Advanced Maternal and Newborn Nursing Exam Preparation Guide - 1131 Verified Questions

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Advanced Maternal and Newborn Nursing Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Advanced Maternal and Newborn Nursing delves deeply into the complex care needs of mothers and newborns during the prenatal, intrapartum, postpartum, and neonatal periods. The course emphasizes evidence-based assessment, critical thinking, and interventions for high-risk pregnancies, labor complications, and neonatal disorders. Students develop advanced clinical judgment and skills for supporting family-centered care, ethical decision-making, and culturally competent practice. The curriculum also explores current issues in perinatal health, interdisciplinary collaboration, and integration of advanced technology and research to optimize maternal and neonatal outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray

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37 Chapters

1131 Verified Questions

1131 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client at 36 weeks of gestation states, "Why can't I have an induction now? My sister delivered at 36 weeks and her baby is fine." Which information about infants born at 34 to 36 weeks should the nurse consider when answering?

A) Birth by induction is low for this gestational age.

B) Infants born at 34 to 36 weeks have mature lungs and do well at birth.

C) The birth of infants between 34 to 36 weeks has declined as more births are going to term or post term.

D) Infants born at 34 to 36 weeks are immature and have more health complications than infants born at term.

Answer: D

Q2) Which factor significantly contributed to the shift from home births to hospital births in the early twentieth century?

A) The number of hospital births decreased.

B) Forceps were developed to facilitate difficult births.

C) The importance of early parent-infant contact was identified.

D) Puerperal sepsis was identified as a risk factor in labor and birth.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse states to the newly pregnant patient, "Tell me how you feel about being pregnant." Which communication technique is the nurse using with this patient?

A) Clarifying

B) Paraphrasing

C) Reflection

D) Structuring

Answer: A

Q2) Which nursing intervention is correctly written?

A) Force fluids as necessary.

B) Observe interaction with the infant.

C) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.

D) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.

Answer: D

Q3) Which goal is most appropriate for the collaborative problem of wound infection?

A) The client will not exhibit further signs of infection.

B) Maintain the client's fluid intake at 1000 mL/8 hr.

C) The client will have a temperature of 98.6° F within 2 days.

D) Monitor the client to detect therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy.

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) The clinic nurse often cares for clients who are considering an abortion. Which responsibilities does this nurse have in regard to this issue? (Select all that apply.)

A) Informing the client about pro-life options

B) Informing the client about pro-choice support groups

C) Being informed about abortion from a legal standpoint

D) Being informed about abortion from an ethical standpoint

E) Recognizing that this issue may result in confusion for the client

Answer: C, D, E

Q2) The RN is delegating tasks to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which tasks can the nurse delegate? (Select all that apply.)

A) Teaching the client about breast care

B) Assessment of a client's lochia and perineal area

C) Assisting a client to the bathroom for the first time after birth

D) Vital signs on a postpartum client who delivered the night before

E) Assisting a postpartum client to take a shower on the second postpartum day

Answer: D, E

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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology

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Q1) Follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle

A)Ovulation marks the beginning of this stage and occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period.

B)The period in which an ovum matures begins with the first day of menstruation and ends about 14 days later.

C)This occurs as the ovum matures and is released during the first half of the ovarian cycle.

Q2) Which 16-year-old girl may experience secondary amenorrhea?

A) Jackie, 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb

B) Karen, 5 ft 9 in, 150 lb

C) Carol, 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb

D) Linda, 5 ft 4 in, 120 lb

Q3) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.

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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which point should the nurse include when telling a couple about the prenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders?

A) The diagnosis may be slow and could be inconclusive.

B) A comprehensive evaluation will result in an accurate diagnosis.

C) Common disorders can be quickly diagnosed through blood tests.

D) Diagnosis can be obtained promptly through most hospital laboratories.

Q2) The nurse receives a report on an infant whose analysis indicates 47 total chromosomes, with the abnormality noted at chromosome 21. What additional assessments will the nurse include when evaluating the infant?

A) Cleft palate

B) Protruding tongue

C) Extra fingers or toes (polydactyly)

D) Intellectual developmental delay

Q3) Which statement is true of multifactorial disorders?

A) They may not be evident until later in life.

