Advanced Athletic Training Techniques Final Exam Questions - 843 Verified Questions

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Advanced Athletic Training Techniques

Final Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Advanced Athletic Training Techniques delves into contemporary methods and best practices for optimizing athletic performance, injury prevention, and rehabilitation. Students will explore cutting-edge training modalities, biomechanical assessments, and periodized program design tailored for athletes of varying disciplines. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based intervention strategies, sport-specific conditioning, advanced recovery techniques, and the integration of technology and data analytics in athlete monitoring. Through a combination of theoretical study and practical application, this course prepares students to enhance performance outcomes while maintaining athlete health and safety at elite levels of competition.

Recommended Textbook

Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey

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20 Chapters

843 Verified Questions

843 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Examination Process

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Sample Questions

Q1) In deep tendon reflex grading,hyperreflexia is graded as which of the following?

A) 0

B) 1+

C) 2+

D) 3+

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following is not examined during the inspection,when checking the injured body part and comparing the results with the opposite structure?

A) Infection

B) Edema

C) Ecchymosis

D) Movement pattern

Answer: D

Q3) A blood pressure with a systolic reading of 80 mm Hg would be considered A) hypotension.

B) hypertension.

C) normal.

D) prehypertension.

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) During what part of the on-field examination is the examiner able to gain an immediate impression of the integrity of the capsule and ligaments involved in the injury before muscle guarding or swelling masks the degree of instability?

A) History

B) Palpation

C) Joint stability tests

D) Secondary survey

Answer: C

Q2) Assessing motor function distal to the site of injury is indicated whether or not you have to move the involved bone or joint.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) What type of splint is arguably the most widely used?

A) SAM

B) Halo

C) Vacuum

D) Gutter

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process

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38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) You and another athletic trainer share the responsibility of evaluating the star of the baseball team.In order for any follow-up evaluations to be useful and interpretable,what type of reliability must be highest?

A) Intrarater reliability

B) Interrater reliability

C) Intraexaminer reliability

D) Reliability doesn't matter.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following terms describes quick summaries of how positive and negative findings on a particular test determine a test's diagnostic usefulness?

A) Likelihood ratios

B) Specificity

C) Efficacy

D) Sensitivity

Answer: A

Q3) To be clinically useful,a procedure must demonstrate good reliability.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature

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Sample Questions

Q1) One of the best ways to prevent heterotopic ossification in the quadriceps muscle is to do which of the following?

A) Cast the leg to prevent further movement and injury.

B) Don't stretch the muscle, but instead keep it in full extension.

C) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 30° of flexion.

D) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 120° of flexion.

Q2) Which statement best represents a grade 4 classification of a stress fracture?

A) Nondisplaced fracture line on imaging

B) Incidental "stress reaction" found on imaging

C) Nonunion fracture identified on imaging

D) Fracture displacement greater than or equal to 2 mm identified on imaging

Q3) A 12-year-old boy reports pain,periods of joint locking,and an inability to use his arm.Which of the following injuries does this boy have?

A) Osteochondral defect

B) Meniscal tear

C) Ligament sprain

D) Olecranon bursitis

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Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques

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Q1) Which of the following utilizes a routine radiological series,including AP,lateral,and oblique?

A) Cervical spine

B) Patellofemoral

C) Elbow

D) Knee

Q2) Body piercings are allowed to remain in place during the MRI procedure.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which procedure requires that a lead shield be placed over the reproductive organs to protect them from radiation exposure?

A) MRI

B) X-ray

C) CT angiography

D) Bone scan

Q4) For which structure is an angiogram best used to identify pathology?

A) Spinal canal

B) Blood vessels

C) Muscle

D) Articular cartilage lesions

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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents ideal postural alignment based on the lateral view using a plumb line?

A) Lateral malleolus bisects line

B) Greater trochanter slightly anterior to line

C) Lateral femoral condyle slightly posterior to line

D) Acromion process bisects line

Q2) Which of the following is one of the gold standards for determining skeletal postural deviation?

A) Plumb line

B) Goniometer

C) Inclinometer

D) Photographs

Q3) When treating an athlete with right-curving functional scoliosis,which of the following would be the first thing that should be done in the treatment plan?

