Advanced Human Nutrition
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Advanced Human Nutrition delves into the complex biochemical, physiological, and molecular foundations of human nutrient metabolism. The course explores the digestion, absorption, transport, and function of macronutrients and micronutrients within the human body, with an emphasis on how these processes are regulated and influenced by genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors. Students will critically examine current research, dietary guidelines, and methods for assessing nutritional status, while discussing the implications of nutrition in health promotion, disease prevention, and management of chronic conditions. Laboratory and case study components may be included to enhance practical understanding and application of advanced nutritional concepts.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 13th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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Chapter 1: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Q1) Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin when it comes in contact with A)enterokinase.
B)trypsinogen.
C)hydrochloric acid.
D)peptidases.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is formed by bacterial synthesis in the colon?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin B6
D)Niacin
Answer: A
Q3) Which is the process by which minerals are absorbed when they are bound to an acid, organic acid, or amino acid?
A)Cotransportation
B)Carrier protein
C)Competitive inhibition
D)Chelation
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Energy
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Q1) Studies have shown that which factor(s) is(are) the primary determinant of an individual's resting energy expenditure (RMR)?
A)The amount of lean body mass
B)The amount of adipose tissue
C)A person's age, gender, and health status
D)The individual's body weight
Answer: A
Q2) If a patient's body temperature were 104.6°F, what would the BMR be compared with normal?
A)58% of normal
B)135% of normal
C)142% of normal
D)178% of normal
Answer: C
Q3) Which of these best describes the change in the metabolic rate during pregnancy?
A)It decreases as a result of a decrease in maternal physical activity.
B)It increases as a result of fetal growth.
C)It increases as a result of fetal growth and maternal cardiac output.
D)It decreases as a result of an increase in maternal adipose tissue.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Nutrients and Their Metabolism
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Q1) Which form of vitamin A is a structural component of the visual pigments of the rods and cells in the retina?
A)Beta carotene
B)Retinal
C)Retinoic acid
D)Retinol
Answer: B
Q2) What condition is evidenced by symptoms of mental confusion, muscular wasting, edema, and peripheral neuropathy?
A)Niacin deficiency
B)Vitamin C deficiency
C)Hypervitaminosis A
D)Thiamin deficiency
Answer: D
Q3) The absorption of ingested vitamin D occurs along with the absorption of what?
A)Protein and lactose
B)Lipids
C)Carbohydrates and niacin
D)Thiamin and glucose
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Q1) Which of the following was identified by a survey of clinical nutrition managers as being among the most common criteria used for nutrition screening?
A)History of medical diseases
B)Food allergies and intolerances
C)Skin breakdown
D)Chewing and swallowing status
Q2) In the patient's _____ history, you would you most likely find out about the patient's cultural views related to health care.
A)medical
B)social
C)medication
D)dietary
Q3) Malnutrition was uncovered as a major problem in U.S.hospitals in the 1970s, but this is no longer a problem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Assessment: Nutritional Genomics
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Q1) What is the effect of a silent mutation on DNA?
A)It is harmful to the host.
B)It accumulates additional mutations more quickly than unaffected DNA.
C)It improves certain functions of the DNA.
D)It has no effect on the DNA.
Q2) Phenylketonuria is what type of genetic disorder?
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q3) Which of the following is the area of DNA where binding of regulatory proteins signals the start of transcription?
A)Promoter
B)Intervening sequence
C)Response element
D)Transcription factor
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Inflammation, Physical and Functional Assessment
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Q1) It can be argued that a functional nutrition assessment will better identify why a patient is losing weight because:
A)it uses more advanced body composition techniques.
B)it includes assessment of gastrointestinal function.
C)tumor necrosis factor is used as a marker of weight loss.
D)it uses prealbumin rather than albumin for analysis.
Q2) Measurement of waist:hip ratio
A)has been implicated in the risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
B)is particularly useful in a hospital setting.
C)can be directly correlated with serum albumin.
D)has been implicated in the risk of developing Crohn's disease.
Q3) A general estimate of desirable body weight for a woman who is 5'5" tall is.
A)140 pounds
B)125 pounds
C)110 pounds
D)115 pounds
Q4) The Functional Nutritional Assessment includes assessment of tissue reserves of key nutrients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) How does body water, as a percentage of body weight, change based on stage of the life cycle and lifestyle?
