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Adult Health Nursing is a course designed to equip nursing students with the foundational knowledge and clinical skills necessary to care for adult patients experiencing a variety of health conditions. The course emphasizes the assessment, planning, and implementation of evidence-based interventions for adults across the health-illness continuum. Students will explore topics such as pathophysiology, pharmacology, chronic and acute disease management, health promotion, and patient education. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical experiences, students will develop the critical thinking and clinical judgment required to provide compassionate, ethical, and holistic care to diverse adult populations in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Evolve Resources for Medical Surgical Nursing 7th Edition by Sharon L. Lewis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
69 Chapters
1786 Verified Questions
1786 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1549 Page 2
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30591
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a stroke is paralyzed on the left side of the body and is not responsive enough to turn or move independently in bed. A pressure ulcer has developed on the patient's left hip. The best nursing diagnosis for this patient is
A) impaired physical mobility related to paralysis.
B) impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.
C) risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility.
D) ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to turn and move self in bed.
Answer: B
Q2) An elderly, emaciated patient is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse plans an every-2-hours turning schedule to prevent skin breakdown. In this case, the nursing action is considered to be A) dependent.
B) cooperative.
C) independent.
D) collaborative.
Answer: D
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3
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30592
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these strategies should be a priority when the nurse is planning care for a hypertensive patient who is uninsured?
A) Follow evidence-based national guidelines.
B) Obtain less expensive antihypertensive medications.
C) Assist with dietary changes as the first action.
D) Teach about the impact of exercise on hypertension.
Answer: A
Q2) Which information will the nurse need to collect when assessing the health status of a community?
A) Average income of community members
B) Morning traffic patterns in the community
C) Occupations of individuals in the community
D) Median life expectancy for the community
Answer: D
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4

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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30593
Sample Questions
Q1) While talking with the nursing supervisor, a staff nurse expresses frustration that a Native American patient always has several family members at the bedside. The most appropriate action by the nursing supervisor is to
A) remind the nurse that this cultural practice is important to the family and the patient.
B) suggest that the nurse ask family members to leave the room during patient care.
C) have the nurse explain to the family that too many visitors will tire the patient.
D) ask about the nurse's personal beliefs about family support during hospitalization.
Answer: D
Q2) A Hispanic patient complains of abdominal cramping caused by empacho. The nurse's first action should be to
A) ask the patient what treatments are likely to help.
B) give the patient medication to decrease the cramping.
C) offer to contact a curandero(a) to make a visit to the patient.
D) massage the patient's abdomen until the pain is gone.
Answer: A
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30594
Sample Questions
Q1) Following knee surgery, the patient has an elastic bandage applied to the surgical site. When assessing the circulation to the lower leg, the first action the nurse will take is to
A) visually inspect the color of the foot.
B) palpate the temperature of the foot.
C) use a stethoscope to auscultate ankle blood pressure.
D) check the patient's pedal pulses using the fingertips.
Q2) The nurse is admitting a patient who has just arrived on the medical-surgical unit with severe abdominal pain. The action by the nurse that will be most effective in obtaining complete and accurate data from the patient is
A) to complete only basic demographic data before addressing the patient's abdominal pain.
B) to inform the patient that the abdominal pain will be treated as soon as the health history is completed.
C) to take the initial vital signs and then deal with the abdominal pain prior to completing the health history.
D) to medicate the patient for the abdominal pain before attending to the health history and examination.
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6

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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30595
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective health maintenance related to low motivation based on the finding that the diabetic patient
A) does not perform capillary blood glucose tests as directed.
B) occasionally forgets to take the daily prescribed medication.
C) says that dietary intake does not seem to impact fatigue level.
D) cannot identify signs or symptoms of high and low blood glucose.
Q2) A patient admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second day after admission. In view of the patient's limited hospitalization, the nurse should plan to
A) include detailed information about diet and medication use in patient teaching.
B) use every interaction to teach the patient about the details of glucose control.
C) focus on teaching the family instead of the patient about diabetic management.
D) teach the patient about how to monitor glucose and self-administer insulin.
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30596
Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse is developing a care plan for an alert and active 85-year-old patient who takes multiple medications for chronic cardiac and respiratory disease. The patient lives with family members who work during the day. An appropriate nursing diagnosis is
A) social isolation related to weakness and fatigue.
B) caregiver role strain related to need to adjust family employment schedule.
C) risk for injury related to drug-drug interactions.
D) compromised family coping related to the patient's many care needs.
Q2) As the home health nurse is teaching a 72-year-old patient who lives alone about a new medication, the patient replies "I just don't learn new information like I used to." The nurse will plan to
A) schedule the patient for daily visits for medication administration.
B) teach the patient's family members to give the medications.
C) spend more time discussing the medications with the patient.
D) tell the patient it is not safe to take medications independently.
Q3) Ageism is an important concept for the nurse to understand because it
A) provides statistical information regarding the older population.
B) promotes consideration of the diversity of the older population.
C) may lead to poorer health care for older individuals.
D) increases social awareness of the needs of older people.
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30597
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these patients being discharged by the acute care nurse meets the requirements for Medicare reimbursement for home health services?
A) A 65-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis and severe weakness who requires sacral dressing changes
B) A 68-year-old diabetic patient who is unable to drive and needs teaching about a diabetic diet and lifestyle
C) A 70-year-old who receives daily intravenous antibiotics for an infected leg wound
D) A 71-year-old who needs weekly blood sampling for monitoring of prothrombin times
Q2) When making an initial home visit, the most appropriate approach by the nurse is to
A) tell the patient and family all of the planned interventions.
B) ask the patient and family what their expectations are.
C) discuss the importance of following through with health care provider orders.
D) instruct the family members that they will need to participate in care.
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30598
Sample Questions
Q1) To evaluate the effect of aromatherapy on a patient after surgery, the nurse will
A) check the patient's incision for signs of infection.
B) monitor the patient's intake and output.
C) assess the patient's blood pressure and pulse.
D) listen to the patient's breath sounds.
Q2) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis asks the nurse about the use of fish oil supplements to help decrease symptoms. The best response by the nurse is that A) there is some evidence that fish oil supplements are helpful in treating rheumatoid arthritis.
B) fish oil supplements are helpful for preventing cardiac disease, but not for rheumatoid arthritis.
C) because there is no clear evidence that fish oil supplements are helpful, the patient should not waste money on them.
D) the patient should discuss the use of fish oil supplements in rheumatoid arthritis with the hospital dietician.
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10
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30599
Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old male patient who is diabetic is hospitalized for a gangrenous foot infection. The patient's wife visits the patient for a few minutes every other day. The patient tells the nurse that his wife is angry about being married to an invalid. The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of A) ineffective denial related to inadequate knowledge about diabetes.