A) Stretching the right-side musculature

B) Strengthening the left-side musculature

C) Stretching the left-side musculature

D) Strengthening the right-side musculature

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Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait

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Sample Questions

Q1) When conducting a quantitative gait analysis,which method is not appropriate for measuring angular kinematics?

A) Electrogoniometry

B) Accelerometry

C) Optoelectronic

D) Electromyography

Q2) During the swing phase of gait,which of the following muscles is (are)more active?

A) Gluteus maximus

B) Ankle plantar flexors

C) Gluteus medius

D) Ankle dorsiflexors

Q3) What is the point inside or outside the body where all things are equally balanced?

A) Moment of inertia

B) Kinetic

C) Center of gravity

D) Kinematic

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Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) What joint is better known as the Lisfranc joint?

A) Intermetatarsal

B) Tarsometatarsal

C) Metatarsophalangeal

D) Interphalangeal

Q2) Which muscular layer of the foot contains the abductor hallucis,flexor digitorum brevis,and abductor digiti minimi?

A) Superficial

B) Middle

C) Deep

D) Interosseous

Q3) The foot's intrinsic muscles originate and insert from the foot and are grouped into how many layers?

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Five

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Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following ligaments is assessed using the anterior drawer test of the ankle?

A) Anterior talofibular

B) Anterior tibiofibular

C) Calcaneofibular

D) Deltoid

Q2) All of the ligaments in the ankle are actually thickenings of the joint capsule with the exception of one.Which of the following is an extracapsular ankle ligament?

A) Calcaneofibular

B) Anterior talofibular

C) Posterior talofibular

D) Deltoid

Q3) Which ankle ligament is assessed with the talar tilt test for inversion?

A) Anterior talofibular

B) Calcaneofibular

C) Posterior talofibular

D) Deltoid

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11

Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) The roles of the menisci do not include which of the following?

A) Deepen the articulation and fill the gaps that normally occur during the knee's articulation

B) Improve lubrication for the articulating surfaces

C) Provide shock absorption

D) Allow for extremes of flexion and extension

Q2) Which is an implication of a positive quadriceps active test?

A) Grade I PCL sprain

B) Grade I ACL sprain

C) Grade III PCL sprain

D) Grade III ACL sprain

Q3) Which of the following is the origin and insertion of the sartorius?

A) Anterior superior iliac spine and pes anserine tendon

B) Anterior superior iliac spine and fibula

C) Anterior superior iliac spine and adductor tubercle

D) Anterior inferior iliac spine and the pes anserine tendon

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Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following patellar malalignments results in increased patellar glide,a tight lateral retinaculum,and patellar maltracking?

A) Patella alta

B) Patella baja

C) "Frog-eyed" patella

D) Squinting patella

Q2) In which of the following patellar orientations is the patella positioned in the frontal plane,which is considered a deviation from the patella being centered between the medial and lateral condyles?

A) Anterior/posterior patellar tilt

B) Medial/lateral patellar glide

C) Patellar rotation

D) Medial/lateral patellar tilt

Q3) Which patellar alignment problem would an athlete have with a congenitally short patellar tendon?

A) Patella alta

B) Patella baja

C) Squinting patella

D) "Frog-eyed" patella

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the ligament that originates off of the ASIS and inserts at the pubic symphysis?

A) Ligamentum teres

B) Inguinal ligament

C) Iliofemoral ligament

D) Pubofemoral ligament

Q2) The anterior fibers of the iliofemoral ligament function to limit hyperextension of the hip.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which represents the modified Ober test?

A) The knee of the involved leg is placed in an extended position.

B) The knee of the involved leg is placed in 45° of knee flexion.

C) The knee of the involved leg is placed in 90° of knee flexion.

D) The knee of the involved leg is placed in full knee flexion.

Q4) From where do the femoral head and neck receive blood supply?

A) Femoral arteries

B) Femoral circumflex arteries

C) Obturator arteries

D) Internal iliac arteries

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) An athlete with a suspected nerve root impingement may self-report pain with all but which of the following activities?

A) Lifting weights

B) Sneezing

C) During a bowel movement

D) During breathing

Q2) Which of the following describes the first sacral vertebra failing to unite with the remainder of the sacrum?

A) Lumbarization

B) Sacralization

C) Lamination

D) Delamination

Q3) What spinal motion is limited by the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A) Lateral flexion

B) Flexion

C) Rotation

D) Extension

Q4) The primary movement occurring between the L1 and L4 vertebrae is rotation.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Freely open

A)Nystagmus

B)Patency

C)Torticollis

D)Myelopathy

Q2) Which method is more reliable in determining cervical range of motion (ROM)?

