Advanced Hematology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Advanced Hematology delves into the complex mechanisms of blood cell formation, function, and pathology, focusing on both benign and malignant hematologic disorders. The course explores in detail the molecular and cellular processes underlying conditions such as anemia, leukemias, lymphomas, and coagulation disorders, as well as the principles of laboratory diagnostics and advanced therapeutic approaches, including transfusion medicine, stem cell transplantation, and novel targeted therapies. Students will analyze current research, interpret laboratory data, and apply critical thinking to case studies, preparing them for advanced clinical practice or research in hematology.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Hematology and Fundamentals of Hemostasis 5th Edition by Denise M. Harmening
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36 Chapters
1596 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Morphology of Human Blood and Marrow Cells:
Hematopoiesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maturation of the granulocytic series is characterized by:
A) Decrease in nuclear volume
B) Appearance and disappearance of primary granules
C) Nuclear chromatin clumping
D) Cytoplasmic color change from blue to pink appearance of secondary granules
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Evaluate the clinical use of interleukins:
A) Wound healing
B) Activating lymphocytes
C) Assisting in growth of bone marrow
D) B and C
E) All are correct
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Bone Marrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematogones are thought to be committed progenitor cells of what lineage?
A) Granulocytic
B) Platelets
C) Erythrocytic
D) Monocytic
E) Lymphoid
Answer: E
Q2) At what age do fat cells begin to increase in the bone marrow?
A) 10 years
B) 6 months
C) 4 years
D) 2 years
E) None of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Red Blood Cell: Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RBCs generate their energy (ATP) almost exclusively through which metabolic pathway?
A) Krebs cycle
B) Glycolytic pathway
C) Phosphogluconate pathway
D) Luebering-Rapaport pathway
E) None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following are abnormal hemoglobins that cannot transport or deliver oxygen?
A) Carboxyhemoglobin
B) Methemoglobin
C) Sulfhemoglobin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Anemia: Diagnosis and Clinical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate the MCH based on the following parameters: hemoglobin = 12 g/dL, RBC count = 4.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>12</sup>/ L:
A) 30 pg
B) 24 pg
C) 27 pg
D) 32 pg
E) None of the above
Q2) A person living in a high-altitude environment reaching elevations as high as 10,000 feet will have a hemoglobin value that is:
A) Decreased
B) Increased
C) Within normal limits
D) Fluctuates randomly
E) None of the above
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6
Chapter 5: Evaluation of Red Blood Cell Morphology and
Introduction to Platelet and White Blood Cell Morphology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tear-drop cell is formed as a result of:
A) Red cell fragmentation
B) Pinching off a red cell inclusion
C) Increased lipids in red cell membrane
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) A normal size red cell with a slit-like area of central pallor is called a:
A) Drepanocyte
B) Ovalocyte
C) Sickle cell
D) Stomatocyte
E) Target cell
Q3) A 4+ grading for anisocytosis would indicate what percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) would differ from the normal red cells?
A) 5-10%
B) 25-50%
C) 50-75%
D) >75%
E) 10-25%
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Chapter 6: Iron Metabolism and Hypochromic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the minimal daily requirements for iron and the corresponding iron content of food required for men and nonmenstruating females?
A) 1.0 mg/10 mg
B) 2.0 mg/20 mg
C) 3.0 mg/30 mg
D) 0.5 mg/5 mg
Q2) Which of the following are common causes of iron deficiency anemia worldwide?
A) Chronic blood loss
B) Inadequate diet and malabsorption
C) Pregnancy
D) Excessive menstrual blood loss (premenopausal women)
E) All of the above
Q3) Approximately what percent of ingested iron is absorbed?
A) 1%
B) 5-10%
C) 25-50%
D) 90%
E) None of the above
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8
Chapter 7: Megaloblastic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) What protein is responsible for vitamin B<sub>12</sub> absorption?
