only pull the history from the chart.
Q3) Which is not true regarding pleural chest pain?
A) Chest pain originates from the parietal pleura or endothoracic fascia.
B) Chest pain originates from the parietal pleura or visceral pleura.
C) Pleuritic chest pain worsens sharply with inspiration.
D) Deep breathing, coughing, and laughing are extremely painful.
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10
Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true regarding lung capacities?
A) Lung capacity is all of the lung volumes added together.
B) Total lung capacity (TLC) is the amount of gas the lung contains at the end of a maximum inspiration.
C) Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum amount of gas that can be expelled from the lungs by forceful effort after a maximum inspiration.
D) Inspiration capacity (IC) is the maximum amount of air that can be inspired when starting at the resting expiratory level.
Q2) What effects does aging have on airway closure?
A) Airway closure occurs at lower lung volumes.
B) A loss of pulmonary elastic recoil results in an increase of intrapleural negative pressure.
C) A loss of pulmonary elastic recoil results in a loss of intrapleural negative pressure.
D) Airway closer is improved with smoking and changes in body shape.
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11
Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of hemoglobin?
A) It is crucial for oxygen transport.
B) It is crucial for carbon dioxide transport.
C) It is crucial for H CO transport.
D) It is unable to cross the capillary membrane.
Q2) What do the gradients of gases across a semipermeable membrane show?
A) Gradients from higher concentrations to lower concentrations
B) Gradients from lower concentrations to higher concentrations
C) No change in gradients
D) Gradients from equal concentrations to higher concentrations
Q3) Which best describes cyanosis?
A) An abnormal acid-base balance in which the acids dominate
B) The presence of a bluish color to the skin, mucous membranes, and nail beds
C) An abnormal acid-base balance in which the bases dominate
D) An inability of the kidneys to excrete the normal metabolic acids
Q4) What is the main route for the body to expel normal metabolic acids?
A) The skin
B) The lungs
C) The kidneys
D) The gastrointestinal tract
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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the skeleton on a chest radiograph,what should you look for?
A) Facet joint alignment
B) Sacroiliac alignment
C) Stenosis
D) Fractures
Q2) How does a PET scan work?
A) Uses magnetic energy to align the cells and measures the density of tissue
B) Measures the uptake of radiolabeled glucose in the tissue
C) Uses standard ionizing radiation to generate images or slices of the body
D) Uses standard ionizing isotopes to measure the density of tissue to crease a single image
Q3) Which imaging technique shows the function of the organs?
A) PET scan
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Ultrasonography
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Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification
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Q1) What is the 10th electrode on a standard 12 lead ECG is used for?
A) To monitor the frontal plane
B) To monitor the transverse plane
C) To monitor the sagittal plane
D) To stabilize the baseline
Q2) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC)may occur at regular intervals in an established pattern.Which of the following is the result of this occurring every other beat?
A) Bigeminy
B) Trigeminy
C) Quadrigeminy
D) Couplet
Q3) When considering a third-degree heart block,which of the following is true?
A) Third-degree block is considered an incomplete heart block.
B) Third-degree block has a 1:1 ratio of P wave to QRS complexes.
C) Third-degree block have a progressively longer P-R interval until a P wave is fails to conduct to the ventricles.
D) Third-degree block is treated with implantation of a pacemaker.
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Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations
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Q1) Which product of the adrenal glands inhibits the action of insulin and thus the uptake of glucose by cells?
A) Dopamine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Norepinephrine
Q2) Which of the following is not a test of peripheral vascular function?
A) Peripheral pulses
B) Capillary filling time
C) Ankle systolic pressures
D) Fibrin clotting time
Q3) Why is knowledge of multisystem function within the body necessary for cardiovascular and pulmonary physical therapists?
A) The cardiovascular and pulmonary systems are affected by virtually all other body systems.
B) It is helpful to confirm a patient's diagnosis.
C) It is helpful to predict a patient's response to treatment as well as his or her prognosis.
D) All of the above
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Chapter 14: Special Tests
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Q1) Which is not one of the three basic components of a radionuclide imaging system?
A) Radiopharmaceutical agent
B) Radiation detector or camera
C) Computer
D) Surgical scalpels and sutures
Q2) Which is not an advantage of using technetium radionuclides versus thallium radionuclides?