B) compromised family coping related to insufficient support from wife.
C) ineffective health maintenance related to expectations of family members.
D) anxiety related to lack of ability to adapt to changes in lifestyle.
Q2) A hospitalized patient is very anxious about missing work and is afraid of being fired because of this illness. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is A) insomnia related to anxiety about work.
B) ineffective denial related to lack of effective coping resources.
C) risk for strain of the caregiver role related to lack of family support.
D) complicated grieving related to prolonged stressful situation.
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11
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30600
Q1) When caring for a patient who is receiving epidural morphine, which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the patient may be experiencing a side effect of the medication?
A) The patient complains of a "pounding" headache.
B) The patient becomes restless and agitated.
C) The patient has not voided for over 10 hours.
D) The patient has cramping abdominal pain.
Q2) A patient who has just started taking sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) for chronic pain complains of nausea and abdominal fullness. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is to
A) consult with the health care provider about using a different opioid.
B) administer the ordered metoclopramide (Reglan) 10 mg IV.
C) tell the patient that the nausea will subside in about a week.
D) order the patient a clear liquid diet until the nausea decreases.
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12
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30601
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in a hospice program is experiencing continuous, increasing amounts of pain. The nurse caring for the patient plans the scheduling of opioid pain medications to provide
A) prn doses of medication whenever the patient requests.
B) around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics.
C) enough pain medication to keep the patient sedated and unaware of stimuli.
D) analgesic doses that provide pain control without decreasing respiratory rate.
Q2) A patient who has been diagnosed with metastatic malignant melanoma and has a poor prognosis plans an extensive trip around the country "to finally see some of the places I've always wanted to visit and to see some family I haven't seen in years." The nurse recognizes that the patient is manifesting the psychosocial response of A) restlessness.
B) saying goodbye.
C) unfinished business.
D) altered decision making.
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13

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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30602
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient hospitalized for elective surgery stopped smoking 2 days before admission as advised by the nurse. When planning postoperative care, the nurse should include measures to
A) improve sleep.
B) decreased appetite.
C) prevent fatigue.
D) enhance appetite.
Q2) A nurse who is assigned to care for a patient who has been admitted with an opiate overdose tells the nursing supervisor, "This is a waste of my time. The patient will be back on the needle right after being discharged." The most appropriate response by the nursing supervisor is
A) "Your lack of professionalism will make it difficult for you to provide adequate care."
B) "You know we are obligated to provide appropriate care no matter how we feel."
C) "Since you feel so strongly, perhaps you should be assigned to care for a different patient."
D) "It is important to recognize these feelings and then figure out how to deal with them."
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30603
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse will plan to use wet-to-dry dressings when providing care for a
A) full-thickness burn filled with dry, black material.
B) surgical incision with pink, approximated edges.
C) pressure ulcer with pink granulation tissue.
D) wound with purulent drainage and dry brown areas.
Q2) A patient's temperature has been 101° F (38.3° C) for several days. The patient's normal caloric intake to meet nutritional needs is 2000 calories per day. Knowing that the metabolic rate increases 7% for each Fahrenheit degree above 100° in body temperature, calculate the total calories the patient should receive each day.
Q3) When caring for a patient after an abdominal surgery, the nurse will be most concerned about monitoring for wound dehiscence during which period?
A) The first postoperative day
B) The third postoperative day
C) One week after the surgery
D) One month after the surgery
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15

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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30604
Sample Questions
Q1) An older patient at the clinic for an annual examination tells the nurse, "I don't understand why I need to have so many cancer screening tests now. I feel just fine!" The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the
A) decrease in antibody production associated with aging.
B) impact of poor nutrition on immune function in older people.
C) consequences of aging for cell-mediated immunity.
D) incidence of cancer-stimulating infections in older individuals.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute rejection of a kidney transplant. The nurse will anticipate
A) placement of the patient on the transplant waiting list.
B) insertion of an arteriovenous graft for hemodialysis.
C) administration of immunosuppressant medications.
D) drawing blood for HLA and ABO compatibility matching.
Q3) The nurse encourages a new mother to breastfeed her infant, even for a short time, because colostrum will provide the infant with
A) active immunity to many childhood illnesses for several years.
B) passive immunity to all childhood illnesses for several months.
C) passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity.
D) innate immunity to diseases to which the mother is immune.
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30605
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to give the following medications to an HIV-positive patient who is hospitalized with PCP. Which is most important to administer at the right time?
A) Nystatin (Mycostatin) tablet for vaginal candidiasis
B) Aerosolized pentamadine (NebuPent) for PCP infection
C) Oral acyclovir ((Zovirax to treat systemic herpes simplex
D) Oral saquinavir (Inverase) to suppress HIV infection
Q2) At the health promotion level of care for HIV infection, which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
A) "Are you having any symptoms such as severe weight loss or confusion?"
B) "Are you experiencing any side effects from the antiretroviral medications?
C) "Do you need any assistance to obtain antiretroviral drugs or other treatments?"
D) "Do you use any injectable drugs or have sexual activity with multiple partners?"
Q3) To evaluate the effectiveness of ART, the nurse will schedule the patient for A) viral load testing.
B) enzyme immunoassay.
C) rapid HIV antibody testing.
D) immunofluorescence assay.
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Page 17

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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30606
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information noted by the nurse reviewing the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy is most important to report to the health care provider?
A) Hemoglobin of 10 g/L
B) WBC count of 1700/µl
C) Platelets of 65,000/µl
D) Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl
Q2) A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting following each administration of chemotherapy. An important nursing intervention for the patient is to
A) teach about the importance of nutrition during treatment.
B) have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present.
C) administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments.
D) offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy.
Q3) When the nurse is administering a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent intravenously, an important consideration is to
A) stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site.
B) infuse the medication over a short period.
C) administer the chemotherapy through small-bore catheter.
D) hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.
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Page 18
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30607
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with renal insufficiency develops lethargy and somnolence with a blood pressure of 100/60, pulse 62, and respirations 10. The nurse notes that the patient has been taking an aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide suspension (Maalox) for indigestion. The nurse anticipates that management of the patient will include IV administration of A) magnesium sulfate.
B) potassium chloride.
C) calcium gluconate.
D) sodium chloride.
Q2) A patient has the following ABG results: pH 7.32, PaO<sub>2</sub> 88 mm Hg, PaCO<sub>2</sub> 37 mm Hg, and HCO<sub>3</sub> 16 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
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19

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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30608
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse asks a hospitalized patient to sign the operative permit as directed in the health care provider's preoperative orders. The patient tells the nurse, "I do not really understand what is involved in the surgery." The nurse should
A) postpone the consent form signing and notify the holding room staff that the health care provider needs to discuss the surgery with the patient.
