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Adult Health Nursing is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with the knowledge and skills necessary to care for adults experiencing a wide range of health alterations. It emphasizes the application of the nursing process to promote, maintain, and restore health in adult patients across diverse settings. The course integrates principles of medical-surgical nursing, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and evidence-based practice to address common acute and chronic conditions. Through lectures, case studies, and clinical experiences, students develop critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and effective communication skills to ensure safe, patient-centered care for adults.
Recommended Textbook
Adult Health Nursing 6th Edition by Barbara Christensen
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17 Chapters
676 Verified Questions
676 Flashcards
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34 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23140
Sample Questions
Q1) List in order of complexity the structural levels of organization of the body. Place a comma between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.).
A)Body as a whole
B)Cellular
C)Organs
D)Tissue
E)Chemical
F) System
Answer: E, B, D, C, F, A
Q2) A muscle that separates the ventral cavity into the thoracic and abdominal cavity is called the ________________________.
Answer: diaphragm
Q3) The smallest living components in our body are
A) cells.
B) organs.
C) electrons.
D) osmosis.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Southeast Asian and Native American patients often do not make eye contact when preoperative teaching is being performed because
A) they aren't educated.
B) they aren't paying attention.
C) they believe eye contact is disrespectful.
D) they believe they are superior to the nurse.
Answer: C
Q2) What nursing interventions will minimize the effects of venous stasis?
A) Pillows under the knee in a position of comfort
B) Sitting with the feet flat on the floor
C) Early ambulation
D) Gentle leg massage
Answer: C
Q3) Sudden chest pain combined with dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia is an indication of
A) hypovolemic shock.
B) dehiscence.
C) atelectasis.
D) pulmonary embolus.
Answer: D
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dark-skinned patient has been admitted to the hospital in severe respiratory distress. To determine whether the patient is cyanotic, the nurse uses what knowledge of skin assessment?
A) It is not possible to assess color changes in patients with dark skin.
B) Cyanosis in patients with dark skin can be seen only in the sclera.
C) Cyanosis can be seen in the lips and mucous membranes of patients with dark skin.
D) Cyanosis will blanch out with direct pressure to the soles of the feet in dark-skinned patients.
Answer: C
Q2) A patient, age 63, has cancer of the left breast. After a modified radical mastectomy, she has been receiving chemotherapy. Her grandson, who visited a few days ago, now has varicella (chickenpox). The nurse should observe her carefully for signs of A) herpes zoster.
B) herpes simplex type I.
C) herpes simplex type II. D) impetigo.
Answer: A
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Q1) A patient, age 79, fell at home and suffered an intracapsular fracture of his left hip. The orthopedic surgeon inserted a prosthetic implant for a bipolar hip replacement. The physician has instructed the nurse to turn him every 2 hours. The nurse understands that the correct nursing intervention is to keep the legs
A) together so they don't separate while turning.
B) from rubbing together.
C) abducted so the prosthesis does not become dislocated.
D) abducted to prevent additional pain for the patient with turning.
Q2) Which nursing intervention would be appropriate for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Sleeping at least 8 hours at night and a nap during the day
B) Sleeping at 4-hour intervals at night
C) No exercise regimen and apply ice to joints as needed
D) Jogging at least 20 minutes three days a week
Q3) Which diagnostic exam is used to find pathological abnormalities of the brain?
A) CT scan
B) Nuclear medicine scan
C) MRI
D) Radiograph

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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 84, has a history of a large left inguinal hernia. He is complaining of nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention, and inguinal pain. A serious complication of a hernia in which the blood supply to the tissue becomes occluded is called a(n)
A) strangulated hernia.
B) hiatal hernia.
C) incarcerated hernia.
D) sliding hernia.
Q2) A NANDA-accepted nursing diagnosis that could be written for a patient with an abdominoperineal resection and a permanent colostomy would include
A) Disturbed body image.
B) Ineffective thermoregulation.
C) Ineffective protection.
D) Autonomic dysreflexia.
Q3) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Q4) The purpose of antibiotic therapy in treating stomach disorders is that it
A) eradicates H. pylori.
B) inhibits gastric acid secretion.
C) protects the gastric mucosa.
D) neutralizes or reduces the acidity of stomach contents.
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 56, has cirrhosis of the liver with severe ascites. The nurse is assisting the physician in the procedure to remove this fluid from his abdominal cavity. This procedure is called an
A) abdominal paracephalus.
B) abdominal paracentesis.
C) abdominal paradentium.
D) abdominal perimetrium.
Q2) If the patient has a T-tube in place after a cholecystectomy, the best nursing intervention would be to
A) open the T-tube to air so that it will drain freely.