A) Transcobalamin
B) Interleukin-3
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Erythropoietin
E) None of the above
Q2) All of the following are initial diagnostic tests performed simultaneously in determining the cause of macrocytosis except:
A) Reticulocyte count
B) Serum and red cell folate
C) Schilling test
D) Serum vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
E) None of the above
Q3) What is the leading cause of anemia in an alcoholic?
A) Vitamin B<sub>12 </sub>deficiency
B) Iron deficiency
C) Folate deficiency
D) Uridine triphosphate deficiency
E) None of the above
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Chapter 8: Aplastic Anemia Including Pure Red Cell Aplasia and
Congenital Dyserythropoietic Anemia and Paroxysmal
Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Slight macrocytosis or polychromasia may be seen in the peripheral blood of a PNH patient due to increased __________.
A) Leukocytes
B) Reticulocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) NRBCs
E) Platelets
Q2) The bone marrow in a PNH patient reveals:
A) Erythroid hyperplasia
B) Myeloid hyperplasia
C) Erythroid hypoplasia
D) Myeloid hypoplasia
E) None of the above
Q3) Which test is used to confirm the diagnosis of PNH?
A) Autohemolysis test
B) Sugar water test
C) Ham's test
D) Coombs' test
E) None of the above
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Chapter 9: Introduction to Hemolytic Anemias:
Intracorpuscular Defects: I Hereditary Defects of the Red
Cell Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests reflect an increase in red cell destruction?
A) Bilirubinemia
B) Hemoglobinemia
C) Hemoglobinuria
D) Hemosiderinuria
E) All of the above
Q2) The majority of hereditary RBC membrane defects are inherited by what pattern?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Sex-linked
D) Codominant
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not characteristic of hereditary xerocytosis?
A) Presence of red cells with hemoglobin concentration in one part of the cell
B) Increase in MCV and increase in MCHC
C) Decrease in osmotic fragility test
D) Altered permeability of RBC membrane showing increased influx of potassium
E) Decreased MCV and decreased MCHC
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Chapter 10: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: II
Hereditary Enzyme Deficiencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which variant of the G6PD enzyme is commonly found in the Chinese and in people of Southeast Asia?
A) Gd A+
B) Gd A-
C) Gd Med
D) Gd B
E) Gd Canton
Q2) Which red cell inclusion is characteristic of G6PD deficiency?
A) Cabot ring
B) Howell-Jolly body
C) Heinz body
D) Pappenheimer bodies
E) Siderotic granule
Q3) What is the major clinical feature of a patient with methemoglobinemia?
A) Reticulocytosis
B) Cyanosis
C) Splenomegaly
D) Pallor
E) Favism
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Chapter 11: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects: III
the Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents causes of methemoglobinemia?
A) Hemoglobin M variants
B) NADH-diaphorase deficiency
C) Toxic substance
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of hemoglobin E disease?
A) Red cell indices indicate a microcytic hypochromic anemia.
B) Target cells are found on the peripheral smear.
C) 95-97% HbE on the alkaline hemoglobin electrophoresis
D) No HbA
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following may be found on the hemoglobin electrophoretic pattern for sickle cell anemia?
A) No HbA (0%)
B) 80-100% HbS
C) 1-20% HbF
D) 2-4% HbA<sub>2</sub>
E) All of the above
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Hemolytic Anemias: Intracorpuscular Defects:
Thalassemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hemoglobin consists of four gamma chains?
A) Hemoglobin H
B) Hemoglobin Bart's
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin A<sub>2</sub>
E) None of the above
Q2) The anemia of thalassemia is morphologically characterized as __________ anemia.
A) Macrocytic/hyperchromic
B) Microcytic/hypochromic
C) Normocytic/normochromic
D) Microcytic/normochromic
E) None of the above
Q3) Therapy for thalassemia major patients may include:
A) High blood transfusion program
B) Splenectomy
C) Bone marrow transplant
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Anemias: Extracorpuscular Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antibodies do not cause a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Anti-E
B) Anti-K
C) Anti-e
D) Anti-C
E) Anti-M
Q2) To illustrate the presence of a malarial parasite in a blood smear, which stain is suggested?