B) explain what the planned surgical procedure entails before having the patient sign the consent form.
C) have the patient sign the form and ask the health care provider to visit the patient before surgery to further explain the procedure.
D) delay the patient's signature on the consent form and notify the health care provider that the informed consent process is not complete.
Q2) A patient is to receive atropine before surgery. The nurse teaches the patient to expect
A) weakness.
B) dry mouth.
C) forgetfulness.
D) dizziness.
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30609
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that the use of local anesthesia would be particularly beneficial to a patient when
A) same-day discharge is desirable after surgery.
B) the patient has recently taken food and fluids.
C) the surgical procedure requires major-muscle relaxation.
D) the patient is very apprehensive about having surgery.
Q2) The description that best defines the role of the nurse anesthetist as a member of the surgical team is that he or she
A) may function independently in the administration of anesthetics.
B) has the same credentials and responsibilities as an anesthesiologist.
C) has supervision by the anesthesiologist or surgeon while administering anesthesia to a patient.
D) is responsible for intraoperative administration of anesthetics ordered by the anesthesiologist.
Q3) When gathering data to evaluate patient outcomes, the nurse should include the
A) patient's complaints of pain during the perioperative period.
B) number of personnel required for the operative procedure.
C) clarity of any narrative charting in the patient record.
D) educational level of staff working in the operating room.
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Page 21

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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30610
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of dizziness when ambulating in the room on the first postoperative day. In what order will the nurse accomplish the following activities? (All the activities are appropriate.)
A) Take the patient's blood pressure.
B) Have the patient sit down in a chair.
C) Notify the patient's health care provider.
D) Give the patient something to drink.
Q2) When a postoperative patient in the PACU complains of pain at the abdominal incision site, the nurse should
A) administer analgesics as written in the patient's postoperative orders.
B) give half of the postoperative dose of analgesic ordered for the patient.
C) tell the patient that the respiratory rate and effort must be adequate before pain medication can be administered.
D) consult with the ACP to determine an effective dose of an analgesic for the patient.
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30611
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old patient for presbyopia. Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain prior to the examination?
A) Snellen chart
B) Jaeger chart
C) Penlight
D) Tono-pen
Q2) The nurse in the eye clinic is examining a 44-year-old patient who says "I see small spots that move around in front of my eyes." Which action will the nurse take first?
A) Have the ophthalmologist evaluate the patient immediately for possible eye damage.
B) Explain that "floaters" are a normal part of aging and do not require follow-up.
C) Use an ophthalmoscope to examine the posterior chamber and retina of the patient's eyes.
D) Inform the patient that these spots are common and can be surgically removed if they are bothersome.
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30612
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with age-related macular degeneration has just had photodynamic therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that the discharge teaching has been effective?
A) "I will avoid using any facial lotions during the recovery period."
B) "I will use drops to keep my pupils dilated until my appointment."
C) "I will need to use bright lights to read for at least the next week."
D) "I will wear a hat, long-sleeved shirt, and pants for the next 5 days."
Q2) The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with Ménière's disease who is experiencing an acute attack is
A) risk for falls related to dizziness.
B) impaired verbal communication related to tinnitus.
C) self-care deficit: bathing and hygiene related to vertigo.
D) imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to nausea.
Q3) A patient is seen at a clinic for repeated hordeolum of the eyes during the last 6 months. To help prevent further infection, the nurse advises the patient to A) discard all open or used cosmetics.
B) avoid contact lens use for the present.
C) wash the scalp and eyebrows with an antiseborrheic shampoo.
D) be evaluated for the presence of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30613
Sample Questions
Q1) A dark-skinned patient has been admitted to the hospital in severe respiratory distress. To determine whether the patient is cyanotic, the nurse will
A) assess for a bluish tinge in the sclera.
B) apply pressure to the palms of the hands.
C) check the lips and oral mucous membranes.
D) examine the nailbeds for capillary refill.
Q2) Which assessment information documented in a patient's chart indicates that the nurse may need to continue to monitor the skin condition of an 82-year-old patient admitted with bacterial pneumonia?
A) "Skin warm and dry; longitudinal nailbed ridges noted, sparse scalp hair."
B) "Skin moist and intact; no skin breakdown noted. History of allergic rashes."
C) "Skin brown, no skin tenting present. States no past or current skin problems."
D) "Skin pink, no open areas noted. Scattered macular brown areas on extremities."
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30614
Sample Questions
Q1) A fair-skinned 32-year-old patient whose mother recently died from malignant melanoma asks the nurse, "What can I do to prevent malignant melanoma from developing?" The best response by the nurse is that
A) malignant melanoma is a relatively rare type of skin cancer.
B) the patient is at high risk for melanoma because of family history.
C) the avoidance of excessive sun exposure will decrease risk.
D) individuals with fair skin and blue eyes are at increased risk.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the face. Nursing action that is appropriate is to
A) explain that this is the least deadly type of skin cancer.
B) educate about minimizing sun exposure.
C) teach that recurrence of SCC is rare.
D) instruct about the systemic effects of chemotherapy.
Q3) A patient with an enlarging, irregular mole that is 6 mm in diameter is scheduled for outpatient treatment. The nurse should plan on teaching the patient about A) curettage.
B) cryosurgery.
C) punch biopsy.
D) surgical excision.

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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30615
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns of the face and chest has the wounds treated with the open method. The nurse identifies an expected patient outcome of absence of wound infections. An appropriate nursing action to help the patient meet the outcome is to
A) restrict all visitors prevent cross-contamination of wounds.
B) wear gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all care of the patient.
C) use sterile water for cleansing and debridement in the hydrotherapy tank.
D) administer prophylactic antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds.
Q2) A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which of these health care provider orders should the nurse implement first?
A) Place on cardiac monitor.
B) Start 2 large bore IVs.
C) Assess for pain at contact points.
D) Apply dressings to burned areas.
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30616
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is observing a student who is auscultating a patient's lungs. Which action by the student indicates that the nurse should intervene?
A) The student compares breath sounds from side to side.
B) The student starts at the base of the posterior lung and moves to the apices.
C) The student places the stethoscope over the scapulae and then auscultates.
D) The student listens only over the posterior part of the chest.
Q2) A patient who has a 30-pack-year history of smoking asks the nurse, "How does smoking really harm my lungs?" The nurse's response will be based on the effect of smoking on
A) cough and gag reflexes.
B) mucociliary clearance.
C) reflex bronchoconstriction.
D) the filtration of inspired air.
Q3) When admitting a patient who has a pleural effusion, which technique will the nurse use to assess for tactile fremitus?
A) Percuss over the entire posterior chest.
