Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing is designed to deepen students knowledge and skills in managing complex adult health conditions across diverse clinical settings. This course emphasizes advanced assessment, clinical decision-making, and evidence-based interventions for patients with acute and chronic medical-surgical disorders. Key topics include multisystem failure, advanced pharmacology, perioperative care, and the integration of pathophysiology in problem-solving. Students will analyze case studies, participate in simulation scenarios, and engage in interprofessional collaboration, preparing them to provide holistic, patient-centered care while addressing cultural, ethical, and legal considerations in medical-surgical nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults And Children 5th Edition by Kathryn
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L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up,destroyed or immobilized?
A) Paracrine signaling
B) Autocrine signaling
C) Neurotransmitter signaling
D) Hormone signaling
Answer: A
Q2) The primary functions of the cell nucleus are cell division and control of genetic information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary is an example of which process of fluid movement?
A) Hydrostatic pressure
B) Osmosis
C) Diffusion
D) Active transport
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
A) Enzymatic digestion halts DNA synthesis.
B) Influx of calcium ions halts the ATP production.
C) Reduction in ATP production caused by edema from an influx in sodium.
D) Shift of potassium out of the mitochondria,which destroys the infrastructure.
Answer: B
Q2) Liver regeneration
A)Physiologic atrophy
B)Pathologic atrophy
C)Physiologic hypertrophy
D)Pathologic hypertrophy
E)Compensatory hyperplasia
Answer: E
Q3) During ischemia,what effect does the loss of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)level have on cells?
A) Cells shrink because of the influx of calcium (Ca).
B) Cells shrink because of the influx of potassium chloride (KCl).
C) Cells swell because of the influx of sodium chloride (NaCl).
D) Cells swell because of the influx of nitric oxide (NO).
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?
A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
C) Capillary oncotic pressure
D) Interstitial oncotic pressure
Answer: C
Q2) How does syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)cause excess water?
A) The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of sodium that retains excessive water in the renal tubules.
B) The decrease in antidiuretic hormone increases serum glucose,which binds to water.
C) The decrease in antidiuretic hormone prevents the renal tubules from reabsorbing water.
D) The increase in antidiuretic hormone causes retention of water in the renal tubules.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q2) People who have neurofibromatosis have a varying degree of the condition because of the genetic principle of:
A) penetrance.
B) expressivity.
C) dominance.
D) recessiveness.
Q3) Cystic fibrosis is caused by an _____ gene.
A) X-linked dominant
B) X-linked recessive
C) autosomal dominant
D) autosomal recessive
Q4) Chromosome abnormalities are the leading cause of mental retardation and miscarriages.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diseases are more strongly determined by environmental and lifestyle changes rather than genetics?
A) Autism and spina bifida
B) Diabetes mellitus and heart disease
C) Measles and influenza
D) Epilepsy and cystic fibrosis
Q2) Yields an increased risk for some diseases
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenetic
F)Empiric risk
G)Relative risk
Q3) Relative risks indicates the percentage of disease cases in the general population that are attributable to a specific risk factor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity Including Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and causes leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells?
A) Leukotrienes
B) Prostaglandin E
C) Platelet-activating factor
D) Bradykinin
Q2) Several bacteria,such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis,are resistant to killing by granulocytes and can survive inside macrophages.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The inflammatory response is the body's first line of defense.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do surfactant proteins A & D provide innate resistance?
A) They initiate the complement cascade.
B) They promote phagocytosis
C) They secrete mucus.
D) They synthesize lysosomes.
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8
Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)molecules are located on the surface of all body cells except erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Before birth,humans produce a large number of T lymphocytes (T cells)and B lymphocytes (B cells)that have the capacity to recognize almost any foreign antigen found in the environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why are some viruses,such as measles and herpes,inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
A) These viruses do not circulate in the blood,they are inside of infected cells.
B) These viruses do not have antibody receptors on their cell surfaces.
C) These viruses resist agglutination.
D) These viruses are soluble antigens.
Q4) Recognize antigens presented by MHC II molecules
A)CD 4 cells
B)CD 8 cells
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9
Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
Including Hypersensitivies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism in type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators.
B) Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues.
C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokines-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.
D) Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface.
Q2) When a tuberculin skin test is positive,what forms the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration?