A) Methylene blue
B) Giemsa
C) Prussian blue
D) Eosin
E) Crystal violet
Q3) Laboratory features that suggest paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria include:
A) Polychromasia
B) Poikilocytosis
C) Hemoglobinuria is present
D) Nucleated red blood cells
E) All of the above
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Chapter 14: Hypoproliferative Anemia: Anemia Associated With Systemic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the anemia of inflammation it is suggested that one of the reasons for a decreased transferrin saturation may be:
A) Inadequate diet
B) Iron is blocked in the fixed macrophages in the bone marrow
C) Accumulation of porphyrin precursors in the liver
D) Dietary iron is not adsorbed from GI tract
E) Transferrin deficiency
Q2) A Delta check of hemoglobin values for a patient helps with:
A) Anemia of infancy
B) Anemia of endocrine disorders
C) Anemia due to improperly collected laboratory samples
D) Anemia due to liver disease/alcoholism
Q3) The presence of __________ on a peripheral blood smear often indicates marrow infiltration by a tumor.
A) Leukoerythroblastosis and sickle cells
B) Leukoerythroblastosis and teardrop red blood cells (RBCs)
C) Leukoerythroblastosis and target cells
D) Leukopenia and teardrop red blood cells (RBCs)
E) Leukopenia and target cells
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cell Biology, Disorders of Neutrophils, Infectious
Mononucleosis, and Reactive Lymphocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following morphologies differentiates reactive lymphocyte from monocytes?
A) Pale blue-gray cytoplasm
B) Even staining quality
C) Increased patchy basophilic cytoplasm
D) Cytoplasmic vacuolation
E) None of the above
Q2) __________, seen in association with mucopolysaccharidosis, has characteristic dark staining and coarse cytoplasmic granules in the cytoplasm of neutrophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes.
A) Alder-Reilly anomaly
B) May-Hegglin anomaly
C) Chédiak-Higashi disease
D) Pelger-Huët anomaly
E) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following features are seen in reactive lymphocytes?
A) Low N:C ratio
B) Blue cytoplasm
C) Indented cytoplasmic borders
D) All of the above
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Introduction to Leukemia and the Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FAB classification system separates acute lymphoblastic leukemia into __________ morphologic groups.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) None of the above
Q2) A positive nonspecific esterase stain indicates __________ differentiation.
A) Megakaryocytoid
B) Monocytic
C) Lymphoid
D) Plasmacytoid
E) Erythrocytic
Q3) The most common structural chromosomal abnormalities in acute leukemia are __________.
A) Duplications
B) Inversions
C) Translocations
D) Deletions
E) None of the above
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Chapter 17: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders I: Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
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Q1) Philadelphia chromosome is present in __________ percent of patients with typical leukemia cells.
A) 90-95%
B) 40-50%
C) 40-60%
D) 30-40%
E) 65-75%
Q2) Which cell types contain the Ph chromosome in patients with CML?
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Erythrocyte
D) Platelet
E) All of the above
Q3) The prominent laboratory feature representative of CML is:
A) Leukocytosis with left shift
B) Leukocytosis with megaloblastic anemia
C) Leukopenia with lymphocytosis
D) Leukopenia with reticulocytosis
E) None of the above
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Chapter
18: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders Ii: Polycythemia Vera, Essential Thrombocythemia, and
Idiopathic Myelofibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common physical findings in polycythemia vera include:
A) Facial plethora
B) Pruritus
C) Cerebral circulating disturbances
D) Thrombotic episodes
E) All of the above
Q2) Anemia in CIMF is a collective result of:
A) Bone marrow failure
B) Ineffective erythropoiesis
C) Dyserythropoiesis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The Polycythemia Vera Study Group's (PVSG) updated criteria for the platelet count for diagnosis of essential thrombocythemia (ET) is which of the following?