B) Use the fingertips to assess for vibration.
C) Place the palms of the hands on the chest wall.
D) Auscultate while the patient says "ninety-nine."
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Page 28
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30617
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with laryngeal cancer has received teaching about radiation therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective?
A) "I will need to buy a water bottle to carry with me."
B) "Until the radiation is complete, I may have diarrhea."
C) "Alcohol-based mouthwashes will help clean oral ulcers."
D) "I can use lotions to moisturize the skin on my throat."
Q2) The nurse enters the room of a patient who has just returned from surgery for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection and notes the following problems. In which order should the nurse address the problems?
A) The NG tube is disconnected from suction and clamped off.
B) The patient is coughing blood-tinged secretions from the tracheostomy.
C) The patient is lying in a lateral position with the head of the bed flat.
D) The Hemovac in the neck incision contains 200 ml of bloody drainage.
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30618
Sample Questions
Q1) When developing a teaching plan for a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking, it will be most important for the nurse to include information about A) reasons for annual sputum cytology testing.
B) CT screening for lung cancer.
C) erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk.
D) options for smoking cessation.
Q2) A 68-year-old man has a long history of COPD and is admitted to the hospital with cor pulmonale. Which clinical manifestation noted by the nurse is consistent with the cor pulmonale diagnosis?
A) Audible crackles at both lung bases
B) 3+ edema in the lower extremities
C) Loud murmur at the mitral area
D) High systemic BP
Q3) To promote airway clearance in a patient with pneumonia, the nurse instructs the patient to
A) splint the chest when coughing.
B) maintain fluid restrictions.
C) wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
D) try the pursed-lip breathing technique.
Page 30
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30619
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance for a patient with asthma. A common etiologic factor for this nursing diagnosis in patients with asthma is A) anxiety about dyspnea.
B) side effects of medications.
C) work of breathing.
D) fear of suffocation.
Q2) A patient with COPD tells the nurse, "At home, I only have to use an albuterol (Proventil) inhaler. Why did the doctor add an ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler while I'm in the hospital? The appropriate response by the nurse is
A) "Atrovent will dilate the airways and allow the Proventil to penetrate more deeply."
B) "Atrovent is being used to decrease airway inflammation and sputum production."
C) "Atrovent works differently to dilate the bronchi, and the two drugs together are more effective."
D) "Atrovent is a potent bronchodilator and patients need to be hospitalized when receiving it."
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30620
Sample Questions
Q1) In the patient who has had an intraoperative hemorrhage, the nurse would expect to find hematology results of
A) hematocrit of 45%.
B) elevated reticulocyte count.
C) decreased WBC count.
D) hemoglobin 13.2 g/dl.
Q2) While examining the lymph nodes during physical assessment, the nurse would be most concerned about
A) firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot.
B) inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes.
C) 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node.
D) 2-cm nonpainful supraclavicular node.
Q3) During physical assessment of a patient, the nurse suspects a chronic, severe iron-deficiency anemia on finding
A) yellow-tinged sclerae.
B) gum bleeding and tenderness.
C) shiny, smooth tongue.
D) numbness of the extremities.
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30621
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's family member asks the nurse what caused the patient to develop disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The nurse tells the family member that DIC
A) is caused by an abnormal activation of clotting.
B) occurs when the immune system attacks platelets.
C) is a complication of cancer chemotherapy.
D) is caused when hemolytic processes destroy erythrocytes.
Q2) The most appropriate nursing intervention to include in the care plan for a patient with neutropenia is to
A) omit fresh fruits or vegetables from the diet.
B) check the temperature q4hr.
C) avoid any IM or subcutaneous injections.
D) assess all wounds for redness and drainage.
Q3) Fifteen minutes after a transfusion of packed red cells is started, a patient develops tachycardia and tachypnea and complains of back pain and feeling warm. The nurse first action should be to
A) disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline.
B) obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory.
C) administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate.
D) notify the health care provider about the transfusion reaction.
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21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30622
Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing the 12-lead ECG for a healthy 86-year-old patient who is having an annual physical examination, which of these observations will be of most concern to the nurse?
A) The PR interval is 0.21 seconds.
B) The HR is 43 beats/min.
C) There is a right bundle-branch block.
D) There is a QRS duration of 0.13 seconds.
Q2) The nurse hears a murmur between the S<sub>1</sub> and S<sub>2</sub> heart sounds at the patient's left 5th intercostal space and midclavicular line. The best way to record this information is
A) "systolic murmur heard at mitral area."
B) "diastolic murmur heard at aortic area."
C) "systolic murmur heard at Erb's point."
D) "diastolic murmur heard at tricuspid area."
Q3) The nurse teaches the patient being evaluated for rhythm disturbances with a Holter monitor to
A) remove the electrodes when taking a shower or tub bath.
B) exercise more than usual while the monitor is in place.
C) keep a diary of daily activities while the monitor is worn.
D) connect the recorder to a telephone transmitter once daily.
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23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30623
Sample Questions
Q1) A 52-year-old patient has no history of hypertension and no risk factors related to hypertension. During an annual physical examination, the BP is 188/106. After reconfirming the BP, it is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient that
A) a BP recheck should be scheduled in 2 months.
B) there is an imminent danger of a stroke and immediate hospitalization is indicated.
C) the dietary sodium and fat content should be decreased.
D) more diagnostic testing may be needed to determine the cause of the hypertension
Q2) The nurse teaches a patient who is taking labetalol (Normodyne) for treatment of hypertension to change position slowly because this drug
A) blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
B) paralyzes the smooth muscle of blood vessels.
C) decreases sympathetic nervous system activity.
D) prevents the movement of calcium into the cardiac cells.
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37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30624
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has recently started taking rosuvastatin (Crestor) and niacin (Nicobid) reports all the following symptoms to the nurse. Which is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A) Skin flushing after taking the medications
B) Dizziness when changing positions quickly
C) Nausea when taking the drugs before eating
D) Generalized muscle aches and pains
Q2) A patient with chronic stable angina is being treated with metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse will suspect that the patient is experiencing a side effect of the metoprolol if
A) the patient is restless and agitated.
B) the BP is 190/110 mm Hg.
C) the cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 45.
D) the patient complains about feeling anxious.
Q3) While admitting a patient with an AMI, which action should the nurse carry out first?
A) Assess peripheral pulses.
B) Check the oxygen saturation.
C) Attach the cardiac monitor.
D) Obtain the BP.
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23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30625
Sample Questions
Q1) During assessment of a 72-year-old with ankle swelling, the nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD) with the head of the patient's bed elevated 45 degrees. The nurse knows this finding indicates
A) decreased fluid volume.
B) incompetent jugular vein valves.