B) They are usually present and detectable at birth.

C) The disorders are characterized by multiple defects.

D) Secondary defects are rarely associated with them.

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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant client asks the nurse how her baby gets oxygen to breathe. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "Oxygen-rich blood is delivered through the umbilical vein to the baby."

B) "Take lots of deep breaths because the baby gets all of its oxygen from you."

C) "You don't need to be concerned about your baby getting enough oxygen."

D) "The baby's lungs are not mature enough to actually breathe, so don't worry."

Q2) An expectant parent says to the nurse, "When my sister's baby was born, it was covered in a cheeselike coating. What is the purpose of this coating?" The correct response by the nurse is to explain that the purpose of vernix caseosa is to:

A) regulate fetal temperature.

B) protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid.

C) promote normal peripheral nervous system development.

D) allow the transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.

Q3) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)

A) Vernix caseosa

B) Lanugo

C) Port wine stain

D) Brown fat

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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The client has just learned she is pregnant and overhears the gynecologist saying that she has a positive Chadwick's sign. When the client asks the nurse what this means, how should the nurse respond?

A) "Chadwick's sign signifies an increased risk of blood clots in pregnant women because of a congestion of blood."

B) "That sign means the cervix has softened as the result of tissue changes that naturally occur with pregnancy."

C) "This means that a mucous plug has formed in the cervical canal to help protect you from uterine infection."

D) "This sign occurs normally in pregnancy, when estrogen causes increased blood flow in the area of the cervix."

Q2) Which factors contribute to the presence of edema in the pregnant client? (Select all that apply.)

A) Diet consisting of processed foods

B) Hemoconcentration

C) Increase in colloid osmotic pressure

D) Last trimester of pregnancy

E) Decreased venous return

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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which comment made by a client in her first trimester indicates ambivalent feelings?

A) "My body is changing so quickly."

B) "I haven't felt well since this pregnancy began."

C) "I'm concerned about the amount of weight I've gained."

D) "I wanted to become pregnant, but I'm scared about being a mother."

Q2) The nurse in labor and birth is caring for a Muslim client during the active phase of labor. The nurse notes that the client quickly draws away when touched. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

A) Ask the charge nurse to reassign you to another client.

B) Assume that she doesn't like you and decrease your time with her.

C) Continue to touch her as much as you need to while providing care.

D) Limit touching to a minimum because physical contact may not be acceptable in her culture.

Q3) Which client may require more help and understanding when integrating the newborn into the family?

A) A primipara from an upper income family

B) A primipara who comes from a large family

C) A multipara (gravida 2) who has a supportive husband and mother

D) A multipara (gravida 6) who has two children younger than 3 years

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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant client's diet may not meet her need for folate. What is a good source of this nutrient?

A) Chicken

B) Cheese

C) Potatoes

D) Green leafy vegetables

Q2) Which client would require additional calories and nutrients?

A) A 36-year-old female gravida 2, para 1, in her first trimester of pregnancy

B) An 18-year-old female who delivered a 7-lb baby and is bottle feeding

C) A 23-year-old female who had a cesarean section birth and is bottle feeding

D) A 20-year-old female who had a vaginal birth 5 months ago and is breastfeeding

Q3) Identify the appropriate weight gain at 28 weeks' gestation for a client with a normal BMI (body mass index) before pregnancy.

A) 10 pounds

B) 19 pounds

C) 25 pounds

D) 30 pounds

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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a client hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?

A) Determine if a metabolic disorder is genetic.

B) Identify the sex of the fetus.

C) Identify abnormal fetal cells.

D) Determine fetal lung maturity.

Q2) Which response by the nurse is most appropriate to the statement, "This test isn't my idea, but my husband insists?"

A) "It's your decision."

B) "Don't worry. Everything will be fine."

C) "Why don't you want to have this test?"

D) "You're concerned about having this test?"

Q3) Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?

A) Biophysical profile

B) Multiple-marker screening

C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio

D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum

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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pregnant client is anticipating a vaginal birth without complications. During the course of her labor, complications arise and the fetus has to be delivered via cesarean section. The client is visibly upset and wants to know why this has happened to her because she did everything right during her pregnancy. Which priority nursing diagnosis would apply?