A) >400,000/µL
B) >700,000/µL
C) >100,000/µL
D) >600,000/µL
E) >500,000/µL
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Chapter 19: Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most promising course of therapy for MDS is __________.
A) Bone marrow transplant
B) Androgens
C) Blood transfusion
D) Myelostimulants
E) None of the above
Q2) The fundamental characteristic of MDS is:
A) Peripheral blood cytopenia and bone marrow hypocellularity
B) Peripheral blood cytopenia and bone marrow hypercellularity
C) Peripheral blood cytosis and bone marrow hypocellularity
D) Peripheral blood cytosis and bone marrow hypercellularity
E) None of the above
Q3) The most common and consistent nonrandom chromosomal aberration in the MDS, refractory anemia is deletion of the long arm of __________.
A) Chromosome 16
B) Chromosome 5
C) Chromosome 6
D) Chromosome 9
E) None of the above
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia and Related
Lymphoproliferative
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia in CLL is characterized by the following:
A) A positive direct Coombs' test
B) An increased indirect serum bilirubin
C) Reticulocytosis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) The final diagnosis of any lymphoproliferative disorder encompasses clinical data obtained from __________ analysis.
A) Morphologic
B) Histologic
C) Immunologic
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Required hematologic findings for a diagnosis of CLL include:
A) 5000/µL lymphocytes in the peripheral blood
B) 30% lymphocytosis in bone marrow
C) Normocytic/hypochromic anemia
D) A and B
E) A and C
22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphomas
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Q1) What is the characteristic location of the tumor in endemic Burkitt's lymphoma of young children?
A) Pancreas
B) Abdominal
C) Facial
D) Liver
E) None of the above
Q2) The most frequently occurring subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma is:
A) Lymphocyte rich classic Hodgkin's lymphoma
B) Lymphocyte predominant
C) Mixed cellularity Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin's lymphoma
E) Nodular sclerosing Hodgkin's lymphoma
Q3) Which of the following are morphological characteristics of the Reed-Sternberg cell?
A) Up to 45 µm in diameter
B) Multinucleated nucleus
C) Distinct halo around macronucleoli
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Multiple Myeloma and Related Plasma Cell Disorders
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Q1) The presence of __________ circulating in the blood is a late finding seen in advanced multiple myeloma.
A) Megakaryocytes
B) Plasma cells
C) Neutrophils
D) Eosinophils
E) None of the above
Q2) Which laboratory test(s) should be ordered to evaluate a patient suspected of having plasma cell disorder?
A) Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP)
B) Calcium
C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Erythrocyte sedimentation (ESR)
E) All of the above
Q3) What is the definition of a solitary plasmacytoma?
A) A benign clone of cells localized to one area
B) A malignancy composed of a clone of cells that is systemically exacerbated
C) A malignancy composed of a clone of cells localized to one area
D) A benign clone of cells systemically exacerbated
E) None of the above
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Lipid Lysosomal Storage Diseases and Histiocytosis
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Q1) In Tay-Sachs disease, the number and size of vacuoles present in __________ in the peripheral blood is related to the duration of disease.
A) Myelocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Megakaryocytes
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the most common form of Niemann-Pick disease?
A) Adult
B) Infantile
C) Adolescent
D) Juvenile
E) None of the above
Q3) Niemann-Pick disease is caused by a deficiency of __________.