C) elevated right atrial pressure.
D) jugular vein atherosclerosis.
Q2) When teaching the patient with heart failure about a 2000-mg sodium diet, the nurse explains that foods to be restricted include A) eggs and other high-cholesterol foods.
B) canned and frozen fruits.
C) fresh or frozen vegetables.
D) milk, yogurt, and other milk products.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30626
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse obtains a monitor strip on a patient admitted to the coronary care unit with a myocardial infarction and makes the following analysis: P wave not apparent; ventricular rate 162, R-R interval regular; PR interval not measurable; and QRS complex wide and distorted, QRS duration 0.18 second. The nurse interprets the patient's cardiac rhythm as
A) sinus tachycardia.
B) atrial fibrillation.
C) ventricular tachycardia.
D) ventricular fibrillation.
Q2) A patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is hemodynamically stable and requires cardioversion. The nurse will plan to
A) turn the synchronizer switch to the "off" position.
B) set the level of joules to 300 to convert the SVT.
C) administer a sedative before the procedure is begun.
D) check the incision for bleeding after the procedure.
Q3) When analyzing an ECG rhythm strip of a patient with a regular cardiac rhythm, the nurse finds there are 25 small blocks from one R wave to the next. The nurse calculates the patient's heart rate as ______.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30627
Q1) A patient hospitalized with a streptococcal infective endocarditis tells the nurse," I know that I need antibiotics, but I do not want to be hospitalized for very long." The nurse explains that
A) after 2 weeks of IV antibiotic therapy, the patient may be discharged with oral antibiotics to take for another 4 weeks.
B) hospitalization for 4 to 6 weeks will be necessary to prevent a relapse while receiving IV antibiotic therapy.
C) the patient will be able to receive outpatient IV antibiotic therapy if complications such as heart failure do not develop.
D) hospitalization for IV antibiotics is necessary until the fever is resolved, but then the patient can be discharged on oral antibiotics.
Q2) During the assessment of a patient with IE, the nurse would expect to find A) substernal chest pain and pressure.
B) splinter hemorrhages of the lips.
C) dyspnea and a dry, hacking cough.
D) a new regurgitant murmur.
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31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30628
Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing action that is indicated for the collaborative problem of potential complication: cardiac dysrhythmia in a patient who has had a repair of a descending thoracic aortic aneurysm is to
A) assess level of consciousness and orientation hourly.
B) titrate oxygen to keep O<sub>2</sub> saturation greater than 90%.
C) turn the patient every 1 to 2 hours while on bed rest.
D) monitor hourly fluid intake and urine output levels.
Q2) A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of chronic venous insufficiency. Which of these statements by the patient is most consistent with the diagnosis?
A) "I have burning leg pains after I walk three blocks."
B) "I wake up during the night because my legs hurt."
C) "I can't get my shoes on at the end of the day."
D) "I can never seem to get my feet warm enough."
Q3) When assessing a patient with possible PAD, the nurse obtains a brachial BP of 140/80 and an ankle pressure of 110/70. The nurse calculates the patient's ankle-brachial index (ABI) as ______.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30629
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is assessing an alert and independent older patient in the clinic for malnutrition risk, the most appropriate initial question is,
A) "Do you have any difficulty in preparing or eating food?"
B) "How do you get to the grocery store to buy your food?"
C) "Are you taking any medications that alter your taste or tolerance of foods?"
D) "Can you tell me the foods that you have eaten over the past 24 hours?"
Q2) Which information obtained by the nurse when admitting a patient who is scheduled for an ultrasound of the gallbladder indicates that the ultrasound may need to be rescheduled?
A) The patient had a high-fat meal the previous evening.
B) The patient took a laxative before bed.
C) The patient has a permanent gastrostomy tube.
D) The patient ate a low-fat bagel an hour previously.
Q3) When documenting the absence of bowel tones in all quadrants of a patient's abdomen, the nurse has auscultated the patient's abdomen for _____ minutes.
A) 8
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30630
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these nursing actions included in the plan of care for a patient who is receiving intermittent tube feedings through a PEG tube may be delegated to an LPN/LVN?
A) Teaching the patient and family how to administer tube feedings
B) Assessing the patient's nutritional status at least weekly
C) Determining the need for the addition of water to the feedings
D) Providing skin care to the area around the tube site
Q2) An 82-year-old Latino patient with mild protein-calorie malnutrition shares a home with his spouse and adult daughter. When developing a teaching plan to improve the patient's nutrition, it will be most important for the nurse to obtain information about
A) food preferences of the spouse and adult child.
B) who shops for groceries and cooks.
C) the number of meals per day the patient eats.
D) foods that are culturally significant for the patient.
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30631
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been consistently following a diet and exercise program and successfully losing 1 lb weekly for several months is weighed at the clinic and has not lost any weight for the last month. The nurse should first
A) review the diet and exercise guidelines with the patient.
B) instruct the patient to weigh weekly and record the weights.
C) discuss the possibility that the patient has reached a temporary weight loss plateau.
D) ask the patient whether there have been any changes in exercise or diet patterns.
Q2) Which of these menu selections by a patient who is attempting to lose weight indicates that the initial instructions about diet have been understood?
A) 3 oz of pork roast, a cup of corn, and a sliced tomato
B) A chicken breast and a cup of tossed salad with nonfat dressing
C) A 6 oz can of tuna mixed with nonfat mayonnaise and chopped celery
D) 3 oz of roast beef, 2 oz of low-fat cheese, and a half-cup of carrot sticks
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44 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30632
Sample Questions
Q1) All the following orders are received for a patient who has been admitted with dehydration after 3 days of nausea and vomiting. Which order will the nurse act on first?
A) Provide oral care with moistened swabs.
B) Infuse normal saline at 250 ml/hr.
C) Insert a 16-gauge nasogastric (NG) tube.
D) Administer IV ondansetron (Zofran).
Q2) The nurse implements discharge teaching for a patient following a gastroduodenostomy for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
A) "I will need to choose foods that are low in fat and high in carbohydrate."
B) "I will try to drink liquids along with my meals."
C) "Vitamin injections may be needed to prevent problems with anemia."
D) "The surgery has cured my peptic ulcer disease."
Q3) Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed GERD?
A) "Peppermint tea may be helpful in reducing your symptoms."
B) "You will need to keep the head of your bed elevated on blocks."
C) "You should avoid eating between meals to reduce acid secretion."
D) "Vigorous physical activities may increase the incidence of reflux."
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46 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30633
Sample Questions
Q1) A 42-year-old patient recently developed abdominal distention, weight loss, steatorrhea, and flatulence. A diagnosis of adult celiac disease is made, and treatment is initiated. The nurse determines that teaching about the treatment of the disease has been effective when the patient says,
A) "I must take folic acid for the rest of my life."
