Advanced Imaging Modalities Study Guide Questions - 339 Verified Questions

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Advanced Imaging Modalities

Study Guide Questions

Course Introduction

Advanced Imaging Modalities explores the principles, techniques, and clinical applications of cutting-edge imaging technologies used in medicine and research. The course covers advanced modalities such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), computed tomography (CT), positron emission tomography (PET), single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT), and emerging hybrid techniques. Students will examine the physical basis, instrumentation, contrast mechanisms, image processing, and safety considerations associated with these modalities. Emphasis is placed on how advanced imaging contributes to diagnosis, treatment planning, and research in various medical specialties, as well as on recent innovations and future directions in the field.

Recommended Textbook Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 7th Edition by Mary Sherer

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14 Chapters

339 Verified Questions

339 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Radiation Protection

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some ways of providing education for imaging department staff are:

1)providing in-service education on various radiation safety topics to accommodate individual needs of staff members.

2)handing out a facts-to-remember sheet at the end of an in-service program.

3)e-mailing the most important topics covered in a staff in-service program to imaging staff members to help reinforce and retain vital information.

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following is a method of explaining radiation to the public?

A) ALARA

B) BERT

C) ORP

D) Standardized dose reporting

Answer: B

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Radiation: Types, Sources, and Doses Received

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the two sources of ionizing radiation listed below,which source remains fairly constant from year to year?

A) Human-made

B) Natural

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following statements concerning the 1979 nuclear reactor accident at TMI-2 is not true?

A) Excess cancer deaths have been predicted to occur in the 2 million people living within 50 miles of the plant at the time of the accident.

B) Excess cancer deaths have not been predicted to occur in the 2 million people living within 50 miles of the plant at the time of the accident.

C) The equivalent dose (EqD) received by 2 million people living in the vicinity of the nuclear reactor at the time of the accident was 0.02 mSv.

D) No melt-through of the reactor vessel occurred during the accident.

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 3: Interaction of X-Radiation With Matter

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The symbol Z indicates:

A) atomic number of an atom.

B) atomic weight of an atom.

C) fluorescent yield.

D) the number of vacancies in an atomic shell.

Answer: A

Q2) During the process of coherent scattering,the incident x-ray photon interacts with:

A) a single inner shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit.

B) a single outer shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit.

C) an atom transferring its energy by causing some or all of the electrons of the atom to vibrate momentarily and radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic waves.

D) a scattered photon of lesser energy, annihilating it.

Answer: C

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5

Chapter 4: Radiation Quantities and Units

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a patient receiving x-ray therapy treatment receives a total dosage of 6000 rads,the dosage may be recorded as _____________ if the SI system is used.

A) 12,000 Gy

B) 6000 cGy

C) 600 mGy

D) 60 coulomb per kilogram

Q2) If 400 people receive an average effective dose of 0.25 Sv,what is the collective effective dose?

A) 100 person-Sieverts

B) 200 person-Sieverts

C) 800 person-Sieverts

D) 1600 person-Sieverts

Q3) One thousand five hundred rem equals _________ Sieverts.

A) 15

B) 150

C) 1500

D) 15,000

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Chapter 5: Radiation Monitoring

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following instruments generally has a check source of a weak,long-lived radioisotope located on one side of its external surface to verify its constancy daily?

A) Pocket dosimeter

B) Proportional counter

C) Geiger-Muller detector

D) Ionization chamber-type survey meter

Q2) Which component(s) of the Geiger-Muller detector alert(s) the operator to the presence of ionizing radiation?

A) The shield covering the probe's sensitivity chamber

B) An audio amplifier and speaker

C) The metal that encloses the counter's gas-filled tube

D) The meter scale

Q3) The optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter is "read out" by using:

A) a densitometer.

B) an ionization chamber.

C) a thermoluminescent analyzer.

D) laser light at selected frequencies.

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Chapter 6: Overview of Cell Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Inorganic materials are compounds that:

A) contain only very small amounts of carbon.

B) contain moderate amounts of carbon.

C) contain large amounts of carbon.

D) do not contain carbon.

Q2) Which of the following are compounds called purines?

1)Adenine and cytosine

2)Adenine and guanine

3)Adenine and thymine

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Q3) What is a highly coiled strand that is one of two duplicated portions of DNA in a replicated chromosome that appear during cell division identified as?

A) A centrosome

B) A centromere

C) A chromatid

D) A curl

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Molecular and Cellular Radiation Biology

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Sample Questions

Q1) One micron (mm) = __________.

A) 10-6 m

B) 10+6 m

C) 10-3 m

D) 10+3 m

Q2) If bone marrow cells have not been destroyed by exposure to ionizing radiation,they can:

A) become insensitive to future exposures from ionizing radiation.

B) overpopulate and become radioresistant.

C) remain in circulating blood indefinitely.

D) repopulate after a period of recovery.

Q3) The term apoptosis is synonymous with:

A) programmed cell death.

B) meiosis.

C) mitosis.