A)Decreases significantly with age and is higher in athletes than non-athletes
B)Decreases significantly with age and is lower in athletes than non-athletes
C)Increases significantly with age and is higher in athletes than non-athletes
D)Increases significantly with age and is lower in athletes than non-athletes
Q2) How does dehydration affect the specific gravity of urine?
A)Specific gravity of urine increases above normal.
B)Specific gravity of urine does not change during dehydration.
C)Specific gravity of urine decreases below normal.
D)Specific gravity of urine undergoes a threefold increase.
Q3) For the average woman, _____ mL/day would meet fluid needs.
A)1500
B)1700
C)2700
D)3500
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Biochemical Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is a measure of iron storage?
A)TIBC
B)Serum ferritin
C)Transferrin
D)Hemoglobin
Q2) Which of the following would be included in a complete blood count?
A)Total cholesterol
B)Mean cell volume
C)Glucose
D)Albumin
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a static assay?
A)Serum hematocrit
B)Serum ferritin
C)Serum zinc
D)Zinc protoporphyrin:heme ratio
Q4) Apolipoprotein B (apoB) is contained in
A)LDL cholesterol
B)HDL cholesterol
C)VLDL cholesterol
D)Triglycerides
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Chapter 9: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Q1) Hypertensive patients who are taking loop diuretics for reduction of blood pressure may experience hypokalemia.Which other electrolyte does NOT need to be monitored for a potential secondary nutrient deficiency?
A)Magnesium
B)Sodium
C)Phosphorus
D)Calcium
Q2) Which term is used to describe the movement of a drug through the body by absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
A)Pharmacodynamics
B)Pharmacogenomics
C)Pharmacokinetics
D)Polypharmacy
Q3) Patients receiving the antibiotic tetracycline should be taught to avoid taking it with what?
A)Fruit juices
B)Meat
C)Milk
D)Sucrose-containing desserts
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Chapter 10: Behavioral-Environmental: The Individual in the Community
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Q1) Which of the following techniques will help prevent the spread of avian influenza (bird flu)?
A)Wash fresh poultry with cold, running water before cooking.
B)Use gloves whenever handling poultry.
C)Cook poultry to an internal temperature of 155°F.
D)Cook poultry to an internal temperature of 165°F.
Q2) Which of the following is the focus of the traditional public health approach to health care?
A)Primary prevention
B)Secondary prevention
C)Tertiary prevention
D)Patient care
Q3) Although responsibility for public health is shared across different levels of government, which responsibility is usually handled by the local health agency?
A)Providing funding to support the capacity to carry out public health functions
B)Ensuring that effective service delivery systems are in place
C)Supporting the development and dissemination of public health knowledge
D)Assessing the capacity to perform essential public health functions
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Chapter 11: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Q1) Utilization management is
A)a system to protect personal health information.
B)a system of cost efficiency.
C)a critical pathway.
D)a medical staffing system.
Q2) A newly admitted patient is observed to have poorly fitting dental plates.Which type of diet would be most appropriate for this patient?
A)General or regular house diet
B)Liquid diet
C)Consistency-modified diet
D)Diet increased in energy value
Q3) Which of the following identifies a patient's health care preferences in regard to end-of-life issues?
A)Discharge planning
B)Disease management
C)Case management
D)Advanced directives
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Chapter 12: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Planning the Diet With Cultural Competency
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the Daily Reference Intake (DRI)?
A)Adequate Intake (AI)
B)Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
C)Healthy Eating Index (HEI)
D)Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Q2) Serving size on nutrition labels is determined by
A)the government, which sets individual standards.
B)the manufacturer of the product.
C)the types of stores that sell the product.
D)the package size of the product
Q3) A food constituent that is not defined as a nutrient but has a biologic effect that may influence health is a
A)sustainable food.
B)organic food.
C)cariogenic food.
D)functional food.
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Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Bioactive
Substances and Integrative Care
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Q1) According to the FDA, which of the following descriptions applies to a dietary supplement?