B) position and secure the drainage bag at the abdominal level.
C) make certain that the tube is tightly taped to the patient near the nipple.
D) irrigate the T-tube with normal saline to ensure the free flow of bile.
Q3) After the physician has performed a liver biopsy, the nursing interventions would usually include
A) allowing the patient to get up to use the bathroom if he desires.
B) keeping the patient on the right side for minimum of 2 hours.
C) taking vital signs every 4 hours.
D) keeping the patient on the left side for minimum of 4 hours.
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient, age 35, is admitted with aplastic anemia. He asks the nurse what aplastic anemia is. An accurate response would be that A) the activity of the bone marrow is depressed. B) the bone marrow fails to produce lymphocytes. C) the bone marrow fails to produce red blood cells.
D) red cells are absent as a result of chronic blood loss.
Q2) A patient is admitted with fatigue; discomfort; enlarged, painless cervical lymph nodes; and pruritus. A lymph node biopsy yields a diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease. The nurse is aware that the abnormal cells noted by the pathologist in Hodgkin's disease are called
A) Rodem-Lee cells.
B) Bullus-Frendelenburg cells.
C) Stevens-Jorgens cells.
D) Reed-Sternberg cells.
Q3) Pernicious anemia results from inadequate absorption of A) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
B) iron.
C) vitamin K.
D) protein.
Q4) A sudden reduction in blood volume may lead to _________ shock.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has heart failure. His physician's orders include complete bed rest. The nurse knows that this order means he
A) is encouraged to rest as much as possible.
B) is confined to bed but may assume responsibility for all of his personal care.
C) is confined to bed but is allowed to go to the bathroom as needed.
D) must remain as quiet as possible, with any task requiring physical effort done for him.
Q2) A patient, age 34, is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of Activity intolerance related to generalized weakness for him. Which intervention does the nurse plan while he is febrile?
A) Decreased activity
B) Activity as tolerated
C) Monitoring vital signs during ambulation
D) Allowing moderate activity if heart rate is not above 100
Q3) Serum cardiac markers are __________ that indicate cardiac muscle damage after a myocardial infarction.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgeon administers nasal epinephrine to a patient after nasal surgery. The nurse explains to the patient that this is done primarily to A) anesthetize the nares.
B) reduce the possibility of bleeding.
C) enhance respiration
D) dry up the nasal mucus.
Q2) The patient has COPD. To teach him pursed-lip breathing, the nurse should instruct him to inhale slowly through his
A) mouth, then exhale quickly through pursed lips.
B) nose, then exhale more slowly through pursed lips.
C) mouth, then make his exhalation last three times as long as his inhalation.
D) nose, making his inhalation last three times as long as his exhalation.
Q3) A patient, age 22, is admitted with acute asthma. It is important to monitor his oxygen saturation levels. The quickest way to assess his saturation of oxygen is to A) get arterial blood gases.
B) use pulse oximetry.
C) do a pulse pressure assessment.
D) do a pulmonary function test.
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient who is recovering from acute glomerulonephritis, which symptoms may exist even when other symptoms have subsided? (Select all that apply.)
A) Proteinuria
B) Oliguria
C) Hematuria
D) Anasarca
Q2) The type and size of urinary catheter are determined by the (Select all that apply.)
A) location of the urinary tract problem.
B) urinary output.
C) cause of the urinary tract problem.
D) weight of the patient.
Q3) A patient, age 78, has been admitted to the hospital with dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. She is confused and incontinent of urine on admission. Which nursing intervention does the nurse include in developing a plan of care?
A) Restrict fluids after the evening meal.
B) Insert an indwelling catheter.
C) Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours.
D) Apply absorbent incontinence pads.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician prescribes glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase) for a patient, age 57, when diet and exercise have not been able to control her type 2 diabetes. Which information does the nurse include when teaching her about the glyburide?
A) Glyburide is a substitute for insulin and acts by directly stimulating glucose uptake into the cell.
B) Glyburide, like all oral hypoglycemic agents, does not cause the hypoglycemic reactions that may occur with insulin use.
C) Glyburide and other hypoglycemic agents are thought to stimulate insulin production and increase sensitivity to insulin at receptor sites.
D) Glyburide and other sulfonylureas lower blood sugar by inhibiting glucagon release from the liver, preventing gluconeogenesis.
Q2) A long-term complication of diabetes mellitus is A) Cushing's disease.
B) renal failure.
C) hypothyroidism.
D) hyperglycemia.
Q3) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient, age 36, is scheduled for a unilateral orchiectomy for treatment of testicular cancer. He is withdrawn and does not initiate interaction with the nurse. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Carefully explain the post operative activity restrictions.
