

Advanced Marketing Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Marketing explores the strategic and analytical aspects of modern marketing, delving into topics such as consumer behavior, market segmentation, brand management, and integrated marketing communications. The course emphasizes data-driven decision making, digital marketing trends, and the development of effective marketing plans tailored to dynamic and competitive environments. Through case studies, real-world applications, and hands-on projects, students refine their skills in market analysis, campaign design, and measuring marketing effectiveness, preparing them to tackle complex marketing challenges in diverse industries.
Recommended Textbook
Marketing Channel Strategy 8th Edition by Robert Palmatier
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14 Chapters
700 Verified Questions
700 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Understanding Channel Strategies
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do intermediaries most likely create utility for end-users?
A) negotiating financing terms with wholesalers
B) ensuring product availability and assortment
C) developing large stocks of similar products
D) creating timely promotional materials
E) offering convenient online tools
Answer: B
Q2) Which channel function almost always moves forward from the producer to the consumer?
A) negotiation
B) promotion
C) financing
D) payment
E) risk
Answer: B
Q3) Specialization increases channel efficiency,but it also requires close cooperation and coordination in channel operations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: End-User Analysis: Segmenting and Targeting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about market segments is most likely true?
A) Most end-users are highly service-sensitive and highly price-insensitive.
B) In most cases, the same channel strategy satisfies the needs of all segments.
C) A segment's demand for service outputs is typically unrelated to price factors.
D) End-users in a segment make trade-offs between product attributes, service outputs, and price.
E) Service outputs are more relevant to segment end-users in the business marketplace than in the consumer marketplace.
Answer: D
Q2) The LEAST likely reason that end-users of DirecTV are satisfied with the firm's customer service is that DirecTV ________.
A) provides useful information to all customer service representatives
B) places its own employees at third-party call centers to gain control
C) offers higher pay than cable providers to call center employees
D) gives customer service representatives free satellite TV
E) conducts all customer service functions in-house
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Channel Analysis: Auditing Marketing Channels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to the decreasing predictability of end-user demand as the channel member's distance from the end-user increases?
A) capacity utilization
B) environmental bounds
C) service gap
D) zero-sum gain
E) bullwhip effect
Answer: E
Q2) What is the most likely benefit of auditing channel functions?
A) identifying gaps in desired service outputs
B) establishing channel oversight teams
C) conducting data mining activities
D) gathering end-user feedback
E) segmenting the market
Answer: A
Q3) Service gaps occur when the amount of a service supplied is less than the service demanded.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Make Versus Buy Channel Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Company X,which has substantial specificities,is facing a highly volatile but very promising market.What is the best option for Company X?
A) engaging in forward vertical integration
B) increasing performance ambiguity
C) redefining channel functions
D) relying on local wholesalers
E) outsourcing distribution
Q2) Coca-Cola and PepsiCo most likely shifted from outsourcing to vertical integration for the purpose of ________.
A) building brand equity
B) lowering bottling costs
C) negotiating with bottlers
D) meeting global demands
E) controlling fountain sales
Q3) Why are third-party distributors typically able to provide better market coverage than vertically integrated manufacturers?
Q4) What is performance ambiguity? What are the potential causes and effects of performance ambiguity?
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Chapter 5: Designing Channel Structures and Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A downstream channel member appears to carry a weak brand by offering a nominal amount of stock but encourages prospective customers to purchase another brand.The downstream channel member is most likely attempting to drop the weak brand through ________.
A) overt substitution
B) discontinuation
C) bait-and-switch
D) covert conversion
E) free riding
Q2) Which of the following products should most likely be distributed as intensively as possible?
A) milk
B) blender
C) printer
D) television
E) refrigerator
Q3) A pull strategy is both common and effective in fast moving consumer goods channels.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Retailing Structures and Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) For retailers,SG&A expenses address the service output of ________.
A) spatial convenience
B) product assortment
C) customer service
D) product variety
E) bulk breaking
Q2) What are the three primary routes to market? What challenges does a retailer or manufacturer face when using multiple retail routes?
Q3) Discuss the reasons that major retailers have increasingly more channel power than manufacturers.
Q4) Patty's Party Place ordered five cases of Valentine's Day balloons from a Chinese manufacturer.Patty's purchased the balloons at a cost of ten cents per balloon and will sell them at a cost of $.50/each.Which term best describes the transaction between Patty's and the Chinese manufacturer?
A) direct sale
B) retail sale
C) niche sale
D) consumer sale
E) wholesale sale
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Chapter 7: Wholesaling Structures and Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) How has e-commerce most likely benefitted wholesalers?
A) Wholesalers with an online presence can globalize the supply chain.
B) Independent electronic exchanges allow wholesalers to promote services.
C) The risk of defective goods sold by fake e-merchants has been eliminated.
D) Reverse online auctions enable wholesalers to improve customer relationships.
E) Wholesalers gain more customer knowledge which leads to better service and value.
Q2) Consortiums,such as Intercore Resources,help distributors to ________.