A)Ingested to affect structure or function of the body
B)Consumed for its taste, aroma, or nutritive value
C)Used to diagnose, cure, mitigate, treat, or prevent disease
D)Applied to body for cleansing, beautifying, or altering appearance
Q2) Which of the following trends regarding use of dietary supplements is TRUE?
A)Supplements are used more frequently by younger as opposed to older adults.
B)Supplements are used more frequently by minorities than whites.
C)Supplements are used more frequently by people who read food labels.
D)Supplements are used more frequently by people with BMIs above 25 kg/m2.
Q3) Which of the following botanicals does NOT increase the risk of prolonged bleeding time if it is not discontinued before a patient undergoes surgery?
A)Echinacea
B)Garlic
C)Ginkgo biloba
D)Fish oil
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Chapter 14: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
Methods
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Q1) The functions of the _____ system are better maintained with enteral feedings than with parenteral feedings.
A)Cardiovascular
B)Renal
C)Gastrointestinal
D)Pulmonary
Q2) The osmolarity of a 1-L bottle of 5% dextrose solution is _____ mOsm/L.
A)50
B)500
C)200
D)250
Q3) In general, a patient's parenteral feeding can be discontinued when enteral nutrition meets _____ of the patient's need.
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)100%
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Chapter 15: Interventions: Education and Counseling for Behavior Change
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Q1) Traditional nutritional counseling focuses on change matched to A)action and relapse.
B)empathy.
C)precontemplation and preparation.
D)action and maintenance.
Q2) Which technique is NOT useful in working with clients during a not-ready-to-change counseling session?
A)Asking open-ended questions
B)Affirming
C)Agreeing with a twist
D)Summarizing
Q3) The most important thing to establish in the first counseling session is A)the counseling relationship.
B)likes and dislikes in the counseling environment.
C)fees for service.
D)reimbursement potential by insurance providers.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) According to the National Academy of Sciences, women with normal preconception weight should gain how much during pregnancy?
A)10 to 15 pounds
B)20 to 25 pounds
C)25 to 35 pounds
D)35 to 45 pounds
Q2) Which of the following will result from the normal physiologic adaptation during pregnancy?
A)Decreased serum hemoglobin
B)Proteinuria
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Constipation
Q3) What should a pregnant woman do to relieve nausea and vomiting during the early months of her pregnancy?
A)Drink liquids with meals and have small, frequent feedings.
B)Eat high-fat foods and include liquids with meals.
C)Eat small, frequent meals low in fat.
D)Eat three regular meals per day.
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Chapter 17: Nutrition During Infancy
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Q1) Why are infants particularly susceptible to developing dehydration?
A)Their mass-to-surface ratio is low.
B)Their insulation is poor, resulting in increased water loss.
C)Their renal concentrating ability is less than that of older children.
D)The increased liquidity of their stools results in greater fluid loss.
Q2) When should the introduction of semisolid and strained foods to the infant's diet begin?
A)6 to 8 weeks
B)2 to 4 months
C)4 to 6 months
D)6 to 8 months
Q3) Compared with formula-fed infants, why do breastfed infants experience a reduced incidence of infections?
A)Human milk is higher in fat.
B)Human milk has anti-infective factors.
C)Commercial infant formula is higher in iron.
D)Commercial infant formula is higher in fat.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition in Childhood
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Q1) What does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend in regard to calories from fat in the diet of a young child?
A)Limit fat calories to 30% of total caloric intake.
B)Limit fat calories to 20% of total caloric intake.
C)Fat calories should only be limited in extreme circumstances.
D)Fat calories should be limited for every child older than 1 year of age.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT associated with impaired academic performance in children?
A)Iron deficiency
B)Food insecurity
C)Skipping breakfast
D)Bringing lunch from home
Q3) During which stage of cognitive development can children identify foods that are "good for you" but probably could not give a reason?
A)Sensorimotor stage
B)Preoperational stage
C)Concrete operations stage
D)Formal operations stage
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Chapter 19: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Q1) What would be the correct interpretation of an adolescent who has a BMI above the 85th percentile?
A)The adolescent is overweight.
B)The adolescent is obese.
C)The adolescent is at risk for becoming overweight.
D)The adolescent is overfat.
Q2) How does the pubertal growth spurt in girls compare with that in boys?
A)It begins sooner.
B)It begins later.