B) "I will avoid dietary wheat, rye, barley, and oats."
C) "I will be sure to take all of the ordered antibiotics."
D) "I should eat only very low-fat or fat-free foods."
Q2) A patient who is hospitalized with abdominal pain and watery, incontinent diarrhea is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile. In planning care for the patient, the nurse will
A) order a diet with no dairy products for the patient.
B) place the patient in a private room with contact isolation.
C) explain to the patient why antibiotics are not being used.
D) teach the patient about proper food handling and storage.
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41 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30634
Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is caring for the patient with pancreatic cancer, which nursing diagnosis is a priority?
A) Chronic pain related to tumor pressure on abdominal structures
B) Imbalanced nutrition: less than required related to anorexia
C) Impaired skin integrity related to itching secondary to jaundice
D) Grieving related to potentially terminal diagnosis
Q2) A patient who was admitted with acute bleeding from esophageal varices asks the nurse the purpose for the ordered ranitidine (Zantac). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
B) The medication will prevent irritation to the esophageal varices.
C) The medication will decrease nausea and anorexia.
D) The medication will reduce the risk for aspiration.
Q3) When obtaining a health history from a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse asks the patient specifically about a history of
A) cigarette smoking.
B) alcohol use.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) high-protein diet.

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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30635
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse uses auscultation during assessment of the urinary system to A) determine the position of the kidneys.
B) assess for bladder distension.
C) check for ureteral peristalsis.
D) identify renal artery or aortic bruits.
Q2) While assessing a patient's urinary system, the nurse cannot palpate either kidney. Which action should the nurse take next?
A) Ask the patient about any history of recent sore throat.
B) Obtain a urine specimen to check for hematuria.
C) Ask the health care provider about scheduling a renal ultrasound.
D) Document the information on the assessment form.
Q3) A 20-year-old patient who is employed as a hairdresser and has a 10 pack-year history of cigarette smoking is scheduled for an annual physical examination. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the increased risk for A) bladder cancer.
B) renal failure.
C) pyelonephritis.
D) kidney stones.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working in a urology clinic receives a call from a patient who had a transurethral resection with fulguration for bladder cancer 3 days previously. Which information given by the patient is of most concern to the nurse?
A) The patient is voiding every 4 hours at night.
B) The patient is using opioids for pain.
C) The patient is very anxious about the cancer.
D) There are clots in the urine.
Q2) A 26-year-old patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease is admitted to the surgical unit after having knee surgery. Which of the routine postoperative orders is most important for the nurse discuss with the health care provider?
A) Give ketorolac (Toradol) 10 mg PO PRN for pain.
B) Infuse 5% dextrose in normal saline at 75 ml/hr.
C) Obtain BUN, creatinine, and electrolytes in 2 hours.
D) Order regular diet after patient is awake and alert.
Q3) To prevent the recurrence of renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to
A) avoid all sources of dietary calcium.
B) drink diuretic fluids such as coffee.
C) drink 2000 to 3000 ml of fluid a day.
D) use a filter to strain all urine.

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36 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30637
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with hypertension and stage 2 chronic kidney disease is receiving captopril (Capoten). Before administration of the medication, the nurse will check the patient's A) creatinine.
B) glucose.
C) phosphate.
D) potassium.
Q2) When reviewing the laboratory values for a patient admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident, the nurse will be most concerned about levels of A) creatinine.
B) potassium.
C) white blood cells (WBCs).
D) BUN.
Q3) Before administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a patient with hyperkalemia, the nurse should assess
A) the BUN and creatinine.
B) the blood glucose level.
C) the patient's bowel sounds.
D) the level of consciousness (LOC).
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30638
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient eats a bag of potato chips, the nurse recognizes that hypernatremia is likely to occur if the patient is experiencing a decreased production of A) cortisol.
B) aldosterone.
C) pancreatic somatostatin.
D) antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
Q2) When working with a patient who has diabetes mellitus, the nurse reviews the results of testing for glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb A1C) to evaluate for A) glucose levels 2 hours after a meal.
B) glucose control over the past 3 months.
C) circulating, nonfasting glucose levels.
D) hypoglycemic episodes in the past 90 days.
Q3) Which action taken by a nursing student when caring for patient with thyroiditis and a goiter requires that the nurse intervene immediately?
A) The student checks the blood pressure on both arms.
B) The student lowers the thermostat to decrease the temperature in the room.
C) The student palpates the neck to check thyroid size.
D) The student orders nonmedicated eye drops to lubricate the patient's eyes.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider orders oral glucose tolerance testing for a patient seen in the clinic. Which information from the patient's health history is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?
A) The patient had a viral illness 2 months ago.
B) The patient uses oral contraceptives.
C) The patient runs several days a week.
D) The patient has a family history of diabetes.
Q2) Cardiac monitoring is initiated for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse recognizes that this measure is important to identify
A) electrocardiographic (ECG) changes and dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia.
B) fluid overload resulting from aggressive fluid replacement.
C) the presence of hypovolemic shock related to osmotic diuresis.
D) cardiovascular collapse resulting from the effects of hyperglycemia.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing assessment of a patient with Cushing syndrome reveals that the patient has truncal obesity and thin arms and legs. An additional manifestation of Cushing syndrome that the nurse would expect to find is
A) chronically low blood pressure.
B) decreased axillary and pubic hair.
C) purplish red streaks on the abdomen.
D) bronzed appearance of the skin.
Q2) A patient with suspected acromegaly is seen at the clinic. To assist in making the diagnosis, which question should the nurse ask?
A) "Have you had a recent head injury?"
B) "Do you have to wear larger shoes now?"
C) "Is there any family history of acromegaly?"
D) "Are you experiencing tremors or anxiety?"
Q3) RN observes a nursing assistant (NA) caring for a patient after a hypophysectomy. Which action by the NA requires that the RN intervene?
A) The NA lowers the head of the bed to the flat position.
B) The NA cautions the patient to avoid coughing.
C) The NA cleans the patient's mouth with a swab.
D) The NA collects a urine specimen for specific gravity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a male patient who has had surgical removal of both testes and is taking testosterone replacement, the nurse knows that the alterations in the patient's reproductive function includes A) impotency.
B) both sterility and impotency.
C) loss of secondary sex characteristics.
D) sterility.
Q2) A 22-year-old woman who is scheduled for a routine physical examination tells the nurse she would like a prescription for oral contraceptives. Which information in the patient's history will be most important to report to the health care provider?
A) The patient has not been vaccinated or infected by rubella.
B) The patient has chronic iron-deficiency anemia.
C) The patient had mumps when she was in high school.
D) The patient has had episodes of acute cholecystitis.