A) Sulfaminidase
B) -Glucuronidase
C) -Glucocerebrosidase
D) Sphingomyelinase
E) Hexosaminidase A
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Hemostasis
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Q1) All of the following are major systems involved in maintaining hemostasis except:
A) Vascular system
B) Kinin system
C) Platelets
D) Fibrin-forming (coagulation) system
E) Fibrin-lysing (fibrinolytic) system
Q2) Characteristics of the contact group of coagulation proteins include:
A) Function in the initial phase of the intrinsic activation of coagulation
B) Factors are not consumed during coagulation
C) Factors are not absorbed by barium sulfate (BaSO<sub>4</sub>)
D) Factors are not vitamin K dependent
E) All of the above
Q3) All of the following generate plasmin formation except:
A) Thrombin
B) Stuart-Prower factor
C) Prekallikrein
D) High-molecular-weight kininogen
E) None of the above
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Chapter 25: Disorders of Primary Hemostasis: Quantitative
and Qualitative Platelet Disorders and Vascular Disorders
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Q1) All of the following are established criteria for the diagnosis of Bernard-Soulier syndrome except:
A) An autosomal trait with clinical manifestations expressed in homozygotes
B) Platelet agglutination in response to vWF plus ristocetin
C) Moderate thrombocytopenia with adequate number of marrow megakaryocytes
D) Presence of giant platelets present on peripheral blood smear
E) Normal platelet aggregation in response to ADP, collagen, and epinephrine
Q2) The congenital disorders of platelet function include defects in all of the following except:
A) Platelet adhesion
B) Platelet maturation
C) Platelet aggregation
D) Platelet storage or secretion
E) Platelet-coagulant protein interaction
Q3) Typical blood smear morphology in ITP includes:
A) Schistocytes
B) Nucleated red blood cells
C) Increased numbers of normal eosinophils
D) Large granular platelets
E) Platelet satellitism
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Disorders of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Q1) Factor VIII:vWF is the carrier protein of the factor VIII complex and serves to concentrate __________ present in small amounts to the site of the injury.
A) VIII:vWF
B) VIII:Ag
C) VIII:C
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Which laboratory test is prolonged in a factor XII deficiency?
A) TT
B) PT
C) APTT
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The most common form of vWD is:
A) Type 2B
B) Type 1
C) Type 3
D) Pseudo-platelet type
E) Type A
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Chapter 27: Interaction of the Fibrinolytic, Coagulation,
Kinin Systems; Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation; and Related Pathology
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Q1) Streptokinase forms a 1:1 stoichiometric complex with __________.
A) Plasmin
B) Plasminogen
C) Thrombin
D) Prothrombin
E) None of the above
Q2) Exogenous streptokinase is a product of __________.
A) Gamma-hemolytic streptococci
B) Alpha-hemolytic streptococci
C) Beta-hemolytic streptococci
D) Viridans streptococci
E) None of the above
Q3) Which term refers to a condition of DIC in which active hemorrhage is evident and the consumption of coagulation factors and platelets exceeds the capacity to increase the synthesis of these components?
A) Decompensated
B) Compensated
C) Hypercoagulability
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
29
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Q1) Regarding laboratory testing to detect known causes of thrombosis:
A) Testing is best performed as soon as possible after the thrombosis is diagnosed, but before the patient receives anticoagulants.
B) It is best to test using plasma drawn after the patient has begun anticoagulant therapy, so the effects of the thrombus are masked.
C) Testing during the acute thrombotic event can result in false positives and false negatives
D) Genetically based tests, such as those for MTHFR, prothrombin G20210A, and factor V Leiden, are affected by anticoagulant therapy and the presence of thrombus.
E) It is acceptable to test for inherited causes of thrombophilia during the acute event, but not for acquired causes.
Q2) Streptokinase and urokinase are __________ plasminogen activators.
A) Fibrin specific
B) Non-fibrin-specific
C) Thrombin nonspecific
D) Thrombin specific
E) None of the above
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Page 31
Chapter 29: Quality Control in the Hematology Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which quality approach maximizes customer value?
A) Root cause analysis
B) FMEA
C) Benchmarking
D) Lean
Q2) Which of the following regulates all clinical laboratory testing?
A) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
B) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
C) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D) College of American Pathologists (CAP)
Q3) Which Westgard rule refers to one data point exceeding the ±3 SD limit?
A) 1<sub>2s</sub>
B) 1<sub>3s</sub>
C) 2<sub>2s</sub>
D) 4<sub>1s</sub>
Q4) A sudden and consistent movement from the mean is a ______________.
A) Shift
B) Trend
C) Titration
D) Dilution
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Chapter
Quantitative, and Morphologic Analysis of Serous, Cerebrospinal, and Synovial Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory data is suggestive of an exudate?