C)It lasts longer.
D)It is not different.
Q3) Adequate intake of which nutrient is of greatest concern when working with adolescent athletes?
A)Carbohydrate
B)Protein
C)Water
D)Iron
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Chapter 20: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the defining characteristics of metabolic syndrome?
A)Abdominal obesity
B)Hypertension
C)Elevated blood lipids
D)Physical inactivity
Q2) The leading cause of death and debilitation among adults in the United States is
A)accidents
B)cancer
C)diabetes
D)Heart disease
Q3) A trend in adults is the United States is that they
A)are spending more money on food away from home.
B)are eating more family meals at home.
C)generally meet the dietary recommendations for promoting health
D)use the MyPyramid tool to plan their diets
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Chapter 21: Nutrition in Aging
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Q1) A supercentenarian is
A)a woman who is currently 65 years of age who is expected to live to be 100 years old.
B)someone born today who can expect to live to be 100 years old or older.
C)someone who is 100 years old or older with no disease.
D)someone older than 110 years.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four syndromes known to be predictive of adverse outcomes in older adults?
A)Depression
B)Diabetes
C)Cognitive impairment
D)Malnutrition
Q3) A 70-kg man with a stage IV pressure ulcer needs ___________g/day of protein and __________kcal/day.
A)84, 2100
B)70, 2800
C)105, 2450
D)140, 2100
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Weight Management
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Q1) The rate of weight loss for men on energy-deficient diets is more rapid than for women because men
A)generally have less fat to lose.
B)are more successful at weight reduction programs.
C)have higher RMR and LBM than women.
D)are more likely to exercise while trying to lose weight.
Q2) Gout may develop during fasting or after very-low-calorie diets.This occurs because elevated ketones are impeding the elimination of A)uric acid.
B)creatinine.
C)sodium.
D)potassium.
Q3) The metabolic syndrome is associated with which of the following groups of disorders?
A)Glucose intolerance, gout, and hypertension
B)Gout, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia
C)Glucose intolerance, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension
D)Hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and hypertension
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Q1) During the acute stage of anorexia nervosa, what is the focus of psychological management in treatment?
A)Understanding and changing dysfunctional attitudes related to eating
B)Addressing psychopathology that reinforces eating-disordered behaviors
C)Improving interpersonal and social functioning
D)Positive behavioral reinforcement of weight gain
Q2) During the treatment of patients with eating disorders, which of the following is an additional feature that should be monitored in the food records of patients with bulimia nervosa as opposed to anorexia nervosa?
A)Eating behaviors
B)Exercise
C)Emotions and feelings when eating
D)Use of alternative sweeteners
Q3) Lanugo is soft, downy hair growth associated with A)anorexia nervosa.
B)binge-eating disorder.
C)bulimia nervosa.
D)eating disorder not otherwise specified.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Q1) Athletes need to increase their water intake to
A)enhance renal excretion of waste products from muscle activity.
B)improve intestinal absorption of nutrients after digestion.
C)maintain water balance in the body as a whole and within cells.
D)increase skin evaporation of water as a cooling mechanism.
Q2) Which of the following activities relies heavily on the anaerobic pathway in muscle cells?
A)Jogging
B)Sprinting
C)Hiking
D)Dancing
Q3) A daily intake of less than one-third of the RDA for thiamin, riboflavin, B6, and vitamin C can lead to a significant decrease in:
A)muscle tone.
B)glutathione peroxidase.
C)antioxidant levels.
D)VO2 max.
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Chapter 25: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Q1) Which of the following drug treatments has NOT been proven effective in preventing excessive bone loss?
A)Alendronate
B)Calcitonin
C)Fluoride
D)Bisphosphonate
Q2) Which of the following female patients is at risk for osteoporosis?
A)An African American woman who was normal age at menopause and has a large frame and poor intake of calcium
B)A white woman who is overweight, had multiple pregnancies and late menopause, and consumes alcohol
C)A white woman who is underweight, had premature menopause, does not exercise, and smokes cigarettes
D)An Asian woman who is premenopausal and has a large frame, a high calcium intake, and a sedentary lifestyle
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Chapter 26: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Q1) What role do nuts play in regard to the development of dental caries?
A)They are cariogenic.