B) Set a patient outcome that he will verbalize his understanding of the procedure.
C) Assure him that he will have adequate future sexual functioning.
D) Assess his concerns related to his diagnosis and treatment.
Q2) False negative results in mammography occur in specific age groups because:
A) older women have greater density of breast tissue.
B) older women have less density of breast tissue.
C) younger women have greater density of breast tissue.
D) younger women have less density of breast tissue.
Q3) _____________ are benign tumors of the uterus.
Q4) If severe or chronic pelvic inflammatory disease is present, the complication that may result is
A) metrorrhagia.
B) menorrhagia.
C) infertility.
D) incontinence.

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23152
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of congenital hearing loss from birth or early infancy is:
A) Anoxia or trauma
B) Tumor
C) Infection
D) Occasional loud noise
Q2) A patient has a family history of cataracts. He asks what symptom would be present if he begins to develop them. The nurse might respond that the first symptom of a cataract is usually
A) pain in the eyes.
B) blurring of vision.
C) loss of peripheral vision.
D) dry eyes.
Q3) Myopia is a medical term meaning which visual disorder?
A) Farsightedness
B) Blurred vision
C) Nearsightedness
D) Halos around lights
Q4) Decreasing visual acuity is a sign of _________ __________.
Q6) _____________ is a medical term for blurred vision. Page 15
Q5) Schiötz tonometry is a diagnostic test for __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A method of reducing a person's risk of becoming infected with the West Nile virus would be to
A) wear shorts and short-sleeve shirts.
B) apply baby lotion to all extremities.
C) apply insect repellent that contains DEET.
D) apply flea and tick repellent.
Q2) A patient has been diagnosed with organic brain pathology. He is presenting with signs and symptoms of total or partial loss of the ability to recognize familiar objects or people through sensory stimulation. This condition is called
A) apraxia.
B) agnosia.
C) aphasia.
D) dysphagia.
Q3) The Glasgow coma scale is a screening tool used to assess level of consciousness in three major areas. They are
A) verbal, sensation, motor.
B) eye, motor, verbal.
C) verbal, pain, reflexes.
D) eye, pain, verbal.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23154
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the clinic for his weekly "allergy shot." He missed his appointment the week before because of a family emergency. Which action by the nurse is appropriate in administering his injection?
A) Administer the usual dosage of the allergen.
B) Double the dosage to account for the missed injection the previous week.
C) Consult with the physician about decreasing the dosage for this injection.
D) Reevaluate his sensitivity to the allergen with a skin test.
Q2) A patient, age 42, develops a severe angioedema involving her face, hands, and feet, with burning and stinging of the lesions. During the assessment, which significant risk factor for allergies does the nurse recognize?
A) Family history of allergies
B) History of a recent fungal infection
C) Use of OTC medications
D) Recurrent respiratory infections
Q3) The delayed major process that leads to organ transplant rejection is
A) hypersensitivity.
B) cellular immunity.
C) autoimmune factors.
D) immunodeficiency.
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Sample Questions
Q1) While teaching community groups about AIDS, the nurse informs people that the most common method of transmission of the HIV virus currently is
A) sexual contact with an HIV-infected partner.
B) perinatal transmission.
C) exposure to contaminated blood.
D) nonsexual exposure to saliva and tears.
Q2) In reviewing a patient's chart to determine whether she has progressed from HIV disease to AIDS, the nurse should look for
A) CD<sub>4</sub>+ count below 500, chronic fatigue, night sweats.
B) HIV-positive test result, CD<sub>4</sub>+ count below 200, history of opportunistic disease.
C) weight loss, persistent generalized lymphadenopathy, chronic diarrhea.
D) fever, chills, CD<sub>4</sub>+ count below 200.
Q3) HIV patients who are suffering from depression should be frequently assessed for A) physical decline.
B) fear of death.
C) support systems.
D) suicidal ideation.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seeking medical attention when any cancer warning signs occur is frequently delayed because of
A) difficulty accessing a physician or getting a referral consult.
B) lack of knowledge of the seven warning signs of cancer.
C) fear of the possible diagnosis of cancer and hoping signs will go away.
D) self-examination being complex and difficult to perform.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the unit for an autologous bone marrow transplant. During teaching, the nurse would tell the patient that the bone marrow for transplant will come from
A) an anonymous donor.
B) her closest living relative.
C) her own marrow.
D) a friend.
Q3) Nursing interventions for the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements would include all these except:
A) provide adequate, easily digestible, soft, bland foods.
B) give small, frequent, highly nutritional meals.
C) allow extra time to eat.
D) offer three regular meals of highly nutritious foods.
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