A) Histamine
B) T lymphocytes and macrophages
C) Immune complexes
D) Products of complement
Q3) Persons with blood type O are considered universal recipients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Infection Including Hivaids
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Sample Questions
Q1) All viruses have a protein receptor binding site on their surface that adheres to specific binding site on the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement about vaccines is true?
A) Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms.
B) Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms.
C) Vaccines with booster injections induce primary and secondary immune responses.
D) Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses,bacteria and fungal infections.
Q3) Once they have penetrated the first line of defense,which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack,engulf and destroy by phagocytosis?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Viruses
D) Mycoplasma
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
A) B cells and eosinophils
B) Cytokines and neutrophils
C) Cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells
D) Helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells
Q2) The release of which cytokines is triggered by bacterial or viral infections,cancer,and tissue injury that in turn initiate a stress response?
A) Interleukin 1 (Il-1)and interleukin 2 (Il-2)
B) Interleukin 12 (Il-12),tumor necrosis factor,and colony stimulating factor
C) Interferon,tumor necrosis factor ß,and interleukin 6 (Il-6)
D) Interleukin 4 (Il-4)and interleukin 24 (Il-24)
Q3) Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
A) Interleukin 1 (Il-1)and interleukin 6 (Il-6)
B) Interleukin 2 (Il-2)and tumor necrosis factor
C) Interferon and interleukin 12 (Il-12)
D) Tumor necrosis factor ß and interleukin 4 (Il-4)
Q4) Stress has no effect on the development of cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Biology of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon,liver,gallbladder,pancreas,breast,uterus,and kidney?
A) Women over 45 years
B) Women who never had children
C) Women who had a high body mass index
D) Woman who smoked for more than 10 years
Q2) What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?
A) Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.
B) The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.
C) Genetic amplification causes the growth.
D) Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.
Q3) The term "neoplasm" can refer to a benign tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are tumor cell markers?
A) Hormones,enzymes,antigens,and antibodies produced by cancer cells
B) Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
C) Cytokines produced against cancer cells
D) Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy
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Chapter 12: Tumor Invasion and Metastasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When patients who have lung cancer develop Cushing syndrome it is an example of a(n)_____ syndrome.
A) aberrant
B) paraneoplastic
C) carcinogenic
D) idiopathetic
Q2) Chemotherapy
A)Provides cell-derived antiviral and immunomodulating proteins
B)Provides direct cytotoxic effect on cancer cells
C)Forms antibodies specific for tumor antigen
D)Attacks cancerous cells in the cell cycle
E)Provides nonspecific stimulation of the immune system
Q3) Breast cancer cells metastasize to the bone because the chemokines released by the bone attract breast cells to it
A)True
B)False
Q4) Invasion is a prerequisite for metastasis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) When are childhood cancers are most often diagnosed?
A) During infancy
B) At peak times of physical growth
C) After early warning signs
D) After an acute illness
Q2) Which cancers are more common in black children?
A) Leukemia
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Osteosarcoma
Q3) Mutations of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes have been identified with pediatric lymphoma and leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A) 48%
B) 58%
C) 68%
D) 78%
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What parts of the brain mediates the expression of affect,both emotional and behavioral states?
A) Hypothalamus and subthalamus
B) Parietal and frontal lobes
C) Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
D) Basal ganglia
Q2) Which meninges closely adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord and follows sulci and fissures?
A) Dura mater
B) Arachnoid
C) Pia mater
D) Inner dura
Q3) What is the function of arachnoid villi?
A) To produce cerebrospinal fluid
B) To provide nutrients to the choroid plexuses
C) To transmit impulses within the meninges
D) To absorb cerebrospinal fluid into the cerebral venous sinuses
Q4) Chemical synapses between neurons can send messages in both directions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and
Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Older adults have difficulty regulating body heat because they have a decreased shivering response and diminished or absent sweating.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of nerve fibers transmit pain impulses?
A) A-alpha fibers
B) A-beta fibers
C) A-delta fibers
D) B-fibers
Q3) A person's pain threshold does not vary significantly over time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?
A) Limbic system
B) Parietal lobe
C) Thalamus
D) Hypothalamus
Q5) Early treatment of fever is important since fever has no therapeutic benefit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Concepts of Neurologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the:
A) ventricles.
B) brain tissue.