A) Higher count rates
B) Higher energy
C) It redistributes readily
D) None of the above
Q3) What testing is considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism?
A) Echocardiography
B) Pulmonary angiography
C) Computed tomography
D) Ventilation-perfusion lung scan
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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Systems
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Q1) Which kind of question is likely to give the most valuable information?
A) A yes/no question directed toward a patient
B) An open-ended question directed toward a patient
C) A yes/no question directed toward a patient's family
D) An open-ended question directed toward a patient's family
Q2) What will likely be observed during inspection of a patient's skin when oxygen saturation is less than 80%?
A) Cyanosis
B) Ecchymosis
C) Edema
D) Unusually prominent bony landmarks
Q3) Which of the following may cause tracheal deviation?
A) A pneumothorax
B) Atelectasis
C) A tumor
D) All of the above
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Chapter
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Q1) Which of the following may cause fluid and electrolyte imbalances in the form of deficits?
A) Diaphoresis and wounds
B) Diarrhea and vomiting
C) Hemorrhage
D) All of the above
Q2) If a patient's chest tube becomes dislodged during mobilization,what is the appropriate protocol for a physical therapist?
A) Attempt to replace the tube immediately before notifying a nurse.
B) Monitor the patient's pulse and breathing after notifying a nurse.
C) Apply immediate compression to the site and notify a nurse.
D) Keep the site clean and clear of linens or other objects while notifying a nurse.
Q3) What is the normal pH of the body?
A) Below 7.35
B) 7.35 to 7.45
C) 7.45 to 7.55
D) Above 7.55
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an Individuals Needs
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Q1) Health has been defined by the World Health Organization as:
A) the absence of pathology.
B) a person's capacity to live a life consistent with his or her needs and wants.
C) emotional, spiritual, intellectual, and physical well-being.
D) a and
Q2) The American Physical Therapy Association's Guide To Physical Therapist Practice (2001)reflects a broad scope of practice.The guide describes:
A) diagnosis, treatment, extrinsic factors, and intrinsic factors.
B) long-term goals, short-term goals, primary goals, secondary goals.
C) examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention.
D) extrinsic factors, intrinsic factors, prognosis, intervention.
Q3) Three modalities that enhance the prescribed interventions over the short and long term are:
A) bronchodilators, antihypertensives, and mucolytics.
B) mobilization, body positioning, and manual techniques.
C) breathing, coughing, and suctioning.
D) weights, pulleys, and incentive spirometry.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment,
evaluation, and Training
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Q1) What pathophysiological factor that contributes to increased metabolic demand and oxygen consumption?
A) Healing or repairing
B) Fever
C) Combating infection
D) All of the above
Q2) It is essential that the physical therapist be able to:
A) estimate the limits of a patient's physiological tolerance for mobilization.
B) adapt the prescription based on the patient's needs.
C) identify the specific effects of exercise required and define the optimal therapeutic stimulus.
D) manage patients who are acutely ill.
Q3) Physical therapists exploit the effects of exercise in most patients and adapt the prescription based on the patient's:
A) clinical presentation and needs.
B) ability to pay or insurance coverage.
C) age and gender.
D) past exercise training.
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Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training
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Q1) Side-lying increases end-diastolic ventricular pressure on the dependent side secondary to compression of the viscera beneath the diaphragm and to:
A) atelectasis formation.
B) central pneumothorax lesion.
C) increased lung compliance on that side.
D) reduced lung compliance on that side.
Q2) Body position should first be exploited when coupled with movement followed by the:
A) the patient being placed in a supine position.
B) patient being placed in a recumbent position.
C) erect sitting positions with the legs dependent.
D) patient being placed in a propped-up position.
Q3) A common practice is to progressively turn patients in:
A) small increments.
B) one-half turns.
C) one-third turns.
D) one-quarter turns.
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21
Chapter 20: Body Positioning
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Q1) Vibration is applied throughout exhalation concurrent with:
A) slight compression to the chest wall.
B) mild compression to the chest wall.
C) significant compression to the chest wall.
D) maximal compression to the chest wall.
Q2) The oscillation of the intrapulmonary percussive ventilation device is delivered:
A) internally through a valve.
B) externally through a valve.
C) internally through a mouthpiece.
D) externally through a mouthpiece.