A) Risk for injury

B) Pain

C) Impaired skin integrity

D) Anxiety

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the option of childbirth classes with a patient in her second trimester. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has understood the teaching?

A) "My labor will likely be shorter if I go to classes."

B) "I will likely perceive less pain during labor if I go to classes."

C) "I will likely be more satisfied with my labor if I go to classes."

D) "I will likely use fewer medications during labor if I go to classes."

Q3) Lamaze childbirth education

A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach

B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain

C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle

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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) A client whose cervix is dilated to 5 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor?

A) Latent phase

B) Active phase

C) Second stage

D) Third stage

Q2) A client asks the nurse how she can tell if labor is real? What should the nurse give as an explanation? (Select all that apply.)

A) In true labor, the cervix begins to dilate.

B) In true labor, the contractions are felt in the abdomen and groin.

C) In true labor, contractions often resemble menstrual cramps during early labor.

D) In true labor, contractions are inconsistent in frequency, duration, and intensity in the early stages.

E) In true labor your contractions tend to increase in frequency, duration, and intensity with walking.

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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to perform Leopold's maneuvers. Why are Leopold's maneuvers used by practitioners?

A) To determine the status of the membranes

B) To determine cervical dilation and effacement

C) To determine the best location to assess the fetal heart rate

D) To determine whether the fetus is in the posterior position

Q2) Which interventions are required following an amniotomy procedure? (Select all that apply.)

A) Notation related to amount of fluid expelled

B) Color and consistency of fluid

C) Fetal heart rate

D) Maternal blood pressure

E) Maternal heart rate

Q3) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to:

A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.

B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.

C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.

D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.

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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a pattern of variable decelerations occur, the nurse should:

A) administer O S1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/min.

B) place a wedge under the right hip.

C) increase the IV fluids to 150 mL/hr.

D) position client in a knee-chest position.

Q2) The nurse is preparing supplies for an amnioinfusion on a client with intact membranes. Which supplies should the nurse gather? (Select all that apply.)

A) Extra underpads

B) Solution of 3% normal saline

C) Amniotic hook to perform an amniotomy

D) Solid intrauterine pressure catheter with a pressure transducer on its tip

Q3) Which client has the priority need for fetal monitoring?

A) Primigravida at 38 weeks with spontaneous ROM

B) Multigravida at 40 weeks with history of 10-hour labors

C) Multigravida admitted for repeat elective cesarean section

D) Primigravida at 39 weeks with meconium-stained amniotic fluid

Q4) Variable decelerations

A)Caused by umbilical cord compression

B)Caused by fetal head compression

C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency

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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following clients could be a candidate for a vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC)?

A) A 32-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who had a primary cesarean section for fetal distress

B) A 23-year-old gravida 3, para 2, who had two cesarean sections with classic incisions

C) An 18-year-old gravida 3, para 2, who had cesarean section for labor dystocia during second stage with birth of newborns who weighed 8 pounds 10 ounces, and 9 pounds, respectively

D) A 25-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who wants to have a scheduled cesarean section rather than go through the process of labor because she is very fearful of the pain associated with childbirth

Q2) The health care provider's prescription reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 25 mg IV stat. The medication vial reads diphenhydramine (Benadryl), 50 mg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer to one decimal point.

_____ mL

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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which clinical finding indicates the use of vacuum extraction as a birth method?

A) Mentum presentation of the fetus

B) Presence of caput succedaneum

C) Maternal exhaustion as a result of ineffective pushing during second stage of labor

D) Physician preference

Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer a vaginal prostaglandin preparation to ripen the cervix of a client. With which client should the nurse question the use of vaginal prostaglandin as a cervical ripening agent?

A) The client who has a Bishop's score of 5

B) The client who is at 42 weeks of gestation

C) The client who had a previous low transverse cesarean birth

D) The client who had previous surgery in the upper uterus

Q3) Which event indicates a complication of an external version?

A) Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm

B) Fetus returning to the original position

C) Increased maternal anxiety after the version

D) Fetal bradycardia persisting 10 minutes after the version

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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A postpartum client overhears the nurse tell the health care provider that she has a positive Homans sign and asks what it means. Which is the nurse's best response?

A) "You have pitting edema in your ankles."