C) central nervous system neurons.
D) meninges.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury.He develops regular,deep,and rapid respirations.This is indicative of what level of neurologic injury?
A) Midbrain and upper pons
B) Pontine
C) Supratentorial
D) Cerebral
Q3) Which midbrain dysfunction causes pupils to be pinpoint in size and fixed in position?
A) Diencephalon dysfunction
B) Oculomotor cranial nerve dysfunction
C) Midbrain dysfunction
D) Pontine dysfunction
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18
Chapter 17: Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield.In this situation,the contrecoup injury would occur in the _____ region.
A) frontal
B) temporal
C) parietal
D) occipital
Q2) Because spinal cord swelling increases the degree of dysfunction,it is difficult to distinguish between permanent and temporary loss of function until the swelling is resolved.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lyme disease
A)Complication of mastoiditis
B)Opportunistic infection
C)CNS manifestation of tuberculosis
D)Mosquito-borne viral infection
E)Tick-borne bacterial infection
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter is reduced in people with schizophrenia?
A) Dopamine
B) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C) Acetylcholine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Persistent symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder include:
A) depression.
B) hypertension.
C) difficulty sleeping.
D) poor nutrition.
Q3) Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine
Q4) The dopamine hypothesis suggests a depletion of dopaminergic transmission contributes to the onset of schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although cerebral palsy is nonprogressive,its clinical manifestations change with growth and maturation of the child.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the most common cause of hydrocephalus in infants?
A) Obstructed arachnoid villi
B) Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius
C) Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid
D) Impaired cerebrospinal fluid circulation in the subarachnoid space
Q3) Central nervous system malformations account for 75% of fetal deaths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ may indicate an underlying condition of spina bifida.
A) Abnormal growth of skin along the spine
B) A midline dimple posterior to the vertebral column
C) A cutaneous angioma
D) A subcutaneous mass
Q5) Children with Tay Sach usually die between ages 2 to 5 years.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
A) Cortisol
B) Epinephrine
C) Androgens
D) Aldosterone
Q2) Aldosterone synthesis and secretion are primarily regulated by the:
A) liver.
B) renin-angiotensin system.
C) adrenal glands.
D) hypothalamus.
Q3) The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.
A) posterior
B) inferior
C) anterior
D) superior
Q4) Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells.It is highly regulated because it:
A) is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.
B) is continuously synthesized.
C) acts as a second messenger.
D) carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Q1) Myxedema coma is caused by severe hypoparathyroidism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why does giantism only occur in children and adolescents?
A) Because they have not reached puberty when the effects of growth hormone are diminished
B) Because their epiphyseal plates have not yet closed
C) Because their skeletal muscles are not fully developed
D) Because their metabolic rates are higher than they are in adulthood
Q3) What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
A) Intolerance to heat,tachycardia,and weight loss
B) Oligomenorrhea,fatigue,and warm skin
C) Restlessness,increased appetite,and metrorrhagia
D) Constipation,decreased heat rate,and lethargy
Q4) The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:
A) neurogenic.
B) psychogenic
C) nephrogenic.
D) ischemic.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) A surge of which hormone changes the ovulatory follicle into the corpus luteum?
A) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D) Progesterone
Q2) What factors defend the vagina from infection?
A) An acid pH between 4 and 5
B) A thin squamous epithelial lining
C) Douching or use of vaginal spray
D) Low estrogen levels
Q3) During the menstrual cycle,ovulation is directly caused by:
A) the gradual decrease in estrogen levels.
B) the sudden increase of luteinizing hormone (LH).
C) the sharp rise in progesterone.
D) both B and C
Q4) Which hormone is linked to obesity and early puberty?
A) Inhibin
B) Leptin
C) Activin
D) Follistatin
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors increase the risk for ovarian cancer?
A) Use of fertility drugs
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Multiple pregnancies
D) Prolonged lactation
Q2) The clinical manifestations of a female patient include the following: irregular or heavy bleeding,passage of large clots,and depletion of iron stores.This patient is experiencing:
A) premenstrual syndrome.
B) dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
C) polycystic ovarian syndrome.
D) primary dysmenorrhea.
Q3) Which cancer is associated with alterations of the BRCA1 gene?