Q3) Shaking consists of a bouncing maneuver in a rhythmic fashion throughout exhalation:
A) over the xyphoid process.
B) along the sternum.
C) against the thoracic wall.
D) between the ribs.
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Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques
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Q1) The aim of loosening retained secretions by the use of percussion is so that:
A) they can be sent to the laboratory for culturing.
B) they may be removed by suctioning or expectoration.
C) they can be picked up and removed by the lymphatic system.
D) they may be redirected through collateral circulation.
Q2) An inflatable vest linked to an air-pulsed generator is used with:
A) low-frequency chest wall oscillation.
B) low-frequency chest wall vibration.
C) high-frequency chest wall vibration.
D) high-frequency chest wall oscillation.
Q3) Preparation for any secretion removal technique should include:
A) evaluation of the patient's pulmonary status.
B) preparation of the surrounding area.
C) removal of all jewelry.
D) review of the patient's medical history.
Q4) The techniques of ________ and _______ are at opposite ends of a spectrum
A) vibration, clapping
B) clapping, shaking
C) vibration, gentle high-frequency force
D) vibration, shaking
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Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques
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Q1) Three manually assisted techniques are:
A) anterior chest compression, long sitting, and hands-and-knees rocking.
B) anterior chest compression, counterrotation, and prone on elbows head flection.
C) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and long sitting.
D) costophrenic, anterior chest compression, and counterrotation.
Q2) Populations commonly in need of evaluation of swallowing are:
A) patients with pulmonary disorders.
B) patients with cardiovascular disorders.
C) patients with musculoskeletal disorders.
D) patients with neurologic disorders.
Q3) If the cough is dry and unproductive,do not encourage frequent coughing.This is especially true for people with:
A) inflammation of the tracheobronchial tree (bronchitis).
B) acute inflammation of the lungs (pneumonia).
C) asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D) swallowing dysfunction (dysphagia).
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Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies
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Q1) Individuals with breathing impairments (whether primary or secondary in origin)require interventions aimed at optimizing ventilation an improving:
A) oxygen consumption.
B) oxygen delivery.
C) oxygen diffusion.
D) oxygen supply.
Q2) If it is necessary for a patient to undergo extended time in bed,a major emphasis must be placed on mobilization in an effort to prevent:
A) weight gain.
B) pressure sores.
C) anxiety.
D) immobility.
Q3) All of the following are all considered daily dynamic activities that improve ventilation EXCEPT:
A) coming up to sitting.
B) coming up to standing.
C) dancing.
D) rolling.
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Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Over the past 20 years,heart transplant had become an accepted therapy for:
A) end-stage heart failure.
B) multivalve failure.
C) conduction blocks.
D) increasing ejection fractions.
Q2) Although dyspnea is a common limiter to exercise and cardiac failure,the other factors that contribute to exercise limitation could include all but which of the following?
A) Hemodynamic impairments
B) Ventilator control impairments
C) Lung function impairments
D) Metabolic impairments
Q3) Health education a major component of________________ and constitutes a skill in its own right.
A) exercise testing
B) cardiac rehabilitation
C) pulmonary fit testing
D) physical rehabilitation
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Blood sugar abnormalities associated with diabetes necessitate monitoring in all the following conditions related to exercise EXCEPT:
A) 1 hour before.
B) right before.
C) during.
D) immediately after.
Q2) Management of patients with systemic atherosclerosis and circulatory dysfunction is similar to management of patients with which of the following pathologies?
A) Stroke
B) Heart and lung failure
C) End-stage renal disease
D) Hypertension
Q3) Which of the following complicates the clinical picture within weeks after a stroke?
A) Pulmonary deconditioning
B) Aerobic training
C) Cardiorespiratory deconditioning
D) Strength training
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training
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Q1) The capacity of the respiratory muscle pump is vital for the movement of air to the level of gas exchange in the respiratory system.Failure could result in all but which of the following?
A) Gas exchange
B) Ventilation
C) Tissue repair
D) Diaphragmatic movement
Q2) People with Parkinson disease can exhibit:
A) musculoskeletal weakness.
B) chronic lung dysfunction.
C) respiratory muscle weakness.
D) chronic respiratory dysfunction.
Q3) Inspiratory muscle weakness is __________ and underlies ventilatory insufficiency and symptoms in patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).