B)They are cariostatic.
C)They are anticariogenic.
D)They are cariogenic when eaten with fruit.
Q2) The caries process begins when the pH drops below what level?
A)7
B)6.5
C)5.5
D)5
Q3) What is the appropriate dietary management for a patient with Sjögren's syndrome?
A)Provide foods that are pureed in form.
B)Provide oral liquid supplements.
C)Provide moist, soft, nonspicy food.
D)Begin fluid restriction.
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28
Chapter 27: Mnt for Food Allergy and Food Intolerance
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Q1) _________ are antigenic determinants on the surface of food proteins that are recognized by the immune system.
A)Cytokines
B)Conformational epitope
C)Mast cells
D)Haptens
Q2) In what types of foods are the most common food allergens found?
A)High-simple-carbohydrate foods
B)High-protein animal foods
C)High-protein plant or marine foods
D)High-saturated fat foods
Q3) In people who develop food allergies after 2 years of age, what is the most common means of initial food allergen exposure?
A)Maternal consumption during fetal development
B)Antigen exposure in breast milk
C)Inhalant exposure to antigen
D)Ingestion of food antigen
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Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) What causes the hypoglycemia that occurs after meals in patients who have had a gastrectomy?
A)Poor dietary intake
B)Rapid digestion and absorption of sugars and elevation of insulin levels
C)Pancreatic insufficiency
D)Elevated levels of secretin and pancreozymin
Q2) A recommendation to a patient with gastroparesis who needs to gain weight would be:
A)increase the amount of dietary fiber.
B)ingest liquids or pureed foods.
C)eat more high fat foods.
D)eat meals and avoid snacks.
Q3) What types of foods should be avoided in a patient with GERD because they decrease LES pressure?
A)High-acid foods
B)Low-fat milk and yogurt
C)High-protein foods
D)Peppermint
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Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) What type of diarrhea may be experienced by a patient with lactase deficiency?
A)Exudative diarrhea
B)Malabsorptive diarrhea
C)Osmotic diarrhea
D)Secretory diarrhea
Q2) Which of the following should be included in the advice given to a patient regarding eating a high-fiber diet?
A)Increase polyunsaturated fat intake.
B)Make sure to get more vitamin C.
C)Drink at least 2 L of water each day.
D)Make sure to get more iron.
Q3) How much lactose can most lactase-deficient people consume without major symptoms?
A)The equivalent to 1/2 cup of milk
B)The equivalent to 1 cup of milk
C)12 to 15 g of lactose
D)Lactase-deficient people cannot consume any lactose without experiencing symptoms.
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Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Liver, Biliary
System, and Exocrine Pancreas
Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following, when eaten by a patient with cholecystitis, may cause pain?
A)High-protein foods
B)High-fat foods
C)Complex carbohydrates
D)Simple carbohydrates
Q2) Which of the following is a common sign of portal hypertension secondary to cirrhosis?
A)Ascites
B)Cardiac arrhythmias
C)Increased gastrointestinal motility and peristalsis
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
Q3) Which of the following foods would be recommended to be avoided by a patient with Wilson's disease, in which excretion of copper from the body becomes impaired?
A)Dried beans, dried fruits, and shellfish
B)Eggs, milk, and cheese
C)Sweet potato, rice, and oatmeal
D)Butter, cream, oil, and salad dressing
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Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Q1) __________ is NOT a symptom of type 1 DM.
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Loss of thirst sensation
C)Weight loss
D)Polydipsia
Q2) Screening for gestational diabetes should occur
A)when assessment of pregnancy is first established.
B)at 24 to 28 weeks' gestation.
C)38 to 40 weeks after conception.
D)by the end of the first trimester.
Q3) Which of the following contributes to the development of type 1 DM?
A)Autoantibodies that contribute to the destruction of beta cells
B)Insulin resistance and beta cell failure
C)Increase in insulin-antagonist hormone levels
D)Diet and sedentary lifestyle
Q4) HbA c represents the
A)glycosylation or glycation of serum proteins.
B)glycosylation or glycation of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
C)glycosylation or glycation of serum-free hemoglobin.
D)formation of hemoglobin-cholesterol linkage in blood.