A) Endometrial and ovarian
B) Endometrial and cervical
C) Cervical and breast
D) Breast and ovarian
Q4) A low-fat,vegetarian diet helps relieve symptoms of premenstrual syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin,bone and soft tissue lesions,aneurysms,heart failure,and neurosyphilis?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Latent
D) Tertiary
Q2) Which sexually transmitted disease,primarily among homosexual men,causes clinical manifestations of sudden explosive diarrhea,distention,and flatulence with epigastric pain,vomiting;and foul,sulfuric burping?
A) Campylobacter enteritis
B) Shigellosis
C) Cytomegalovirus enteritis
D) Giardiasis
Q3) Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by maternal gonorrhea infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The asymptomatic stage of syphilis is the latent stage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recycling of iron from erythrocytes is made possible by:
A) transferrin.
B) hemosiderin.
C) apoferritin.
D) erythropoietin.
Q2) Only reduced ferrous iron (Fe<sup>11</sup>)can be used in the formation of normal hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Serum is plasma that has been altered in the laboratory to remove fibrinogen or some other elements that is unnecessary in the sample.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which nutrients are necessary for the hemoglobin synthesis?
A) Protein and niacin
B) Iron and vitamin B<sub>6</sub> (pyridoxine)
C) Cobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>)and folate
D) Pantothenic acid and vitamin C
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Q1) Iron deficiency anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Q2) A person can have vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency anemia without having pernicious anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In hemolytic anemia,when does jaundice occur?
A) Only when erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen
B) Only when heme destruction exceeds the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin
C) Only when the patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST)and alanine transaminase (ALT)
D) Only when the erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin
Q4) How does the body compensate for anemia?
A) Increased rate and depth of breathing
B) Capillary vasoconstriction
C) Hemoglobin holds onto oxygen more firmly
D) Kidneys release more erythropoietin
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Chapter 27: Alterations in Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin improves the absorption of oral iron taken to treat iron deficiency anemia in children?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin E
Q2) Why does polycythemia occur in a fetus?
A) Because fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen due to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DP)
B) Because the fetus has a different hemoglobin structure of two- and two-chains rather than two- and two ß-chains
C) Because there is increased erythropoiesis in response to the hypoxic intrauterine environment
D) Because the lungs of the fetus are undeveloped and unable to adequately diffuse oxygen to the pulmonary capillaries
Q3) In ß-thalassemia major,most erythroblasts are destroyed in the spleen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What enables electrical impulses to travel in a continuous cell-to-cell fashion in myocardial cells?
A) Sarcolemma sclerotic plaques
B) Intercalated disks
C) Trabeculae carneae
D) Bachmann bundles
Q2) Where are the coronary ostia located?
A) Left ventricle
B) Medial to the aortic valve
C) Coronary sinus
D) Aorta
Q3) Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
A) Mitral regurgitation
B) Mitral stenosis
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Jugular vein distention
Q4) Veins are less compliant than arteries.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
A) They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
B) They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
C) They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
D) They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.
Q2) Chorea or St.Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
A) By the release of histamine
B) By decreasing nitric oxide
C) By the release of angiotensin II
D) By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51496
Sample Questions
Q1) How do children with tetralogy of Fallot compensate to relieve hypoxic spells?
A) They lie on their left side.
B) They perform the Valsalva maneuver.
C) They squat.
D) They hyperventilate.
Q2) Classic manifestations of epistaxis,cyanosis of the lower extremities,and decreased or absent femoral pulse are indicative of which congenital defect?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Aortic stenosis
C) Ventricular septum defect
D) Postductal aortic coarctation
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) At birth,both systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
B) At birth,there is a shift in gas exchange from the placenta to the lung.
C) At birth,systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
D) At birth,both systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Q4) All hypertension in children is considered primary hypertension.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51497
Sample Questions
Q1) Which datum is used to assess the adequacy of a patient's alveolar ventilation?
A) Ventilatory rate
B) Ventilatory pattern
C) Respiratory effort
D) Arterial blood gas
Q2) What does decreased compliance within the lung mean?
A) The diaphragm is stiff.
B) The lungs inflate easily.
C) The lungs are stiff.
D) The lungs are unable to diffuse oxygen.