A) rare
B) significant
C) infrequent
D) prominent
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28
Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As
Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions
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Q1) Individuals with chronic anxiety and depression also exhibit more episodes of: A) seizures
B) migraine headaches
C) cardiac arrest
D) myocardial ischemia
Q2) Bioelectromagnetics include:
A) traditional Chinese medicine
B) movement awareness techniques
C) thermal applications of nonionizing radiation
D) mind/body intervention
Q3) Osteopathic medicine stresses the importance of:
A) believing that illness and disease result from vertebral misalignment and regular manipulation can maintain energy flow to organs and the body/mind
B) using light touch to balance energy flow, partly by balancing the flow of cerebral spinal fluid during its circulation around the meninges of the cranium and down the spinal column
C) holistic health, nutrition and joint mobilization to maintain proper balance and homeostasis
D) using hands-on therapy to enhance relaxation and emotional awareness
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Chapter 28: Patient Education
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Q1) The social-cognitive theory states that:
A) the overall objective of patient education is to affect a durable cognitive improvement.
B) the most important aspect of planning a patient's education is to first assess the learner.
C) health care contracts can be used to implement the social-cognitive theory.
D) human behavior can be explained using incentives, outcome expectations, and efficacy expectations as key regulators.
Q2) The specific content of patient education materials and programs should be determined by:
A) the individual or the group being taught.
B) how quickly the patient can catch on to the education materials.
C) the age of the patient.
D) how long the treatment will continue.
Q3) _______ can be useful in implementing the behavior approach.
A) Patient education objectives
B) Learning needs assessments
C) Health care contacts
D) Cardiopulmonary patient education
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions
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Q1) All of the following are reasons why should forceful coughing be avoided in cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) forceful coughing does not result in mucus expulsion.
B) forceful coughing results in increased intrathoracic pressure.
C) forceful coughing contributes to airway closure.
D) forceful coughing can reduce cardiac output.
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be considered typical treatment for an individual with COPD?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Bronchodilators
D) Antibiotics
Q3) All of the following examination findings are typical of patients with bronchiolitis EXCEPT:
A) productive cough.
B) rhonchi on auscultation.
C) diminished breath sounds.
D) pain or difficulty with inhalation.
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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about thoracic and cardiovascular surgery?
A) Patients are at increased risk of aspiration postoperatively.
B) Irritation or compression of the phrenic nerve is not possible during surgery.
C) Artificial airways decrease the risk of postoperative complications.
D) Blood gasses do not indicate the need for mechanical ventilation.
Q2) Which of the following activities will address the postoperative risks of thromboemboli and pulmonary emboli?
A) Compression stockings
B) Ankle pumps
C) Ambulation
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following would promote postoperative complications after thoracic or cardiovascular surgery?
A) Deep breathing
B) Ambulation
C) Reduced arousal
D) Huffing
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Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE about antianginal medication?
A) It should be used before treatment sessions.
B) It should be used any time the patient becomes symptomatic during therapy.
C) It can cause a decrease in blood pressure.
D) All of the above
Q2) Smoking contributes to:
A) decreased mucus production in the small airways.
B) increased elastic recoil of the lung.
C) decreased airway reactivity.
D) increased vascular changes in the lungs.
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE about coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A) CAD is associated with depression.
B) CAD is worsened by mental stress.
C) CAD is typically seen in people with type B personalities.
D) CAD is associated with increased morbidity.
Q4) Angina is caused by:
A) valve dysfunction.
B) electrical dysfunction.
C) atherosclerosis.
D) bacterial infection.
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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Cardiovascular and pulmonary manifestations of systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)are:
A) Atelectasis
B) Barrel chest and overcompliance
C) Pleuritis
D) Pulmonary hypertension
Q2) Which of the following contributes to pulmonary compromise in a patient with Parkinson disease?
A) Spasticity
B) Chest wall rigidity
C) Hypotonicity
D) Hypervigilance
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE regarding quadriplegia and cough?
A) Patients with quadriplegia do not need to cough.
B) Quadriplegia results in ineffective cough.
C) Postural drainage can improve cough.
D) The diaphragm will replace the intercostals in cough.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) Which of the following is the priority of treatment for a patient who is critically ill?