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Q1) During examination of a 67-year-old man, the nurse notes bilateral enlargement of the breasts. The nurse's first action should be to
A) palpate the breasts for the presence of any discrete lumps.
B) explain that this is a temporary condition caused by hormonal changes.
C) refer the patient for mammography and biopsy of the breast tissue.
D) teach the patient about dietary changes to reduce the breast size.
Q2) A patient has a permanent breast implant inserted in the outpatient surgery area. Which instructions will the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
A) Resume normal activities 2 to 3 days after the mammoplasty.
B) Check wound drains for excessive blood or any foul odor.
C) Wear a loose-fitting bra to decrease irritation of the sutures.
D) Take aspirin every 4 hours to reduce inflammation.
Q3) When assessing a patient for breast cancer risk, the nurse considers that the patient has a significant family history of breast cancer if she has a A) cousin who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 38.
B) mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 42.
C) sister who died from ovarian cancer at age 56.
D) grandmother who died from breast cancer at age 72.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is treated for chlamydia that was detected during a routine pelvic examination. The nurse knows that teaching regarding the management of the condition has been effective when the patient says,
A) "Go ahead and give me the antibiotic injection so I will be cured."
B) "I will use condoms during sex until I finish taking all the antibiotics."
C) "My immune system will eventually be able to fight off the infection."
D) "My sexual partner will need to take antibiotics at the same time I do."
Q2) A patient who has labs drawn for an insurance screening has a positive VDRL test. The nurse's first action should be to
A) ask the patient about past treatment for syphilis.
B) discuss the need for blood and spinal fluid cultures.
C) obtain a specimen for fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FAT-Abs) testing.
D) assess for the presence of chancres, flulike symptoms, or a bilateral rash on the trunk.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a routine health examination, a 35-year-old woman who uses oral contraceptives tells the nurse, "I want to have children, but I want to wait a few more years." Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) "Because of your age, you may need to stop taking oral contraceptives several years before you want to become pregnant."
B) "You still have many years of fertility left, so there is no rush to have children."
C) "You may have more difficulty becoming pregnant after about age 35."
D) "If you do not have children within the next few years, it will be very difficult for you to become pregnant."
Q2) A 42-year-old woman has developed amenorrhea. If the woman is experiencing menopause, the nurse would expect laboratory findings to include A) decreased serum estrogen.
B) elevated progesterone level.
C) presence of hCG in the urine.
D) low serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse working in a health clinic receives calls from all these patients. Which patient should be seen by the doctor first?
A) A 23-year-old man who states he had difficulty maintaining an erection last night
B) A 44-year-old man who has perineal pain and a temperature of 100.4° F
C) A 62-year-old man who has light pink urine after having a TURP 3 days ago
D) A 66-year-old man who has a painful erection that has lasted over 9 hours
Q2) The health care provider prescribes finasteride (Proscar) for a 56-year-old male patient who has a BPH symptom score of 12 on the AUA Symptom Index. When teaching the patient about the drug, the nurse informs him that
A) his interest in sexual activity may decrease while he is taking the medication.
B) he should change position from lying to standing slowly to avoid dizziness. C) improvement in the obstructive symptoms should occur within about 2 weeks. D) he will need to monitor his blood pressure frequently to assess for hypertension.
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Q1) When interviewing an acutely confused patient with a head injury, which of these questions will provide the most useful information?
A) "Have you ever been hospitalized for a neurologic problem?"
B) "Do you have any pain at the present time?"
C) "What have you had to eat in the last 24 hours?"
D) "Can you describe you usual pattern for coping with injury?"
Q2) The nurse notes in the patient's medical history that the patient has a positive Romberg test. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate?
A) Risk for falls related to dizziness or weakness
B) Disturbed tactile sensory perception related to spinal cord damage
C) Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased vasomotor response
D) Acute pain related to hyperreflexia and spasm
Q3) In a patient who has a corticospinal tract lesion, the nurse should assess for
A) extremity movement and strength.
B) cranial nerve function.
C) peripheral sensitivity to pain.
D) level of consciousness (LOC).
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Q1) Family members are optimistic about a comatose patient's recovery because the patient's eyes open and the patient appears to be awake at times. Which statement by the nurse to the family is appropriate?
A) "The behavior is only a reflex and does not indicate improvement in the comatose condition."
B) "Sleep-wake cycles are indicators of recovery and a sign that the brain function is improving."
C) "When patients begin to recover from a coma, the first behaviors seen are those of wakefulness and opening the eyes."
D) "The part of the brain responsible for arousal is not injured, but the wakefulness does not indicate improvement in higher brain centers."
Q2) A patient who has bacterial meningitis and is disoriented and anxious has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed sensory perception related to decreased level of consciousness.
An appropriate nursing intervention is to
A) apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury.
B) minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input.
C) encourage family members to remain at the bedside.
D) keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation.
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Q1) A patient with a stroke experiences right-sided arm and leg paralysis and facial drooping on the right side. When obtaining admission assessment data about the patient's clinical manifestations, it is most important the nurse assess the patient's A) ability to follow commands.
B) visual fields.
C) right-sided reflexes.
D) emotional state.
Q2) A patient with homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed sensory perception related to hemianopsia. To help the patient learn to compensate for the deficit during the rehabilitation period, the nurse should A) apply an eye patch to the affected eye.
B) approach the patient on the unaffected side.
C) place objects necessary for activities of daily living on the patient's affected side. D) have the patient use the eye muscles to move the eyes through the entire visual field.
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Q1) After experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the classroom, an elementary school teacher is evaluated and diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy. The patient cries and tells the nurse, "I can not teach anymore. It will be too difficult for the students if this happens again at work." The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is A) anxiety related to loss of control during seizures.
B) hopelessness related to diagnosis of chronic illness.
C) disturbed body image related to new diagnosis of a seizure disorder.
D) ineffective role performance related to misinformation about epilepsy.
Q2) A patient experiences cluster headaches that occur for 2 months every year. During assessment of the patient who is experiencing a headache episode, the nurse would expect to find A) nuchal rigidity.
B) projectile vomiting.
C) unilateral eyelid swelling.
D) throbbing, bilateral facial pain.
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Q1) When assessing a patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility, the nurse learns that the patient has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred.
B) Reorient the patient to the new living situation several times daily.
C) Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station.
D) Have the family bring in familiar items from the patient's home.
Q2) A family member of a patient with possible Alzheimer's disease asks the nurse the purpose of the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE). Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A) The MMSE helps in establishing the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease (AD).
B) The MMSE is useful in determining the degree of mental impairment.
C) The MMSE determines the choice of the most appropriate treatment.