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid and Related Disorders
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Q1) Cushing's syndrome is characterized by weight gain, easy bruising, depression, muscle loss, and weakness.It is caused by:
A)an increased concentration of endocrine autoantibodies.
B)thiocyanate ions, which can compete with iodine for uptake by the thyroid gland.
C)too much cortisol remaining in the bloodstream over a long period.
D)thyroid hormone deficiency during pregnancy.
Q2) Before 1960, reports surfaced that soy formula-fed infants were developing hypothyroidism.The addition of what supplement to these formulas ameliorated this problem?
A)Iodine
B)Selenium
C)Iron
D)Tyrosine
Q3) Which of these is NOT a product of the thyroid?
A)Thyroxine (T4)
B)Calcitonin
C)Reverse T3 (rT3)
D)Triiodothyronine (T3)
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) Which form of folate is the one that becomes "trapped" when vitamin B deficiency occurs?
A)Folate
B)THFA
C)5-Methyl THFA
D)5,10-Methyl THFA
Q2) The Shilling test is useful in diagnosing which type of anemia?
A)Pernicious
B)Iron deficiency
C)Hemolytic
D)Medication induced
Q3) Although severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia is present, which of the following is also a characteristic of sideroblastic anemia?
A)Iron overload
B)Low serum iron levels
C)High serum iron and low tissue iron levels
D)Low tissue iron levels
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35
Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following lipoproteins is primary cholesterol carrier in blood?
A)Chylomicrons
B)VLDL
C)LDL
D)HDL
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the factors used in the Framingham Point Scores for determining 10-year CHD risk?
A)Age
B)HDL
C)LDL
D)Smoking
Q3) Which of the following causes blood pressure to increase?
A)Vasodilation
B)Decreased cardiac output
C)Decreased vascular resistance
D)Increased peripheral resistance
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Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) What term refers to rapid breathing?
A)Dyspnea
B)Hemoptysis
C)Tachypnea
D)Aspiration
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A)COPD is rarely caused by chronic bronchitis.
B)COPD can progress to cor pulmonale.
C)COPD leads to emphysema.
D)COPD is not seen in obese patients.
Q3) Which of the following recommendations should be made to the parents of an infant who has both BPD and esophageal reflux?
A)Thicken formula with baby cereal.
B)Thin formula with a glucose solution.
C)Feed the infant positioned in the supine position.
D)Delay introduction of baby food until 9 months of age.
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Chapter 36: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) At least how much protein should be provided by the diet of a patient who receives hemodialysis three times per week?
A)0.6 g/kg of body weight
B)1 g/kg of body weight
C)1.2 g/kg of body weight
D)1.5 g/kg of body weight
Q2) Which of the following foods does NOT potentially increase the acidity of urine?
A)Lemons
B)Cranberries
C)Chicken
D)Spaghetti noodles
Q3) Which type of dialysis treatment is usually done at night?
A)Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
B)Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis
C)Hemodialysis
D)Intermittent dialysis
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Chapter 37: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following may be avoided after cancer therapy as the result of alteration in taste sensation?
A)Sweets
B)Salty foods
C)Meats
D)Dairy products
Q2) For which of the following problems associated with cancer treatment should a high-calorie diet supplemented with calorically dense foods be provided?
A)Constipation
B)Xerostomia
C)Anorexia
D)Neutropenia
Q3) Which of the following presents with the symptoms of progressive weight loss, anorexia, wasting, and immunosuppression?
A)Radiation-induced enteritis
B)Xerostomia
C)Veno-occlusive disease
D)Cancer cachexia
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Chapter 38: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for HIV and AIDS
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Q1) For HIV-infected individuals with high triclyceride levels, what kind of supplementation might be helpful?
A)Vitamin A
B)Fish oil
C)Magnesium
D)Garlic
Q2) Obesity in people with HIV should be treated with:
A)altered antiviral medications.
B)decreased protein intake.
C)supplementation and complementary medicine.
D)physical activity, aerobic exercise, and regular medical nutrition therapy.
Q3) Individuals are more susceptible to developing signs and symptoms of HIV infection when the CD4+ cell count falls below
A)200 cells/mm3.
B)500 cells/mm3.
C)1000 cells/mm3.
D)CD4+ cell concentrations to not relate to signs and symptoms of HIV.