A) Making the patient comfortable
B) Optimizing oxygen delivery through the use of mechanical ventilators
C) Optimizing oxygen delivery through noninvasive interventions
D) Patient and family education regarding diagnosis
Q2) What change in an ICU patient is associated with reduced cardiac output,reduced blood pressure,hypoxemia,hypercapnia,and increased cranial pressure?
A) Impairment of neuromuscular status
B) Length of stay
C) Maximized oxygen transport
D) Mechanical ventilation will be necessary
Q3) What type of foods might be limited for the patient in ICU?
A) Carbohydrates
B) Proteins
C) Fats
D) Dairy
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Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is not a secondary condition that may lead to cardiovascular and pulmonary dysfunction?
A) Spinal cord injury
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Stroke
D) Muscular dystrophy
Q2) What pathophysiological deficits are present with advanced chronic airflow limitation caused by acute respiratory failure?
A) Decreased compliance of alveolar tissue
B) Increased diffusing capacity
C) Hyperinflated chest wall
D) Rounded hemidiaphragms
Q3) Which of the following is not a common complication related to a patient's premorbid status before open heart surgery?
A) Lung collapse
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Stroke
D) Pulmonary emboli
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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is not a goal of treatment for a patient with burns?
A) Improving arterial saturation
B) Prevent infection
C) Maintain fluid balance
D) All of the above
Q2) How should you position the bed to reduce intracranial pressure in a patient with a head injury?
A) Head of the bed elevated to 30 to 40 degrees
B) Head of the bed elevated to 50 to 60 degrees
C) Head of the bed declined to 30 to 40 degrees
D) Head of the bed declined to 50 to 60 degrees
Q3) You have just finished positioning your obese patient upright in a chair at bedside when you notice the patient slumping.What action should you take?
A) None. The slumping caused by weak postural muscles.
B) Put the patient back to bed because of increased fatigue.
C) Correct the patient position and recheck it frequently.
D) Proceed to standing and walking.
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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications
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Q1) Which of the following is a not a condition that predisposes a patient to multiorgan system failure (MOSF)?
A) Sepsis
B) Overwhelming infection
C) Shock
D) Tissue perfusion deficits
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible complication or side effect from prolonged endotracheal intubation?
A) Desaturation
B) Ulceration
C) Fibrosis
D) Laryngeal edema
Q3) Renal failure greatly compromises the chances of a patient's survival.Which is not a mechanism of how renal failure develops?
A) Hypertension
B) Gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Sepsis associated with shock
D) Drug-induced nephrotoxicity
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Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns
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Q1) In a patient with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD),what would not be a possible cause of end-stage respiratory failure?
A) Lumbar deformity
B) Respiratory muscle weakness
C) Reduced lung compliance
D) Hypoxemia
Q2) In the partial form of endocardial cushion defects (ECD),which structures present with defects?
A) Atrial septal defect and tricuspid valve cleft
B) Ventricular septal defect and mitral valve cleft
C) Atrial septal defect and mitral valve cleft
D) Ventricular septal defect and tricuspid valve cleft
Q3) You are performing postural drainage on a child with cerebral palsy.Which position should be avoided?
A) In bed with the head of the bed raised
B) Side-lying
C) Head down
D) Upright
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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient
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Q1) Physical therapists working with elderly adults may be more interested in the responses of frail or sick patients rather than a healthy patient the same age because of which of the following?
A) This is the patient population referred to therapy.
B) Healthier people tend to be more active able to function without assistance.
C) The sedentary lifestyle of many older adults results in disuse and often a decline in function.
D) All of the above
Q2) Elastic recoil of the lungs is dependent on which of the following factors as most people age?
A) The amount of type II collagen present
B) The amount of elastin present
C) The structure of the connective tissue
D) The strength of the respiratory muscles
Q3) Chest wall stiffness comes with many related factors,which include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a decrease in intervertebral disk height.
B) an increase in medial to lateral chest width.
C) changes in the rib to vertebrae articulations.
D) costal cartilage calcification.
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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired
Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control
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Q1) Changes to the child's thorax from 3 to 6 months of age include which of the following?
A) A more rectangular shape because of strengthening of the lower abdominals
B) A more rectangular shape because of strengthening of the anterior chest wall and intercostals
C) Development of slight concave configuration to the thorax
D) Breathing maintained in one plane of motion
Q2) Type II of paradoxical breathing characterized by intact upper respiratory muscles.Why does this type of breathing usually require some form of ventilatory support?