B) "You have deep tendon reflexes rated 2+."

C) "You have calf pain when the nurse flexes your foot."

D) "You have a 'fleshy' odor to your vaginal drainage."

Q2) Which client would be most likely to have severe afterbirth pains and request a narcotic analgesic?

A) Gravida 5, para 5

B) Primipara who delivered a 7-lb boy

C) Client who is bottle feeding her first child

D) Client who wishes to breastfeed as soon as her baby is out of the neonatal intensive care unit

Q3) Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which complication?

A) Fever and increased blood pressure

B) Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia

C) Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture

D) Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which action should the nurse do to provide support and encouragement to the new postpartum client?

A) Recount how she solved her own problems.

B) Correct the new mother at every opportunity.

C) Praise the mother's early attempts at infant care.

D) Explain to the new mother that everything will be fine.

Q2) To promote bonding and attachment immediately after birth, which action should the nurse take?

A) Assist the mother in feeding her baby.

B) Allow the mother quiet time with her infant.

C) Teach the mother about the concepts of bonding and attachment.

D) Assist the mother in assuming an en face position with her newborn.

Q3) The postpartum nurse is reviewing dietary practices for an Asian client. Which should the nurse expect to observe as a dietary practice for this culture?

A) Food brought from home

B) Preference for fresh fruits

C) Preference for "cold" foods

D) Request for ice water instead of hot water

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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which infant has the lowest risk of developing high levels of bilirubin?

A) The infant who developed a cephalohematoma

B) The infant who was bruised during a difficult birth

C) The infant who uses brown fat to maintain temperature

D) The infant who is breastfed during the first hour of life

Q2) During fetal circulation the pressure is greatest in the:

A) left atrium.

B) right atrium.

C) hepatic system.

D) pulmonary veins.

Q3) Which is the most likely cause of regurgitation when a newborn is fed?

A) The gastrocolic reflex

B) A relaxed cardiac sphincter

C) An underdeveloped pyloric sphincter

D) Placing the infant in a prone position following a feeding

Q4) How can nurses prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn?

A) Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows

B) Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners

C) Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket

D) Warming the stethoscope and nurse's hands before touching the baby

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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn

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Q1) Which nursing action is designed to avoid unnecessary heat loss in the newborn?

A) Maintain room temperature at 70° F.

B) Place a blanket over the scale before weighing the infant.

C) Take the rectal temperature every hour to detect early changes.

D) Undress the infant completely for assessments so that they can be finished quickly.

Q2) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)

A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.

B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.

C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.

D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.

E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.

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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn

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Q1) The nurse is assessing a newborn's circumcision 30 minutes after the procedure. The nurse notes excessive bleeding coming from the circumcised area. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement?

A) Apply pressure to the site.

B) Continue to observe for another 30 minutes.

C) Apply the diaper tightly over the circumcised area.

D) Apply petroleum jelly to the site with a small piece of gauze.

Q2) The nurse has just completed discharge teaching to parents on newborn bathing. Which statement made by the parents indicates a further need for teaching? (Select all that apply.)

A) "We will clean the diaper area last."

B) "We will use cotton-tipped swabs to clean the ears."

C) "We will use an antibacterial soap during the sponge bath."

D) "We can submerge the baby in a tub of water after the cord falls off."

E) "We will shampoo the baby's head using a football hold before unwrapping."

Q3) Which principle is important in providing and teaching cord care?

A) Cord care is done only to control bleeding.

B) Alcohol is the only agent used for cord care.

C) It takes a minimum of 24 days for the cord to separate.

D) Keeping the cord dry will decrease bacterial growth.

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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding

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Sample Questions

Q1) Late in pregnancy, the client's breasts should be assessed by the nurse to identify any potential concerns related to breastfeeding. Which of the following nipple conditions make it necessary to intervene before birth. (Select all that apply.)

A) Flat nipples

B) Cracked nipples

C) Everted nipples

D) Inverted nipples

E) Nipples that contract when compressed

Q2) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?

A) Colic

B) Aspiration

C) Dental caries

D) Ear infections

Q3) Which is the first step in assisting the breastfeeding mother?

A) Assess the woman's knowledge of breastfeeding.

B) Provide instruction on the composition of breast milk.