A) Goniometric measurement

B) Inclinometer measurement

C) Visual estimation

D) Laser measurement

Q3) The cervical plexus is comprised of the anterior rami of which nerve roots?

A) C1-C5

B) C5-C8

C) C5-T1

D) C1-C4

Q4) What is inflamed in an athlete who has mononucleosis?

A) Liver

B) Gallbladder

C) Spleen

D) Pancreas

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Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which muscle is a primary mover when performing a manual muscle test for horizontal adduction of the GH joint?

A) Pectoralis major

B) Posterior deltoid

C) Infraspinatus

D) Teres minor

Q2) What is the last growth plate in the body to close?

A) Lateral clavicular epiphysis

B) Medial clavicular epiphysis

C) Proximal humeral epiphysis

D) Distal humeral epiphysis

Q3) What is a weak site in the GH capsule that is often torn during an anterior GH dislocation?

A) Weitbrecht's foramen

B) Inferior pouch

C) Coracohumeral ligament

D) Conoid ligament

Q4) Define the plane of the scapula.

Q5) Name all the muscles that have a direct action on the scapula.

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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the indentation of the lateral epicondyle that accepts the radial head during elbow flexion?

A) Trochlea

B) Capitellum

C) Radial fossa

D) Semilunar notch

Q2) The radial tuberosity is the insertion site for which muscle?

A) Brachialis

B) Biceps brachii

C) Brachioradialis

D) Pronator teres

Q3) Which of the following is not a predisposing condition associated with distal biceps tendon rupture?

A) Statin use

B) Anabolic steroid use

C) Cigarette smoking

D) Diabetes

Q4) Name the four individual articulations of the elbow.

Q5) The "terrible triad" of the elbow involves which type of injury to what structures?

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Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which pulleys are located on the distal aspect of the metacarpal and the most proximal member of the pulley system?

A) Cruciate

B) Annular

C) Palmar aponeurosis

D) Lumbrical

Q2) Which finger's MCP is not commonly injured?

A) First digit

B) Fifth digit

C) Second digit

D) Third digit

Q3) Upon suffering a perilunate or lunate dislocation,active ROM is typically noted as painful for which of the following?

A) Flexion and ulnar deviation

B) Flexion and extension

C) Extension and ulnar deviation

D) Extension

Q4) Name the two muscles of the flexor grouping that are not innervated by the median nerve.

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Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following describes a condition in which objects are only in focus if they are very close to the eyes?

A) Myopia

B) Hypermetropia

C) Emmetropia

D) Diplopia

Q2) Which bone forms the supraorbital margin of the periorbital region?

A) Frontal

B) Zygomatic

C) Maxillary

D) Sphenoid

Q3) What are you looking for when assessing eye movement?

Q4) Which combination of the size and elastic property of an object results in potential orbital fracture and/or periorbital contusion?

A) Larger than the orbit; hard

B) Larger than the orbit; elastic

C) Smaller than the orbit; hard

D) Smaller than the orbit; elastic

Q5) Name the bones that form the eye orbit.

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Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the small rough projections found on the surface of a patient's tongue that assist in the movement of food during chewing?

A) Papillae

B) Taste buds

C) Vermilion

D) Papules

Q2) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.

Q3) The middle ear is connected to the nasal passages of a patient via which of the following?

A) External auditory canal

B) Internal auditory canal

C) Eustachian tube

D) Vestibular cochlea

Q4) Which of the following describes the area of a patient's mouth that represents everything past the teeth and leading to the trachea?

A) Vermilion border

B) Oral cavity

C) Oral vestibule

D) Larynx

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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following represents a component of the diagnostic criteria for postconcussion syndrome under the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM)but not the World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases?

A) Headache

B) Dizziness

C) Fatigue

D) Apathy

Q2) What structure in the brain is formed by the thalamus,hypothalamus,and epithalamus?

A) Brain stem

B) Medulla oblongata

C) Diencephalon

D) Longitudinal fissure

Q3) To assess for concussion,one should monitor for changes in pulse,blood pressure,and respiration.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which cranial nerve(s)are responsible for eye movement?

Q5) List two ways to elicit a pain response from an unconscious patient.

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