A) analyze service outputs
B) evaluate master distributors
C) address vertical integration issues
D) provide better service to customers
E) profit from storing unwanted inventory
Q3) A firm that sells physical inputs and products to other businesses is best described as a(n)________.
A) contractor
B) wholesaler
C) merchant
D) marketer
E) retailer
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Chapter 8: Franchising Structures and Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a franchising arrangement,the franchisee acts as a separate business entity but is required to return all of its profits to the franchisor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the text,a franchise system that is ________ old has the greatest chance of success.
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 3 years
E) 4 years
Q3) Annual profits serve as the best tool to assess franchisee performance because profits can be readily observed and verified,unlike sales,which are difficult to measure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a plural form system? What are the benefits of such a system?
Q5) Multi-unit franchising is becoming increasingly common.Briefly explain the functionality and advantages of multi-unit franchising.
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Chapter 9: Emerging Channel Structures and Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely a true statement about Zappos?
A) Zappos reduces shoppers' risks by offering free shipping and returns.
B) Zappos gained immediate success when it came under the Amazon umbrella.
C) Zappos shifted from traditional brick-and-mortar stores to online-only retailing.
D) Zappos' e-commerce strategy reduces the firm's need for customer service employees.
E) Zappos' gross sales for clothing have now surpassed the firm's gross sales for footwear.
Q2) All of the following are most likely disadvantages of acquiring service capabilities through a joint venture EXCEPT ________.
A) losing proprietary information
B) engaging in management difficulties
C) losing control of end-user relationships
D) creating organizational culture clashes
E) increasing service transition investment risks
Q3) What factors motivate firms to shift from selling products to selling services?
Q4) What are the key characteristics of services? How does each characteristic affect channel strategies?
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Chapter 10: Managing Channel Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to the ability to alter another organization's behavior?
A) channel dependence
B) legitimate power
C) coercive power
D) channel strategy
E) channel power
Q2) What influence strategy is best when a channel member has referent power?
A) promise
B) threat
C) request
D) information exchange
E) recommendation
Q3) What type of power involves negative sanctions for failing to conform to a channel member's expectations?
A) reward
B) coercive
C) expert
D) referent
E) legitimate
Q4) What is channel power? Why is channel power necessary?
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Chapter 11: Managing Channel Conflict
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most likely reason that channel partners would agree to joint membership in a trade association?
A) promote the product line
B) prevent and contain conflict
C) comply with federal regulations
D) identify and resolve a manifest conflict
E) appeal a binding resolution from a dealer council
Q2) Which term refers to using more than one route to get to the same market?
A) cooptation
B) domain growth
C) multiple channels
D) hybrid marketing
E) intrachannel competition
Q3) What is the LEAST likely result of functional conflict in a marketing channel system?
A) equitable split of system resources
B) balanced distribution of channel power
C) standardized methods for handling conflict
D) established outlets for expressing grievances
E) infrequent communication between members
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Managing Channel Relationships
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a drawback of the stages-of-development idea of marketing channel relationships?
A) Regression means that the relationship will completely fail.
B) Commitment is the most important development stage.
C) Relationship development is rarely linear and orderly.
D) The concept fails to consider upstream motivations.
E) Momentum must be maintained throughout channels.
Q2) What is the primary reason that building strong relationships with all channel partners is unwise?
A) Committed relationships cannot be clearly identified.
B) Strong relationships do not correlate with improved profits.
C) Only one channel member financially benefits from a relationship.
D) Differentiation strategies fail to benefit from channel commitment.
E) Strong relationships are difficult and costly to create and maintain.
Q3) Why do most firms maintain a portfolio of channel partners at varying relationship strengths? What are the benefits of maintaining weak relationships?
Q4) How has technology contributed to the committed relationship between P&G and Wal-Mart? How do both firms benefit from the relationship?
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Page 14

Chapter 13: Managing Channel Policies and Legalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following specifies the site of a channel member's place of business?
A) Profit pass-over arrangement
B) Primary responsibility
C) Block exemption
D) Location clause
E) Dual distribution
Q2) The Tampa Electric Co.v.Nashville Coal Co.case established guidelines for assessing exclusive dealing policies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What marketing channel strategy was the issue in Eastman Kodak Co.v.Image Technical Service,Inc.?
A) Category management
B) Slotting allowances
C) Gray marketing
D) Price fixing
E) Tying
Q4) What are the reasons that suppliers implement customer coverage policies?
Q5) Summarize the key provisions of the Robinson-Patman Act.
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Chapter 14: Managing Channel Logistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary disadvantage of EDI systems is that they ________.
A) require extensive investment
B) demand human intervention
C) rely on XML technology
D) use a nonstandard format
E) lack data security
Q2) Describe the five key steps of reverse supply chains and any issues that are involved.
Q3) A(n)________ brand is characterized by high margins,a short life cycle,and unpredictable demand.
A) valid
B) operational
C) niche
D) functional
E) innovative
Q4) An aligned supply chain copes very well with emergencies,such as natural disasters and fires.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contrast the requirements for supplying functional goods and innovative goods.
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