C) Discuss the hormonal changes that trigger the milk ejection reflex.

D) Help her obtain a comfortable position and place the infant to the breast.

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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant

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Q1) The nurse is teaching new parents how to avoid and treat newborn diaper rash. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)

A) Keep the diaper area clean and dry.

B) Do not use talc-based powders in the diaper area.

C) Cleanse the diaper area with a scrubbing motion.

D) Apply a thick layer of zinc oxide to prevent further outbreaks.

E) Remove the diaper and expose the perineum to warm air if a rash develops.

Q2) Infant immunizations should begin at which age?

A) Birth

B) 2 months

C) 3 months

D) 4 months

Q3) Which is the priority rationale for doing a car seat trial for a preterm neonate being discharged soon?

A) To assess the car seat's size

B) To assess the parents' knowledge about car seat use

C) To determine if the neonate cries while in the car seat

D) To assess for any neonate apnea or bradycardia while in the car seat

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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement correctly describes the incidence of intimate partner violence (IPV) in the United States?

A) Intimate partner violence seldom occurs during pregnancy.

B) Each year about 42.4 million women experience intimate partner violence.

C) The largest number of intimate partner violence is in the lower socioeconomic classes.

D) Intimate partner violence is second only to automobile accidents as the most frequent cause of injury to women.

Q2) Which should the nurse do when counseling a teenage client who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?

A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.

B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.

C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.

D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.

Q3) Which is a major barrier to health care for teen mothers?

A) Health care workers have a positive attitude.

B) The hospital or clinic is within walking distance of the girl's home.

C) Seeing a different nurse and/or health care provider at every visit.

D) The institution is open days, evenings, and Saturday by special arrangement.

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy

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Q1) Rh incompatibility can occur if the client is Rh-negative and the:

A) fetus is Rh-negative.

B) fetus is Rh-positive.

C) father is Rh-positive.

D) father and fetus are both Rh-negative.

Q2) A 17-year-old primigravida has gained 4 pounds since her last prenatal visit. Her blood pressure is 140/92 mm Hg. The most important nursing action is to:

A) advise her to cut down on fast foods that are high in fat.

B) caution her to avoid salty foods and to return in 2 weeks.

C) assess weight gain, location of edema, and urine for protein.

D) recommend she stay home from school for a few days to reduce stress.

Q3) What is the priority nursing intervention for the client who has had an incomplete abortion?

A) Methylergonovine (Methergine), 0.2 mg IM

B) Preoperative teaching for surgery

C) Insertion of IV line for fluid replacement

D) Positioning of client in left side-lying position

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 27

Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2137

Sample Questions

Q1) Which client teaching instructions are necessary for a pregnant client who is to undergo a glucose challenge test (GCT) as part of a routine pregnancy treatment plan?

A) Consume a low-fat diet for 48 hours prior to testing.

B) Fast for 12 hours prior to testing.

C) There are no dietary restrictions prior to testing.

D) Consume a consistent carbohydrate diet (60 g) prior to testing.

Q2) A client has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?

A) "I know I will need to have an abortion as soon as possible."

B) "Even though my test is positive, my baby might not be affected."

C) "My baby is certain to have AIDS and die within the first year of life."

D) "This pregnancy will probably decrease the chance that I will develop AIDS."

Q3) Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching a pregnant client with Class II heart disease?

A) Advise her to gain at least 30 pounds.

B) Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity.

C) Inform her of the need to limit fluid intake.

D) Explain the importance of a diet high in calcium.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

28

Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2138

Sample Questions

Q1) Which finding by the nurse on a vaginal exam would be a concern if a spontaneous rupture of the membranes occurred?

A) Cephalic presentation

B) Left occiput position

C) Dilation 2 cm

D) Presenting part at -3 station

Q2) Which technique is least effective for the client with persistent occiput posterior position?

A) Squatting

B) Lying supine and relaxing

C) Sitting or kneeling, leaning forward with support

D) Rocking the pelvis back and forth while on hands and knees

Q3) Which action by the nurse prevents infection in the labor and birth area?