Q3) Ventilation exceeds perfusion in the bases of the lungs and perfusion exceeds ventilation in the apices of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
A) Trachea
B) Segmental bronchi
C) Alveolocapillary membrane
D) Both B and C
all questions and
33
Chapter 32: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest single risk factor for reactivation of tuberculosis is infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement?
A) Hypoventilation causes hypocapniA.
B) Hyperventilation causes hypercapnia.
C) Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.
D) Hyperventilation results in an increased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) Pleurisy
A)Accumulation of air in pleural space
B)Pus in the pleural space
C)Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
D)Inflammation of the pleura
E)Result of rib or sternal fractures
Q4) High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through:
A) shunting.
B) hypoventilation.
C) decreased inspired oxygen.
D) diffusion abnormalities.
34
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Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Creatinine clearance
A)Good estimate of glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
B)Form in concentrated acidic or alkaline urine
C)Cylindric with distinct borders
D)Hematuria
E)Pyuria
Q2) The specific gravity of urine in older adults is normally:
A) increased.
B) high normal.
C) low normal.
D) decreased.
Q3) The left kidney is slightly lower than the right due to the location of the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is a direct relationship between renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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49 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the central nervous system coordinates the detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles during micturition?
A) Spinal cord between C2 and S1
B) Spinal cord between S2 and S4
C) Pons
D) Cauda equina
Q2) Acute tubular necrosis
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
Q3) In glomerulonephritis,how are the glomerular cell walls damaged?
A) By ischemia
B) By lysosomal enzymes
C) By compression from edema
D) By lysis from complement
Q4) Hypovolemia
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false about why infants have a narrow chemical safety margin?
A) The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the excretion of potassium.
C) An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the reabsorption of bicarbonate or buffer hydrogen with ammonia.
D) The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to aldosterone.
Q2) IgA nephropathy causing inflammation to glomerular blood vessels
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
Q3) Which of the following represents the final stage in the embryonic development of the kidney?
A) Metanephros
B) Mesonephros
C) Pronephros
D) Endonephros
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The entire epithelial population of the small intestines is replaced about every 30 to 45 days.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Decreases pancreatic bicarbonate and enzyme secretions
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q3) Which enzyme breaks down protein-forming polypeptides in the stomach?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Pepsin
C) Gastrin
D) Secretin
Q4) Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
A) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Folic acid
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic gastritis of the fundus occurs more frequently than chronic gastritis of the antrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What regulates eating behavior,energy metabolism,and body fat mass?
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Hypothalamus
C) Posterior pituitary
D) Parietal lobe
Q3) Which hormone and/or peptide stimulates eating?
A) Agouti-related protein (AGRP)
B) Alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone (-MSH)
C) Cocaine-and amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART)
D) Peptide YY (PYY)
Q4) Hepatitis A is transmitted through infected blood and other body fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hepatitis D occurs in individuals with hepatitisB.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a cause of physiologic jaundice of the newborn?
A) Reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine
B) Impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin
C) Increased bilirubin production
D) Mild conjugated (indirect reacting)hyperbilirubinemia
Q2) Which organs are affected directly by cystic fibrosis?
A) Muscles and bones
B) Kidneys and bladder
C) Lymph nodes and spleen
D) Cervix and liver
Q3) The intestinal villi of a child who has been diagnosed with gluten sensitivity enteropathy regenerates after treatment with a gluten-free diet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In newborns,gastroesophageal reflux (GER)is normal because neuromuscular control of the gastroesophageal sphincter is not fully developed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The synovial membrane has a thin layer called the intima.What is the function of the type A cells within the intima?
A) They release mast cells to initiate the inflammatory process after joint injury.
B) They ingest and remove bacteria and debris by phagocytosis in the joint cavity.
C) They secrete hyaluronate,a binding agent that gives synovial fluid its viscous quality.
D) They store fat cells and glycogen to provide adenosine triphosphate (ATP)for joint activity.
Q2) Which statement is false about muscles?
A) Muscle comprises 50% of an adult's body weight and 40% of a child's.
B) Muscle is 75% water,20% protein,and 5% organic and inorganic compounds.
C) Thirty-two percent of all protein stores for energy and metabolism are contained in muscle.
D) Muscles are encased in fascia.