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Chapter 39: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Metabolic
Stress: Sepsis, Trauma, Burns, and Surgery
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Q1) Which mineral may be lost and need replacement in burn patients being treated with silver nitrate soaks?
A)Calcium
B)Phosphorus
C)Magnesium
D)Zinc
Q2) In what type of patient should immune modulating formulas be avoided?
A)Patients undergoing GI surgery
B)Patients with sepsis
C)Patients with diarrhea
D)Burn patients
Q3) Low albumin in a critically ill patient is caused by
A)inadequate protein intake.
B)illness, injury, and inflammation.
C)inadequate calorie intake.
D)inadequate fluid intake.
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Chapter 40: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) What drugs are the first line of therapy for controlling the inflammatory process seen in arthritis?
A)Corticosteroids
B)Salicylates
C)Gold salts
D)Methotrexate
Q2) Current research suggests that which of the following play a role in the inflammatory process?
A)Polyunsaturated fatty acids
B)Monounsaturated fatty acids
C)Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids
D)Medium-chain triglycerides
Q3) What is the role of prostacyclin or PGI ?
A)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE1
B)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE2
C)Promotes platelet aggregation
D)Inhibits platelet aggregation
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is the inability to perform purposeful, complex movements, although no sensory or motor impairment is evident?
A)Apraxia
B)Aphasia
C)Anosmia
D)Agnosia
Q2) Which of the following can occur with impaired swallowing?
A)Aspiration pneumonia
B)Hemiparesis
C)Dysgeusia
D)Comminution
Q3) Which of the following neurologic conditions is associated with over- or excessive nutritional intake?
A)Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
B)Stroke
C)Multiple sclerosis
D)Alzheimer's disease
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Psychiatric Conditions
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Q1) Flavonoid-rich foods include
A)peaches, apricots, and sweet potatoes.
B)fish and seafood.
C)kale, broccoli, and spinach.
D)apples, oranges, berries, and chocolate.
Q2) What is the most efficient way to improve the omega-6:omega-3 ratio in the diet?
A)Supplement the diet with fish oil supplements.
B)Decrease the intake of meat and poultry.
C)Increase the intake of fish and seafood.
D)Increase the intake of vegetables.
Q3) What mental health disorder is characterized by the development of anxiety or dissociation within 1 month after a traumatic event?
A)Acute stress disorder
B)Adjustment disorder
C)Anxiety disorder
D)Dissociative disorder
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Chapter 43: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for
Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) An infant born at 32 weeks' gestation is now 6 months old.Her adjusted age is _____ months.
A)6
B)4
C)3
D)2
Q2) Which of the following may contribute to dehydration in a premature infant?
A)Hypoglycemia
B)Hypercholesterolemia
C)Hyperglycemia
D)Hypovolemia
Q3) It is appropriate to use caloric supplements such as glucose polymers or MCT for A)all infants requiring catch-up growth.
B)infants whose nutrient needs are being met with the exception of energy.
C)small-for-gestational-age infants until they has reached acceptable weight for age.
D)infants receiving inadequate protein.
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Chapter 44: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following conversions is defective in galactosemia?
A)Glucose to galactose
B)Galactose to glucose
C)Lactose to galactose
D)Galactose to lactose
Q2) The metabolic result that occurs in all of the urea cycle disorders is an accumulation of _____ in the blood.
A)ammonia
B)purines
C)ketones
D)ketoacid
Q3) The desirable range for blood phenylalanine in a child with PKU is _____ mg/dL.
A)2 to 6
B)6 to 10
C)8 to 12
D)10 to 20
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Chapter 45: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) Children with which developmental disorder are most likely to experience oral motor problems?
A)Prader-Willi syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Autism
D)Cerebral palsy
Q2) Which class of feeding problems is associated with head control and trunk stability?
A)Behavioral feeding problems
B)Oral motor feeding problems
C)Positioning feeding problems
D)Self-feeding problems
Q3) Which of the following is NOT required for a child with a disability to receive a modified or special diet at school?
A)Payment of additional cost for the special diet
B)Identification of the medical condition requiring modification of diet
C)List of foods to be omitted from the child's diet
D)List of food substitutions to use in the child's diet
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Page 47