D) The MMSE aids in differentiating acute delirium from chronic dementia.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who sustained a T1 spinal cord injury a week ago refuses to discuss the injury and becomes verbally abusive to the nurses and other staff. The patient demands to be transferred to another hospital, where "they know what they are doing." The best response by the nurse to the patient's behavior is to
A) ask for the patient's input into the plan for care.
B) clarify that abusive behavior will not be tolerated.
C) reassure the patient that the anger will pass and rehabilitation will then progress.
D) ignore the patient's anger and continue to perform needed assessments and care.
Q2) As a result of a gunshot wound, a patient has an incomplete right spinal cord lesion at the level of T<sub>7</sub>, resulting in Brown-Séquard syndrome. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care?
A) Assessment of the patient for left leg pain
B) Assessment of the patient for left arm weakness
C) Positioning the patient's right leg when turning the patient
D) Teaching the patient to look at the left leg to verify its position
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Q1) Based on the nurse's understanding of the physiology of bone and cartilage, the injury that the nurse would expect to heal most rapidly is a
A) fracture of the midhumerus.
B) torn knee cruciate ligament.
C) fractured nose.
D) severely sprained ankle.
Q2) When the health care provider tells a patient that the pain in the patient's knee is caused by bursitis, the patient asks the nurse to explain just what bursitis is. The nurse's best response would be to tell the patient bursitis is an inflammation of
A) the fibrocartilage that acts as a shock absorber in the knee joint.
B) a small, fluid-filled sac found at many joints.
C) any connective tissue that is found supporting the joints of the body.
D) the synovial membrane that lines the area between two bones of a joint.
Q3) When assessing the musculoskeletal system, the nurse's initial action will usually be to
A) have the patient move the extremities against resistance.
B) feel for the presence of crepitus during joint movement.
C) observe the patient's body build and muscle configuration.
D) check active and passive range of motion for the extremities.
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Q1) In developing a care plan for a patient with an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of an open, displaced fracture of the tibia, the priority nursing diagnosis is A) risk for constipation related to prolonged bed rest.
B) activity intolerance related to deconditioning.
C) risk for infection related to disruption of skin integrity.
D) risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility.
Q2) A patient who has a proximal humerus fracture that is immobilized with a left-sided long-arm cast, and a sling is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care?
A) Use surgical net dressing to hang the arm from an IV pole.
B) Immobilize the fingers on the left hand with gauze dressings.
C) Assess the left axilla and change absorbent dressings as needed.
D) Assist the patient in passive range of motion (ROM) for the right arm.
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Q1) The nurse determines that teaching regarding diet for a patient with osteoporosis has been successful when the patient selects which of these meals as having the highest amount of calcium?
A) Sardine sandwich on whole wheat bread, one cup of fruit yogurt, and one cup of skim milk
B) Two-egg omelet with American cheese, one slice of whole-wheat toast, and a half grapefruit
C) Ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole-wheat bread, steamed broccoli, and an apple
D) Chicken stir-fry with bok choy, onions, and snap peas and one cup of steamed brown rice
Q2) A patient is hospitalized for initiation of regional antibiotic perfusion for acute osteomyelitis of the right femur. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care?
A) Frequent weight-bearing exercise
B) Immobilization of the right leg
C) Avoid administration of NSAIDs
D) Support right leg in a flexed position
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Q1) A patient with hip pain is diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA). The nurse may need to teach the patient about the use of A) prednisone (Deltasone).
B) capsaicin cream (Zostrix).
C) sulfasalazine (Azulfidine).
D) doxycycline (Vibramycin).
Q2) A patient is hospitalized for onset of diffuse erythema of the upper body with periorbital edema. The health care provider suspects dermatomyositis. In planning care for the patient, the nurse anticipates that the collaborative care of the patient will involve A) instillation of artificial tears.
B) local steroid injections of skin lesions.
C) administration of high-dose corticosteroids.
D) electromyelographic (EMG) evaluation for meningeal inflammation.
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Q1) To verify the correct placement of an endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action for the nurse to take is
A) use an end-tidal CO<sub>2</sub> monitor to check for placement in the trachea.
B) auscultate for the presence of bilateral breath sounds.
C) obtain a portable chest radiograph to check tube placement.
D) observe the chest for symmetrical movement with ventilation.
Q2) Which action by a new RN working in the ICU indicates that the education regarding care of the patient receiving manual ventilation with 10 cm of PEEP has been effective?
A) The RN plans to suction the patient every 2 hours.
B) The RN tapes connection between the ventilator tubing and the ET.
C) The RN uses a closed-suction technique to suction the patient.
D) The RN changes the ventilator circuit tubing routinely every 24 hours.
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Q1) While assessing a patient in shock who has an arterial line in place, the nurse notes a drop in the systolic BP from 92 mm Hg to 76 mm Hg when the head of the patient's bed is elevated to 75 degrees. This finding indicates a need for A) additional fluid replacement.
B) antibiotic administration.
C) infusion of a sympathomimetic drug.
D) administration of increased oxygen.
Q2) A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the ED. The nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock in addition to hypovolemic shock, based on the finding of A) cool, clammy skin.
B) shortness of breath.
C) heart rate of 48 beats/min
D) BP of 82/40 mm Hg.
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Q1) Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the family members of a patient with ARDS is correct?
A) "PEEP will prevent fibrosis of the lung from occurring."
B) "PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation."
C) "PEEP allows the ventilator to deliver 100% oxygen to the lungs."
D) "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation."
Q2) When admitting a patient in possible respiratory failure with a high PaCO?, which assessment information will be of most concern to the nurse?
A) The patient is somnolent.
B) The patient's SpO<sub>2</sub>f.is 90%.
C) The patient complains of weakness.
D) The patient's blood pressure is 162/94.
Q3) To evaluate both oxygenation and ventilation in a patient with acute respiratory failure, the nurse uses the findings revealed with A) arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis.
B) hemodynamic monitoring.
C) chest x-rays.
D) pulse oximetry.
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Q1) A patient is brought to the hospital in cardiac arrest by emergency personnel who are performing resuscitation. The spouse arrives as the patient is taken into a treatment room and asks to stay with the patient. The nurse should
A) have the spouse wait outside the treatment room with a designated staff member to provide emotional support.
B) bring the spouse into the room and ensure him or her that a member of the team will explain the care given and answer questions.
C) explain that the presence of family members is distracting to staff and might impair the resuscitation efforts.
D) advise the spouse that if the resuscitation effort is unsuccessful, the memories may have an adverse impact on grieving.
Q2) All of the following actions are needed for a patient admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which one will the nurse accomplish first?
A) Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 100 mg po.
B) Apply calamine lotion to any itching areas.
C) Place ice packs on both hands.
D) Remove the patient's rings.
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