D) point mutation.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Early Deterministic Radiation Effects on Organ Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Studies of radiation therapy patients who received orthovoltage radiation therapy treatments provide:

A) no evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure.

B) minimal evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure.

C) a moderate amount of evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure.

D) significant evidence of skin damage caused by radiation exposure.

Q2) The hematopoietic form of acute radiation syndrome is also called the:

A) Auger syndrome.

B) bone marrow syndrome.

C) cerebrovascular syndrome.

D) mutational syndrome.

Q3) In 1898,after sustaining severe burns attributed to radiation exposure,this Boston dentist began investigating the hazards of radiation exposure and became the first known advocate of radiation protection:

A) Marie Curie

B) Clarence Madison Dally

C) Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen

D) William Herbert Rollins

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Chapter 9: Late Deterministic and Stochastic Radiation

Effects on Organ Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The human body can incorporate radium into bone because it is chemically similar to:

A) calcium

B) potassium

C) phosphorus

D) sodium

Q2) Uranium miners in the Colorado plateau who developed lung cancer years after exposure provide an example of which of the following?

A) Early deterministic somatic effects

B) Late stochastic effects

C) Early genetic effects

D) Late genetic effects

Q3) During the preimplantation stage of development,a radiation dose of 0.05 to 0.15 Gyt delivered to a human fertilized ovum will result in which of the following?

A) Congenital abnormalities

B) Delayed bone growth

C) Embryonic death

D) Microcephaly

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Chapter 10: Dose Limits for Exposure to Ionizing Radiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) In general,deterministic effects typically occur:

A) after all diagnostic imaging procedures.

B) only after some diagnostic imaging procedures.

C) only after routine fluoroscopic procedures.

D) only after large doses of radiation are received.

Q2) A radiation safety officer in a health care facility must have sufficient authority,organizational freedom,and management prerogative to:

1)identify radiation safety problems.

2)initiate,recommend,or provide corrective action.

3)stop unsafe operations involving by-product material.

4)verify implementation of corrective actions.

A) 1, 2, and 3 only

B) 1, 3, and 4 only

C) 2, 3, and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q3) The effective dose (EfD) limiting system supersedes:

A) all Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations.

B) all Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulations.

C) the maximum permissible dose (MPD) system.

D) the Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act of 1981.

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Chapter 11: Equipment Design for Radiation Protection

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Sample Questions

Q1) During a fluoroscopic examination,a resettable cumulative timing device times the x-ray beam-on time and sounds an audible alarm or temporarily interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for what length of time?

A) 1 minute

B) 3 minutes

C) 5 minutes

D) 10 minutes

Q2) Digital radiography images can be accessed:

A) at only one workstation at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for physicians providing patient care.

B) at no more than two workstations at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for physicians providing patient care.

C) at several workstations at the same time, making image viewing very convenient for physicians providing patient care.

D) digital images cannot be accessed at any workstations by physicians.

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13

Chapter 12: Management of Patient Radiation Dose During Diagnostic X-Ray Procedures

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40283

Sample Questions

Q1) During a radiographic examination,which of the following combinations of technical exposure factors and filtration reduce patient radiation dose?

A) Lower kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration

B) Higher kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration

C) Higher kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration

D) Lower kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration

Q2) The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow:

A) can be accurately measured by a direct method.

B) cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated.

C) is negligible for all diagnostic radiography examinations.

D) can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method.

Q3) Which of the following is frequently a problem in diagnostic pediatric radiography?

A) Lack of availability of appropriate pediatric immobilization devices

B) Lack of cooperation of parents or guardian

C) Lack of appropriate individuals to assist in holding a pediatric patient during an exposure

D) Patient motion

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Management of Imaging Personnel Radiation

Dose During Diagnostic X-Ray Procedures

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40284

Sample Questions

Q1) Diagnostic imaging personnel receive the highest occupational exposure during which of the following procedures?

1)Fluoroscopy

2)Mobile radiography

3)Special procedures

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Q2) Who should determine the exact shielding requirements for a particular imaging facility?

A) Administrator of the facility

B) Medical physicist

C) Radiologist

D) Radiographer

Q3) Which of the following is another term for use factor (U)?

A) Workload factor

B) Occupancy factor in controlled and uncontrolled areas

C) Beam direction factor

D) Protective barrier thickness consideration factor

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Chapter 14: Radioisotopes and Radiation Protection

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radioactive material that is attached to or associated with dust particles or in liquid form on various surfaces defines the term:

A) radioactive contamination.

B) radioactive dispersal device.

C) radioactive fallout.

D) radioactive syndrome.

Q2) While a patient receiving Iodine-131 (¹³¹I) therapy is hospitalized,a large,_________,rolling lead shield can be positioned between the patient and any attending personnel for protection.

A) up to 1-inch-thick

B) 2-inch-thick

C) 3-inch-thick

D) 6-inch-thick

Q3) Therapeutic radioisotopes are characterized by:

A) very short half-lives.

B) half-lives that are exactly the same.

C) relatively long half-lives.

D) half-lives that remain constant for all eternity.

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