A) WBC count greater than 1000/µL
B) Specific gravity less than or equal to 1.015
C) TP less than or equal to 3.0 g/dL
D) Fluid TP to serum TP ratio less than 0.5
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding body fluid cell counts on an automated instrument?
A) The automated instruments are standardized for body fluid cell counts.
B) Cell size variation in fluids is less than in peripheral blood.
C) Background debris and clots are often present in serous fluids.
D) Synovial fluids are not viscous.
Q3) Neutrophils are not typically seen in which type of body fluid?
A) Pleural
B) Pericardial
C) Peritoneal
D) Synovial
E) Cerebrospinal
Page 33
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Chapter 31: Hematology Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fifty reticulocytes per 1000 red cells are counted under oil immersion. What is the reticulocyte count?
A) 3.0%
B) 1.5%
C) 5.0%
D) 1.0%
E) None of the above
Q2) What cells are hemolyzed when ammonium oxalate is used for platelet counts?
A) Leukocytes
B) Reticulocytes
C) Mature red cells
D) Macrophages
E) None of the above
Q3) Reticulocytes are immature RBCs that contain remnant cytoplasmic ________.
A) Denatured hemoglobin
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
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Chapter 32: Principles of Automated Differential Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The red cell distribution width (RDW) generated by an automated hematology analyzer represents _________.
A) Poikilocytosis
B) Anisocytosis
C) Granulocytosis
D) Monocytosis
E) None of the above
Q2) The MPV is equivalent to the MCV and is __________ proportional to the platelet count in the Coulter S Plus IV platelet histogram.
A) Directly
B) Indirectly
C) Inversely
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) The Coulter S Plus IV differential of granulocytes by cell volume consists of:
A) Metamyelocytes
B) Segmented neutrophils
C) Bands
D) Eosinophils
E) All of the above
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Chapter 33: Coagulation Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is a measure of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation involving factors II, V, VII, and X (as well as fibrinogen).
A) APTT
B) Prothrombin time (PT)
C) Thrombin time (TT)
D) Reptilase time
E) None of the above
Q2) What is the dilution buffer used in the determination of fibrinogen activity?
A) Electrolyte buffer
B) Tris buffer
C) Owren's Veronal buffer
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which anticoagulant is used for samples to be tested in the reptilase test?
A) EDTA
B) Sodium citrate, 3.2%
C) Sodium oxalate
D) Sodium heparin
E) None of the above
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Chapter 34: Applications of Flow Cytometry to Hematology and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flow cytometry is a technology that provides rapid measurement of:
A) Physical characteristics of cells
B) Cellular stain affinities
C) Suspension fluidics
D) Sample laminar flow rate
Q2) In flow cytometry, forward-angle light scatter provides information relevant to cell
A) Shape
B) Size
C) Hemoglobin content
D) Iron content
Q3) The dyes utilized by flow cytometry instruments include:
A) Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
B) Phycoerythrin (PE)
C) Propidium iodide (PI)
D) All of the above
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Chapter 35: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques in Hematopathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA or RNA is readily extracted from which of the following specimens?
A) Blood
B) Marrow
C) Body fluid cells
D) Tissue samples
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is/are probe label(s)?
A) Radioisotopes
B) Biotin
C) Digoxigenin
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Intact DNA is usually well preserved in blood samples that are less than how many days old?
A) 10 days
B) 7 days
C) 6 days
D) 4 days
E) 2 days
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Chapter 36: Special Stainscytochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Red-brown peroxidase positive granules are found in:
A) Promyelocytes
B) Myelocytes
C) Metamyelocytes
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Sudan black B stains which constituent of cells?
A) Lysosomes
B) Glycoproteins
C) Phospholipids
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q3) Which specimen requirements apply to the TdT test?
A) A nonheparinized bone marrow aspirate
B) Separated marrow cells washed with culture media
C) Slides must be stored at 4°C in the dark
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
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39