A) Using clean techniques for all procedures

B) Keeping underpads and linens as dry as possible

C) Cleaning secretions from the vaginal area by using a back to front motion

D) Performing vaginal examinations every hour while the client is in active labor

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications

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44 Verified Questions

44 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139

Sample Questions

Q1) To prevent infection of the urinary tract, the nurse should instruct the client to:

A) include soft drinks in the total fluid intake.

B) drink grapefruit juice several times a day.

C) perform pericare at least twice during a shift.

D) increase fluid intake to 2500 to 3000 mL/day.

Q2) Prior to ambulating the client to the bathroom whose admission hemoglobin level was 10.2 g/dL, the nurse should:

A) request repeat hemoglobin and hematocrit.

B) assess the resting pulse rate.

C) dangle her on the side of the bed.

D) administer the ordered oral analgesic.

Q3) For the client diagnosed with endometritis, the nurse recognizes that the client should be positioned in the:

A) prone position.

B) side-lying position.

C) Fowler position.

D) supine position with the head flat.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2140

Sample Questions

Q1) Which data should alert the nurse caring for an SGA infant that additional calories may be needed?

A) The latest hematocrit was 53%.

B) The infant's weight gain is 40 g/day.

C) The infant is taking 120 mL/kg every 24 hours.

D) Three successive temperature measurements were 97°, 96°, and 97° F.

Q2) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?

A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)

B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)

C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)

D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)

Q3) To determine a preterm infant's readiness for nipple feeding, the nurse should assess the:

A) Skin turgor.

B) Bowel sounds.

C) Current weight.

D) Respiratory rate.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31

Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141

Sample Questions

Q1) When a cardiac defect causes the mixing of arterial and venous blood in the right side of the heart, the nurse might expect to find:

A) cyanosis.

B) diuresis.

C) signs of pulmonary congestion.

D) increased oxygenation of the tissues.

Q2) Which newborn should the nurse recognize as being most at risk for developing respiratory distress syndrome?

A) A 35-week-gestation male baby born vaginally to a mother addicted to heroin

B) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally 72 hours after the rupture of membranes

C) A 36-week-gestation male baby born by cesarean birth to a mother with insulin-dependent diabetes

D) A 35-week-gestation female baby born vaginally to a mother who has pregnancy-induced hypertension

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

32

Chapter 31: Family Planning

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142

Sample Questions

Q1) You are assessing a client in the clinic setting who has been taking oral contraceptives for several years, without side effects. Vital signs are stable and the client denies any pain or tenderness. On examination, you note a small erythematous area of approximately 2 cm on her right lower leg. She denies any traumatic injury and says this is a recent onset of a few days. Based on this information you would:

A) instruct the client to use warm compresses for several days and keep the leg elevated as much as possible.

B) have the client wear flats rather than heels to modify her gait and help alleviate this issue.

C) refer the client to the health care provider for additional diagnostic work up.

D) have the client take an over-the-counter (OTC) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and return to the clinic if the problem persists.

Q2) The role of the nurse in family planning is to:

A) refer the couple to a reliable physician.

B) decide on the best method for the couple.

C) advise couples on which contraceptive to use.

D) educate couples on the various methods of contraception.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 33

Chapter 32: Infertility

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2143

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's best response is:

A) "You should confront him about this."

B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."

C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."

D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."

Q2) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is:

A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."

B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."

C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."

D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2144

Sample Questions

Q1) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A) Fear of x-ray exposure

B) Expense of the procedure

C) Reluctance to hear bad news

D) Having heard that the test is painful

E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary

Q2) A 45-year-old client asks how often she should have a mammogram. The most appropriate answer is:

A) whenever she feels a lump.

B) every year beginning at age 40.

C) they are unnecessary until age 50.

D) every year if you have risk factors.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35

Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2145

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement by a client diagnosed with premenstrual syndrome indicates that further health teaching is needed?

A) "I will not eat chips or pickles."

B) "I'll eat only three meals per day."

C) "Drinking alcohol makes me more depressed."

D) "Coffee and chocolate can make me more irritable and nervous."

Q2) The drug of choice to treat gonorrhea is:

A) penicillin G (Pfizerpen).

B) tetracycline (Achromycin).

C) ceftriaxone (Rocephin).

D) acyclovir (Zovirax).

Q3) Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a client who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?

A) Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy

B) Danazol (Danocrine)

C) Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)

D) Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 36

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