A) The abdominals are insufficient to control the pull of the upper respiratory muscles. B) Decreases in postural control do not allow for proper filling of air space.
C) The abdomen is drawn inward because of weakness and is unable to oppose the pull of the diaphragm.
D) The accessory muscles are not designed to meet the needs of long-term ventilation.
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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient
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Q1) What is the cause of the ineffective cough and decrease in ciliary function after a lung transplant?
A) Impaired air flow
B) Hypertension
C) Denervation of the lung tissue
D) Increased cardiac output
Q2) What is the score the International Society for Heart and Lung Transplantation (ISHLT)guidelines requires for transplant?
A) 2 to 5
B) 5 to 8
C) 7 to 10
D) 10 to 13
Q3) What is the role of the physical therapist before transplant surgery?
A) Establishing a baseline of function
B) Establishing a strengthening protocol after surgery
C) Determination of physical readiness
D) Organization of support groups
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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community
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Q1) When patients are discharged to home care,which of the following is not a priority for recovering cardiac or pulmonary patients?
A) Continuity of care
B) Availability of caregivers
C) Meal planning
D) Education about plan of therapy, exercise, and disease state
Q2) The goal of helping a patient accomplish what he or she wants day with regard to return to function excludes which of the following?
A) Knowledge of symptoms
B) Reliance on a support system
C) Return to prior level of function immediately
D) Goal setting that allows easy achievement
Q3) How can a patient best carry out an effective plan?
A) The patient is taught to identify problems and manage them.
B) The patient is given a list of exercises to complete each day.
C) The patient is placed in a skilled nursing facility to begin rehabilitation.
D) The caregivers request the patient be place at home because of the previous independent status at home.
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Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients
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Q1) Which action will facilitate the breathing of a patient in supine?
A) Adding a pillow beneath the patient's head
B) Adding a pillow beneath the patient's low back
C) Adding towel rolls beneath the patient's shoulders
D) Removing pillows from beneath the patient's head
Q2) Which position is generally best for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Hook-lying
D) Prone
Q3) Which shoulder position is recommended to increase upper chest wall movement and thoracic extension?
A) Glenohumeral internal rotation and scapular protraction
B) Glenohumeral abduction and scapular elevation
C) Glenohumeral external rotation and scapular retraction
D) Glenohumeral flexion and scapular elevation
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review
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Q1) Which of the following is most cost effective and strictly used to deliver medication?
A) SVN
B) MDI
C) COPD
D) FEV
Q2) Which location is included in the scope of a respiratory therapist?
A) Hospitals
B) Long-term care
C) Patients' homes
D) All of the above
Q3) Which device is most commonly used with high-flow oxygen systems?
A) Partial rebreathing mask
B) Nonrebreathing mask
C) Venturi mask
D) Transtracheal oxygen catheter
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Chapter
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Q1) Which postoperative complication of tracheostomy can result from incorrect suctioning technique and the presence of a foreign body in the trachea?
A) Crusting
B) Tracheobronchitis
C) Tracheal stenosis
D) Infection at the surgical site
Q2) How often should the pressure of a tracheostomy tube cuff be checked?
A) Once per day
B) Twice per day
C) Every 4 to 8 hours
D) Every 30 minutes
Q3) Which is a potential complication from tracheal suctioning?
A) Hypoxemia
B) Cardiac dysrhythmia
C) Bronchospasm
D) All of the above
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46
Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions
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Q1) Which of the following affects the firing rate of carotid baroreceptors?
A) Blood pressure
B) Heart rate
C) Respiration rate
D) Temperature
Q2) Which class of drugs has been used as insecticides and is beneficial in problems related to the eye,intestine,and the skeletal neuromuscular junction?
A) Cholinergic drugs
B) Anticholinesterase drugs
C) Sympatholytic drugs
D) -Adrenergic blocking drugs
Q3) Which is true of receptors in the sympathetic system?
A) Found in arterioles, heart, and bronchioles; stimulation lowers blood pressure
B) Found in arterioles, heart, and bronchioles; stimulation increases blood pressure
C) Found only in arterioles; stimulation lowers blood pressure
D) Found only in arterioles; stimulation increases blood pressure
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