Q3) Articular cartilage has no blood vessels,lymph vessels,or nerves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rhabdomyolysis
A)Caused by sedatives and narcotics,particularly street heroin
B)Caused by viruses,bacteria,and parasites
C)Exercise intolerance with normal production of lactic acid
D)Impairs the breakdown of glycogen and production of lactic acid
E)Autoimmune disease
Q2) After prolonged muscle compression,which pathophysiologic alteration precedes crush syndrome?
A) Muscle ischemia
B) Myoglobinemia
C) Volkmann contracture
D) Neural injury
Q3) Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis,which factors increase osteoprotegrin (OPG)production?
A) Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ß)and glucocorticoids
B) Interleukin 1 (IL-1),prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>,and leukotrienes
C) Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-),leptin,and 17 ß-estradiol
D) Interleukin 8 (IL-8)and parathyroid hormone (PTH)
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecular analysis has demonstrated which oncogene associated with osteosarcoma?
A) p53
B) src
C) myc
D) TSC2
Q2) The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures.
A) epiphyseal line
B) physeal plate
C) epiphyseal cartilage
D) metaphyseal plate
Q3) Osteosarcomas usually metastasize to the:
A) pancreas.
B) liver.
C) lungs.
D) brain.
Q4) Poor posture results in structural scoliosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ of the epidermis initiate immune responses and provide defense against environmental antigens.
A) Langerhans cells
B) Merkel cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Melanocytes
Q2) Which nevus is characterized by a small (less than 1 cm)lesion with regular edges and bristlelike hairs;colors change from skin tones to light brown;has a slight likelihood of developing into a melanoma?
A) Junctional nevus
B) Epidermal nevus
C) Intradermal nevus
D) Compound nevus
Q3) Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with:
A) posterior pituitary adenomA.
B) Cushing disease.
C) polycystic ovaries.
D) Addison disease.
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Chapter 43: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of strawberry hemangiomas require surgical treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Frequently,diaper dermatitis is secondarily infected with:
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Proteus species.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
Q3) Which skin disorder is characterized by a vesicular eruption after prolonged exposure to perspiration,with subsequent obstruction of the eccrine ducts?
A) Scabies
B) Tinea corporis
C) Pediculosis
D) Miliaria
Q4) Scalded-skin syndrome is the result of staphylococcal infection of burned skin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Scabies is a contagious disease caused by the itch mite,Sarcoptes scabiei.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) In multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MOSD),the gut hypothesis attempts to explain:
A) paralytic ileus.
B) translocation of bacteria.
C) maldistribution of blood flow.
D) massive diarrhea accompanying septic shock.
Q2) The cause of organ failure in shock is depletion of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What parameter of stroke volume is affected by cardiogenic shock?
A) Preload is increased.
B) Preload is decreased.
C) Contractility is increased.
D) Afterload is increased.
E) Afterload is decreased.
Q4) A clinical infection is necessary for the development of septic shock.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children younger than _____ years of age lack the ability to concentrate urine.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q2) The most common type of burn injury in very young children is flame injury.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Children are at high risk for pulmonary complications because of:
A) immature lungs.
B) anatomic differences in their airways.
C) decreased immunity.
D) high incidences of pneumonia.
Q4) Children younger than 2 years have a significantly higher risk for associated morbidity and mortality after thermal injury.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Scar tissue is metabolically inactive and avascular.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the most common causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)is sepsis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?
A) There are defects in the ras oncogene,p53 tumor suppressor gene,and INK4A,the gene encoding a cell-cycle regulatory protein.
B) The bone marrow and peripheral blood are characterized by leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells.As the immature blasts increase,they replace normal myelocytic cells,megakaryocytes,and erythrocytes.
C) There is failure of B cells to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
D) The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 create an abnormal,fused gene identified as BCR-ABL.
Q3) In the leukemias,a single progenitor cell undergoes malignant transformation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS),how does diffuse pulmonary thrombosis contribute to pulmonary edema?
A) By decreasing the osmotic pressure
B) By increasing the capillary hydrostatic pressure
C) By increasing the pulmonary capillary permeability
D) By allowing the retention of sodium and water
Q2) The most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea of childhood is adenotonsillar hypertrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chest wall compliance in infants is __________ in adults.
A) lower than
B) higher than
C) the same as
D) variable,unlike
Q4) Paradoxical breathing is an ominous sign in premature infants.
A)True
B)False
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